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  • What's the most efficient query?

    - by Aaron Carlino
    I have a table named Projects that has the following relationships: has many Contributions has many Payments In my result set, I need the following aggregate values: Number of unique contributors (DonorID on the Contribution table) Total contributed (SUM of Amount on Contribution table) Total paid (SUM of PaymentAmount on Payment table) Because there are so many aggregate functions and multiple joins, it gets messy do use standard aggregate functions the the GROUP BY clause. I also need the ability to sort and filter these fields. So I've come up with two options: Using subqueries: SELECT Project.ID AS PROJECT_ID, (SELECT SUM(PaymentAmount) FROM Payment WHERE ProjectID = PROJECT_ID) AS TotalPaidBack, (SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT DonorID) FROM Contribution WHERE RecipientID = PROJECT_ID) AS ContributorCount, (SELECT SUM(Amount) FROM Contribution WHERE RecipientID = PROJECT_ID) AS TotalReceived FROM Project; Using a temporary table: DROP TABLE IF EXISTS Project_Temp; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE Project_Temp (project_id INT NOT NULL, total_payments INT, total_donors INT, total_received INT, PRIMARY KEY(project_id)) ENGINE=MEMORY; INSERT INTO Project_Temp (project_id,total_payments) SELECT `Project`.ID, IFNULL(SUM(PaymentAmount),0) FROM `Project` LEFT JOIN `Payment` ON ProjectID = `Project`.ID GROUP BY 1; INSERT INTO Project_Temp (project_id,total_donors,total_received) SELECT `Project`.ID, IFNULL(COUNT(DISTINCT DonorID),0), IFNULL(SUM(Amount),0) FROM `Project` LEFT JOIN `Contribution` ON RecipientID = `Project`.ID GROUP BY 1 ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE total_donors = VALUES(total_donors), total_received = VALUES(total_received); SELECT * FROM Project_Temp; Tests for both are pretty comparable, in the 0.7 - 0.8 seconds range with 1,000 rows. But I'm really concerned about scalability, and I don't want to have to re-engineer everything as my tables grow. What's the best approach?

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  • Building asynchronous cache pattern with JSP

    - by merweirdo
    I have a JSP that will take some 8 minutes to render. The code logic itself can not be made more efficient (it will update often and be updated by basically a pointy haired boss). I tried wrapping it with a caching layer like <%@ taglib uri="/WEB-INF/classes/oscache.tld" prefix="oscache" %> <oscache:cache time="60"> <div class="pagecontent"> ..... my logic </div> </oscache:cache> This is nice until the 60 seconds is over. The next query after that blocks until the 8 minutes of rendering is done with again. I would need a way to build a pattern something like: If there is no version of the dynamic content in the cache run the actual logic (and populate the cache for subsequent requests) If there is a non-expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic from the cache If there is an expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic still from the cache AND run the JSP logic in the background so that the cache gets updated transparently to the user - avoiding the user have to wait for 8 minutes I found out that at least EHCache might be able to do some asynchronous cache updating but it did not sadly seem to apply to the JSP tags... Also I have to take in 10-20 parameters for the actual logic of the JSP and some of them should be used as a key for caching. Code example and/or pointers would be greatly appreciated. I do not frankly care if the solution provided is extremely ugly. I just want a simple 5 minute caching with asynchronous cache update taking into account some parameters as a key.

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  • Rails - Why is HAML showing the full hash?

    - by Mr. Demetrius Michael
    View: !!! %html %head %title= full_title(yield(:title)) =stylesheet_link_tag "application", media: "all" =javascript_include_tag "application" =csrf_meta_tags =render 'layouts/shim' %body =render 'layouts/header' .container =flash.each do |key, value| %div{class: "alert alert-#{key}"} #{value} Controller def create @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:success] = "This is Correct" redirect_to @user else flash[:wrong] = "no" render 'new' end end Regardless of the flash (:success or :wrong or otherwise) it always compiles the entire hash as html (below) Output: <!DOCTYPE html> .... <div class='container'> <div class='alert alert-wrong'>no</div> {:wrong=&gt;&quot;no&quot;} </div> </body> </html> I have no idea why {:wrong=&gt;&quot;no&quot;} is being displayed. I've been staring at this terminal for hours. What's interesting is that the hash is being outputted with the container id, but not in the alert class. It feels like an indentation problem, but I went through several permutations with no success.

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  • Map a domain to an MVC area

    - by Simon_Weaver
    Anybody got any experience in mapping a domain to an MVC area? Here's our situation: Old system (still active but will soon redirect to new store): www.example.com - our main site where we send traffic store.example.com - our store site which is a completely separate site that is indexed in google New system: www.example.com - same site as before www.example.com/store - new store site - built in an ASP.NET MVC area Because store is a separate domain google gives it a separate entry in the search results. I'd like to keep this benefit in future but wondering whether or not there is a good way to map a domain (store.example.com) to the MVC area or if its just going to be more trouble than its worth. PS. I'm not trying to keep existing indexing - its a completely separate store so thats not possible. I just want to redirect to the corresponding page in the new store. I'm just trying not to lose the benefit of two domains for SEO purposes.

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  • Is it dangerous to store user-enterable text into a hidden form via javascript?

    - by KallDrexx
    In my asp.net MVC application I am using in place editors to allow users to edit fields without having a standard form view. Unfortunately, since I am using Linq to Sql combined with my data mapping layer I cannot just update one field at a time and instead need to send all fields over at once. So the solution I came up with was to store all my model fields into hidden fields, and provide span tags that contain the visible data (these span tags become editable due to my jquery plugin). When a user triggers a save of their edits of a field, jquery then takes their value and places it in the hidden form, and sends the whole form to the server to commit via ajax. When the data goes into the hidden field originally (page load) and into the span tags the data is properly encoded, but upon the user changing the data in the contenteditable span field, I just run $("#hiddenfield").val($("#spanfield").html(); Am I opening any holes this method? Obviously the server also properly encodes stuff prior to database entry.

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  • Joining Tables Based on Foreign Keys

    - by maestrojed
    I have a table that has a lot of fields that are foreign keys referencing a related table. I am writing a script in PHP that will do the db queries. When I query this table for its data I need to know the values associated with these keys not the key. How do most people go about this? A 101 way to do this would be to query this table for its data including the foreign keys and then query the related tables to get each key's value. This could be a lot of queries (~10). Question 1: I think I could write 1 query with a bunch of joins. Would that be better? This approach also requires the querying script to know which table fields are foreign keys. Since I have many tables like this but all with different fields, this means writing nice generic functions is hard. MySQL InnoDB tables allow for foreign constraints. I know the database has these set up correctly. Question 2: What about the idea of querying the table and identifying what the constraints are and then matching them up using whatever process I decide on from Question 1. I like this idea but never see it being used in code. Makes me think its not a good idea for some reason. I would use something like SHOW CREATE TABLE tbl_name; to find what constraints/relationships exist for that table. Thank you for any suggestions or advice.

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  • Tail recursion and memoization with C#

    - by Jay
    I'm writing a function that finds the full path of a directory based on a database table of entries. Each record contains a key, the directory's name, and the key of the parent directory (it's the Directory table in an MSI if you're familiar). I had an iterative solution, but it started looking a little nasty. I thought I could write an elegant tail recursive solution, but I'm not sure anymore. I'll show you my code and then explain the issues I'm facing. Dictionary<string, string> m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary = new Dictionary<string, string>(); ... private string ExpandDirectoryKey(Database database, string directoryKey) { // check for terminating condition string fullPath; if (m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary.TryGetValue(directoryKey, out fullPath)) { return fullPath; } // inductive step Record record = ExecuteQuery(database, "SELECT DefaultDir, Directory_Parent FROM Directory where Directory.Directory='{0}'", directoryKey); // null check string directoryName = record.GetString("DefaultDir"); string parentDirectoryKey = record.GetString("Directory_Parent"); return Path.Combine(ExpandDirectoryKey(database, parentDirectoryKey), directoryName); } This is how the code looked when I realized I had a problem (with some minor validation/massaging removed). I want to use memoization to short circuit whenever possible, but that requires me to make a function call to the dictionary to store the output of the recursive ExpandDirectoryKey call. I realize that I also have a Path.Combine call there, but I think that can be circumvented with a ... + Path.DirectorySeparatorChar + .... I thought about using a helper method that would memoize the directory and return the value so that I could call it like this at the end of the function above: return MemoizeHelper( m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary, Path.Combine(ExpandDirectoryKey(database, parentDirectoryKey)), directoryName); But I feel like that's cheating and not going to be optimized as tail recursion. Any ideas? Should I be using a completely different strategy? This doesn't need to be a super efficient algorithm at all, I'm just really curious. I'm using .NET 4.0, btw. Thanks!

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  • Exclude some parameters with POST request on RestKit

    - by Mike Meyers
    I've just integrated RestKit with a Mac application for communicating with a web service. After much confusion, I have successfully got requests and responses working using it. The problem I am now finding is that when I want to make a POST request. I have created a RKRequestDescriptor with a mapping for a whole number of properties and all of the properties are being sent as parameters for the query. I want a way of dynamically changing the parameters that are sent, for example not sending some parameters where the property is nil. Is this possible as part of the built-in functionality of RestKit? And if so, how?

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  • How do I register multiple paths for a HttpHandler in IIS7?

    - by Daniel T.
    I have a HttpHandler that resizes images based on the querystring, so requesting something like: http://server/image.jpg?width=320&height=240 will give you a resized image that's 320x240. In the IIS Manager, under Handler Mappings, I mapped my handler's path as *.jpg,*.gif,*.bmp,*.png. However, this doesn't activate the handler. If I change it to just *.jpg, then it works. My question is, do I have to create 4 separate mapping entries, one for each image type, or is there some way to combine multiple extensions in one path?

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  • Traversing through an arbitrary dictionary tree structure in C#

    - by Rudism
    I am trying to write a recursive C# function that will operate on generic dictionaries of the form IDictionary<string, T> where T is either another IDictionary<string, T> or a string. My first failed attempt looked something like this: public string HandleDict(IDictionary<string, string> dict){ // handle the leaf-node here } public string HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, IDictionary<string, T>> dict){ // loop through children foreach(string key in dict.Keys){ HandleDict(dict[key]); } } I also tried variants of HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, T>) where T : IDictionary<string, T> but that also doesn't quite work. I know that what I want to do could be achieved through a custom class as the parameter instead of dictionaries, and that my attempts are conceptually flawed (there's no end to the recursion in the generic function). I would still like to know if there is actually a way to do what I want here using just generic IDictionaries.

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  • How to properly set relationships in Core Data when using setValue and data already exists

    - by ern
    Let's say I have two objects: Articles and Categories. For the sake of this example all relevant categories have already been added to the data store. When looping through data that holds edits for articles, there is category relationship information that needs to be saved. I was planning on using the -setValue method in the Article class in order to set the relationships like so: - (void)setValue:(id)value forUndefinedKey:(NSString *)key { if([key isEqualToString:@"categories"]){ NSLog(@"trying to set categories..."); } } The problem is that value isn't a Category, it is just a string (or array of strings) holding the title of a category. I could certainly do a lookup within this method for each category and assign it, but that seems inefficient when processing a whole bunch of articles at once. Another option is to populate an array of all possible categories and just filter, but my question is where to store that array? Should it be a class method on Article? Is there a way to pass in additional data to the -setValue method? Is there another, better option for setting the relationship I'm not thinking of? Thanks for your help.

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  • Moving information between databases

    - by williamjones
    I'm on Postgres, and have two databases on the same machine, and I'd like to move some data from database Source to database Dest. Database Source: Table User has a primary key Table Comments has a primary key Table UserComments is a join table with two foreign keys for User and Comments Dest looks just like Source in structure, but already has information in User and Comments tables that needs to be retained. I'm thinking I'll probably have to do this in a few steps. Step 1, I would dump Source using the Postgres Copy command. Step 2, In Dest I would add a temporary second_key column to both User and Comments, and a new SecondUserComments join table. Step 3, I would import the dumped file into Dest using Copy again, with the keys input into the second_key columns. Step 4, I would add rows to UserComments in Dest based on the contents of SecondUserComments, only using the real primary keys this time. Could this be done with a SQL command or would I need a script? Step 5, delete the SecondUserComments table and remove the second_key columns. Does this sound like the best way to do this, or is there a better way I'm overlooking?

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  • WordPress plugin to output a certain category on content page tweak help

    - by talkingD0G
    I'm using WordPress plugin Category Page to display the most recent 5 posts from a certain category on a regular content page (not the blog page) of a website. Right now the plugin is limited to display the post title linked to the post page. This is a video blog type site and I need the plugin to display the post title (as it does now) with the video as well. Probably just telling the script to show the content would work but I don't know how to tweak it. This is the section of the script that is outputting the post title: function page2cat_content_catlist($content){ global $post; if ( stristr( $content, '[catlist' )) { $search = "@(?:<p>)*\s*\[catlist\s*=\s*(\w+|^\+)\]\s*(?:</p>)*@i"; if (preg_match_all($search, $content, $matches)) { if (is_array($matches)) { $title = get_option('p2c_catlist_title'); if($title != "") $output = "<h4>".$title."</h4>"; else $output = ""; $output .= "<ul class='p2c_catlist'>"; $limit = get_option('p2c_catlist_limit'); foreach ($matches[1] as $key =>$v0) { $catposts = get_posts('category='.$v0."&numberposts=".$limit); foreach($catposts as $single): $output .= "<li><a href='".get_permalink($single->ID)." '>".$single->post_title."</a></li>"; endforeach; $search = $matches[0][$key]; $replace= $output; $content= str_replace ($search, $replace, $content); } $output .= "</ul>"; } } } return $content; } If anyone has any advice or knows how to help thanks in advance!

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  • autologin component doesn't work on remote server

    - by user606521
    I am using autologin component from http://milesj.me/code/cakephp/auto-login (v 3.5.1). It works on my localhost WAMP server but fails on remote server. I am using this settings in beforeFilter() callback: $this->AutoLogin->settings = array( // Model settings 'model' => 'User', 'username' => 'username', 'password' => 'password', // Controller settings 'plugin' => '', 'controller' => 'users', // Cookie settings 'cookieName' => 'rememberMe', 'expires' => '+1 month', // Process logic 'active' => true, 'redirect' => true, 'requirePrompt' => true ); On remote server it simply doesn't autolog users after the browser was closed. I can't figure out what may cause the problem. -------------------- edit I figured out what is causing the problem but I don't know how to fix this. First of all cookie is set like this: $this->Cookie->write('key',array('username' => 'someusername', 'hash' => 'somehash', ...) ); Then it's readed like this: $cookie = $this->Cookie->read('key'); On my WAMP server $cookie is array('username' => 'someusername', 'hash' => 'somehash', ...) and on remote server returned $cookie is string(159) "{\"username\":\"YWxlay5iYXJzsdsdZXdza2ldssd21haWwuY29t\",\"password\":\"YWxlazc3ODEy\",\"hash\":\"aa15bffff9ca12cdcgfgb351d8bfg2f370bf458\",\"time\":1339923926}" and it should be: array( 'username' => "YWxlay5iYXJzsdsdZXdza2ldssd21haWwuY29t", 'password' => "YWxlazc3ODEy", ...) Why the retuned cookie is string not array?

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  • How to "reduce" a hash?

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    Suppose I have any "long" hash, like a 16 bytes MD5 or a 20 bytes SHA1. I want to reduce this hash to fit on 4 bytes, for GetHashCode() purposes. First, I'm perfectly aware that I'll get more collisions. That's totally fine in my case, but I'd still prefer to get the less possible collisions. There are several solutions to my problem: I could take the 4 first bytes of the hash. I could take the 4 last bytes of the hash. I could take 4 random bytes of the hash. I could generate a hash of the hash, involving classic prime numbers multiplications. Are there other solutons I didn't think about? And more importantly, what method will give me the most unique hash code? I'm currently supposing they're almost equivalent. Microsoft choose that the public key token of an assembly is the last 8 bytes of the SHA1 hash of its public key, so I'll probably go for this solution but I'd like to know why.

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  • How to keep historic details of modification in a database (Audit trail)?

    - by mada
    I'm a J2EE developer & we are using hibernate mapping with a PostgreSQL database. We have to keep track of any changes occurs in the database, in others words all previous & current values of any field should be saved. Each field can be any type (bytea, int, char...) With a simple table it is easy but we a graph of objects things are more difficult. So we have, speaking in a UML point of view, a graph of objects to store in the database with every changes & the user. Any idea or pattern how to do that?

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  • Grails Unit testing a function with session object

    - by Suganthan
    I having a Controller like def testFunction(testCommand cmdObj) { if (cmdObj.hasErrors()) { render(view: "testView", model: [cmdObj:cmdObj]) return } else { try { testService.testFunction(cmdObj.var1, cmdObj.var2, session.user.username as String) flash.message = message(code: 'message') redirect url: createLink(mapping: 'namedUrl') } catch (GeneralException error) { render(view: "testView", model: [cmdObj:cmdObj]) return } } } For the above controller function I having a Unit test function like: def "test function" () { controller.session.user.username = "testUser" def testCommandOj = new testCommand( var1:var1, var2:var2, var3:var3, var4:var4 ) testService service = Mock(testService) controller.testService = service service.testFunction(var2,var3,var4) when: controller.testFunction(testCommandOj) then: view == "testView" assertTrue model.cmdObj.hasErrors() where: var1 | var2 | var3 | var4 "testuser" | "word@3" | "word@4" | "word@4" } When running this test function I getting the error like Cannot set property 'username' on null object, means I couldn't able to set up the session object. Can someone help to fix this. Thanks in advance

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  • Is there a tool for managing redundant pages across a website?

    - by dmanexe
    I am in charge of constructing a website with a '2-dimensional' site map, as explained later. I am looking for (preferably a Wordpress plugin, as the site is built in Wordpress already) that would make managing thousands of pages a lot easier. To explain further, let me iterate my situation. I am building a website for a construction company, and they have several key cities and several key services. Now, they want a parent page for each service, and another unique page for the child sub-service, and finaly, a grandchild page for the city they are performing the service in. For example, if they were doing Concrete Construction in Los Angeles, the URL would look like: /concrete/construction/los-angeles The content on /los-angeles would be the same as on /malibu, or /burbank. However, there would be a different set of content for /concrete/design/los-angeles, but the entire page content (sans a few variables with city names) would be the same. Is there a way to manage or automate 'matrixing' this information on the site? I am looking for a tool that would allow me to easily add a 'city' with the same content across all grandchildren, per the child's content requirements. All of the grandchildren pages will have redundant content across them. Should something like this not exist, how difficult would it be to create, as a freelance side project? I need a tool like this, because I am approaching about ~500 cities and 50 services (Concrete Construction, Concrete Design, Concrete Engineering, etc)

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  • Blackberry Keyboard Lock timeout

    - by Vernon
    I want this blackberry 9700 to "fully lock" as soon as I click the icon for the "Keyboard Lock" application. Currently I have to wait 5 to 7 seconds for the screen to go dark after each time I click the "Keyboard Lock" icon. During that time if something touches the touch pad, then the 5-7 second timer resets and you have to wait another 5 to 7 seconds for the screen to go dark and "fully lock" After it finally goes dark, touching the touch pad does not reset the timer. At that point it is "fully locked" and requires a key to be pressed. How can I get it to "fully lock" as soon as the lock icon is clicked? I want the screen to go dark immediately, and for it to require a key press to request an unlock. I have tried Options - Screen/Keyboard - Backlight Timeout ... etc ... none of that reduces the timeout for the "Keyboard Lock" application. And there does not seem to be an option screen for the "Keyboard Lock" application, that I can find. NOTE: This is occurring with BlackBerry 9700 v5.0.0.330 (Platform 5.1.0.91)

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  • Is there a Java method that encodes a collection of parameters as a URL query component?

    - by Steven Huwig
    Is there a widely-used Java library that does something like what dojo.objectToQuery() does? E.g. (assuming the use of HttpCore's HttpParams object, but any key-value mapping will do): HttpParams params = new BasicHttpParams() .setParameter("foo", "bar") .setParameter("thud", "grunt"); UnknownLibrary.toQueryString(params); should yield "foo=bar&thud=grunt". I know it's not hard to write but it seems like it should have already been written. I just can't find it.

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  • RSKeyMgmt -r unable to remove installtion ID

    - by Eves
    I have backed up databases on one 2005 SQL Server and have restored those databases on a second 2005 SQL Server. I am currently trying to remove the new server's OLD key instance ID using the Reporting Services Key Manager (RSKeyMgmt -r). Prior to running the removal command the list of the current instances shows the new server's OLD instance ID as well as the NEW instance ID from the first SQL Server. Executing the RSKeyMgmt -r command results in: "The command completed successfully". However, when I recheck the listing of current instance IDs I see both the OLD and NEW instance IDs. In addition, when I check the Application Event Viewer I see an error: Report Server Windows Service (MSSQLSERVER) has not been granted access to the catalog content Does anyone know why I would be getting the above application error? Or...does anyone know what I would need to do to give access to the catalog to the Report Server Window Service? The first SQL Server where the databases were backed up is an Enterprise edition SQL Server and the second SQL Server where the databases were restored is Standard edition. Could this be the cause of the problem? Is there a way to make this backup and restore migration work?

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  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

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  • Hibernate saveorUpdate method problem

    - by umesh awasthi
    Hi all, i am trying to work on with Hibernate (Database side for first time) and some how struck in choosing best possible way to use saveOrUpdate or Save.Update i have a destination POJO class and its other attributes which needs to be updated along with the Destination entity. i am getting an XML file to be imported and i am using the following code to update/save the destination entity along with its attribute classes. try{ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().beginTransaction(); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().saveOrUpdate(entity); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().commit(); } catch(Exception e){ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().rollback(); } finally{ getSessionFactory().close(); } everything is working fine untill i am using the same session instance.but later on when i am using the same XML file to update the destination PO for certain attributes it giving me the following error. SEVERE: Duplicate entry 'MNLI' for key 'DESTINATIONID' 9 Jan, 2011 4:58:11 PM org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener performExecutions SEVERE: Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: Could not execute JDBC batch update at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:94) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.executeBatch(AbstractBatcher.java:275) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:114) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:109) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareBatchStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:244) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2242) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2678) at org.hibernate.action.EntityInsertAction.execute(EntityInsertAction.java:79) i am using UUID as primary key for the Destination table and in destination table i have a destination id which is unique.but i can understand that in the secodn case hibernate is not able to find if there is already an entry for the same destination in the DB and trying to execute insert statement rather than update. one possible solution is i can user destinationid to check if there is already a destination inplace with the given id and based on the results i can issue save or update command. my question is can this be achieve by any other good way..? Thanks in advance

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  • mysql subquery strangely slow

    - by aviv
    I have a query to select from another sub-query select. While the two queries look almost the same the second query (in this sample) runs much slower: SELECT user.id ,user.first_name -- user.* FROM user WHERE user.id IN (SELECT ref_id FROM education WHERE ref_type='user' AND education.institute_id='58' AND education.institute_type='1' ); This query takes 1.2s Explain on this query results: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY user index first_name 152 141192 Using where; Using index 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY education index_subquery ref_type,ref_id,institute_id,institute_type,ref_type_2 ref_id 4 func 1 Using where The second query: SELECT -- user.id -- user.first_name user.* FROM user WHERE user.id IN (SELECT ref_id FROM education WHERE ref_type='user' AND education.institute_id='58' AND education.institute_type='1' ); Takes 45sec to run, with explain: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY user ALL 141192 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY education index_subquery ref_type,ref_id,institute_id,institute_type,ref_type_2 ref_id 4 func 1 Using where Why is it slower if i query only by index fields? Why both queries scans the full length of the user table? Any ideas how to improve? Thanks.

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  • WPF ContextMenu bind some property to another property of the same control

    - by bebicasoft
    I have a ContextMenu and a ColumnHeaderStyle defined in Window.Resource section witch i use-it to a DataGrid ColumnHeader. My code is something like this: <ContextMenu x:Key="cm_columnHeaderMenu"/> <Style x:Key="DefaultColumnHeaderStyle" TargetType="{x:Type DataGridColumnHeader}"> <Setter Property="ContextMenu" Value="{StaticResource cm_columnHeaderMenu}" /> </Style> <DataGrid Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" x:Name="dgridFiles" IsReadOnly="True" ColumnHeaderStyle="{StaticResource DefaultColumnHeaderStyle}"> I want to know if I can (and if the answer it true, then HOW I could do it) bind the ContextMenu Visibility property to same control ContextMenu Items.Count>0 property. Initially based on some other treeView control selections made there shoud be no items in the context menu, but i wish to add dinamically items in ContextMenu based on selection in treeView. This part is done, the context has those items. On some selections there are no-items, but still on the grid it appears an empty ContextMenu. So I believe the easiest part it would be to bind the Visibility to Items.Count property of the same control. Sorry if my english is not good enought, I'll try to explain better if i didnt make clear 1st time.

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