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  • How to distinguish between two different UDP clients on the same IP address?

    - by Ricket
    I'm writing a UDP server, which is a first for me; I've only done a bit of TCP communications. And I'm having trouble figuring out exactly how to distinguish which user is which, since UDP deals only with packets rather than connections and I therefore cannot tell exactly who I'm communicating with. Here is pseudocode of my current server loop: DatagramPacket p; socket.receive(p); // now p contains the user's IP and port, and the data int key = getKey(p); if(key == 0) { // connection request key = makeKey(p); clients.add(key, p.ip); send(p.ip, p.port, key); // give the user his key } else { // user has a key // verify key belongs to that IP address // lookup the user's session data based on the key // react to the packet in the context of the session } When designing this, I kept in mind these points: Multiple users may exist on the same IP address, due to the presence of routers, therefore users must have a separate identification key. Packets can be spoofed, so the key should be checked against its original IP address and ignored if a different IP tries to use the key. The outbound port on the client side might change among packets. Is that third assumption correct, or can I simply assume that one user = one IP+port combination? Is this commonly done, or should I continue to create a special key like I am currently doing? I'm not completely clear on how TCP negotiates a connection so if you think I should model it off of TCP then please link me to a good tutorial or something on TCP's SYN/SYNACK/ACK mess. Also note, I do have a provision to resend a key, if an IP sends a 0 and that IP already has a pending key; I omitted it to keep the snippet simple. I understand that UDP is not guaranteed to arrive, and I plan to add reliability to the main packet handling code later as well.

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  • MySQL Query That Can Pull the Data I am Seeking?

    - by Amy
    On the project I am working on, I am stuck with the table structure from Hades. Two things to keep in mind: I can't change the table structure right now. I'm stuck with it for the time being. The queries are dynamically generated and not hard coded. So, while I am asking for a query that can pull this data, what I am really working toward is an algorithm that will generate the query I need. Hopefully, I can explain the problem without making your eyes glaze over and your brain implode. We have an instance table that looks (simplified) along these lines: Instances InstanceID active 1 Y 2 Y 3 Y 4 N 5 Y 6 Y Then, there are multiple data tables along these lines: Table1 InstanceID field1 reference_field2 1 John 5 2 Sally NULL 3 Fred 6 4 Joe NULL Table2 InstanceID field3 5 1 6 1 Table3 InstanceID fieldID field4 5 1 Howard 5 2 James 6 2 Betty Please note that reference_field2 in Table1 contains a reference to another instance. Field3 in Table2 is a bit more complicated. It contains a fieldID for Table 3. What I need is a query that will get me a list as follows: InstanceID field1 field4 1 John Howard 2 Sally 3 Fred The problem is, in the query I currently have, I do not get Fred because there is no entry in Table3 for fieldID 1 and InstanceID 6. So, the very best list I have been able to get thus far is InstanceID field1 field4 1 John Howard 2 Sally In essence, if there is an entry in Table1 for Field 2, and there is not an entry in Table 3 that has the instanceID contained in field2 and the field ID contained in field3, I don't get the data from field1. I have looked at joins till I'm blue in the face, and I can't see a way to handle the case when table3 has no entry.

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  • latin1/unicode conversion problem with ajax request and special characters

    - by mfn
    Server is PHP5 and HTML charset is latin1 (iso-8859-1). With regular form POST requests, there's no problem with "special" characters like the em dash (–) for example. Although I don't know for sure, it works. Probably because there exists a representable character for the browser at char code 150 (which is what I see in PHP on the server for a literal em dash with ord). Now our application also provides some kind of preview mechanism via ajax: the text is sent to the server and a complete HTML for a preview is sent back. However, the ordinary char code 150 em dash character when sent via ajax (tested with GET and POST) mutates into something more: %E2%80%93. I see this already in the apache log. According to various sources I found, e.g. http://www.tachyonsoft.com/uc0020.htm , this is the UTF8 byte representation of em dash and my current knowledge is that JavaScript handles everything in Unicode. However within my app, I need everything in latin1. Simply said: just like a regular POST request would have given me that em dash as char code 150, I would need that for the translated UTF8 representation too. That's were I'm failing, because with PHP on the server when I try to decode it with either utf8_decode(...) or iconv('UTF-8', 'iso-8859-1', ...) but in both cases I get a regular ? representing this character (and iconv also throws me a notice: Detected an illegal character in input string ). My goal is to find an automated solution, but maybe I'm trying to be überclever in this case? I've found other people simply doing manual replacing with a predefined input/output set; but that would always give me the feeling I could loose characters. The observant reader will note that I'm behind on understanding the full impact/complexity with things about Unicode and conversion of chars and I definitely prefer to understand the thing as a whole then a simply manual mapping. thanks

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  • Throttling CPU/Memory usage of a Thread in Java?

    - by Nalandial
    I'm writing an application that will have multiple threads running, and want to throttle the CPU/memory usage of those threads. There is a similar question for C++, but I want to try and avoid using C++ and JNI if possible. I realize this might not be possible using a higher level language, but I'm curious to see if anyone has any ideas. EDIT: Added a bounty; I'd like some really good, well thought out ideas on this. EDIT 2: The situation I need this for is executing other people's code on my server. Basically it is completely arbitrary code, with the only guarantee being that there will be a main method on the class file. Currently, multiple completely disparate classes, which are loaded in at runtime, are executing concurrently as separate threads. I inherited this code (the original author is gone). The way it's written, it would be a pain to refactor to create separate processes for each class that gets executed. If that's the only good way to limit memory usage via the VM arguments, then so be it. But I'd like to know if there's a way to do it with threads. Even as a separate process, I'd like to be able to somehow limit its CPU usage, since as I mentioned earlier, several of these will be executing at once. I don't want an infinite loop to hog up all the resources. EDIT 3: An easy way to approximate object size is with java's Instrumentation classes; specifically, the getObjectSize method. Note that there is some special setup needed to use this tool.

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  • Initial text and paperclipped-URL for action in UIActivityViewController & UIActivityItemSource?

    - by Benjamin Kreeger
    Finally been making it through Apple's (rather dismal) documentation on the new UIActivityViewController class and the UIActivityItemSource protocol, and I'm trying to send different data sets to different actions called from the activity view. To simplify things, I'm looking at two things. A Facebook posting action, which should say "Check this out!" and also attach a URL to the post (with that cute little paperclip). A Twitter posting action, which should say "Check this out, with #hashtag!" and also attach that same URL (with the same paperclip). Here's the code I've got implemented right now. - (id)activityViewController:(UIActivityViewController *)activityViewController itemForActivityType:(NSString *)activityType { if ([activityType isEqualToString:UIActivityTypePostToFacebook]) { return @"Check this out!"; } else if ([activityType isEqualToString:UIActivityTypePostToTwitter]) { return @"Check this out, with #hashtag!"; } return @""; } - (id)activityViewControllerPlaceholderItem:(UIActivityViewController *)activityViewController { return @""; } And then when I set up this activity view controller (it's in the same class), this is what I do. UIActivityViewController *activityView = [[UIActivityViewController alloc] initWithActivityItems:@[self] applicationActivities:nil]; [self presentViewController:activityView animated:YES completion:nil]; My dilemma is how to attach that NSURL object. It's relatively easy when calling the iOS 6 SL-class posting modals; you just call the individual methods to attach a URL or an image. How would I go about doing this here? I'll note that instead of returning NSString objects from -activityViewController:itemForActivityType, if I return just NSURL objects, they show up with that paperclip, with no body text in the post. If I return an array of those two items, nothing shows up at all.

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  • Google Maps API V3: How to jump to a specific marker from outside the map?

    - by Tom
    I have a map with two markers on it. The initial view of the map only shows one marker, and I want to provide a link next to the map that will move the map to the 2nd marker when clicked. Here's a demo of what I want, using v2 of the API: http://arts.brighton.ac.uk/contact-university-of-brighton-faculty-of-arts (note the links below the map) Here's what I have so far: <script type="text/javascript"> function initialize() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(50.823817, -0.135634); var myOptions = { zoom: 13, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, mapTypeControlOptions: { style: google.maps.MapTypeControlStyle.DROPDOWN_MENU } , scaleControl: false }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map"), myOptions); // 1st marker var marker1 = new google.maps.Marker({ position: new google.maps.LatLng(50.823817, -0.135634), map: map, title: 'my title' }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: 'my window content' }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker1, 'click', function() { infowindow.open(map, marker1); }); // 2nd marker var marker2 = new google.maps.Marker({ position: new google.maps.LatLng(51.5262405, -0.074549), map: map, title: 'my 2nd title'}); var infowindow2 = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: 'content for my 2nd window' }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker2, 'click', function() { infowindow2.open(map, marker2); }); } </script> So what I'd like to add is a link to marker2, to move the map some 50-odd miles up, e.g. <a href="#marker2">Second location</a>. How would I do this?

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  • javascript plugin - singleton pattern?

    - by Adam Kiss
    intro Hello, I'm trying to develop some plugin or/*and* object in javascript, which will control some properties over some object. It will also use jQuery, to ease development. idea This is in pseudocode to give you an idea, since I can't really describe it in english with the right words, it's impossible to go and use google to find out what I want to use (and learn). I will have plugin (maybe object?) with some variables and methods: plugin hideshow(startupconfig){ var c, //collection add: function(what){ c += what; }, do: function(){ c.show().hide().stop(); //example code } } and I will use it this way (or sort-of): var p = new Plugin(); p .add($('p#simple')) .add($('p#simple2')) .do(); note I'm not really looking for jQuery plugin tutorials - it's more like usage of singleton pattern in document in javascript, jQuery is mentione only because it will be used to modify dom and simplify selectors, jQuery plugin maybe just for that one little function add. I'm looking for something, that will sit on top of my document and call functions from itselft based on timer, or user actions, or whatever. problems I don't really know where to start with construction of this object/plugin I'm not really sure how to maintain one variable, which is collection of jQuery objects (something like $('#simple, #simple2');) I would maybe like to extedn jQuery with $.fn.addToPlugin to use chaining of objects, but that should be simple (really just each( p.add($(this)); )) I hope I make any sense, ideas, links or advices appreciated.

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  • Should I remove all inheritance from my model in order to work with ria services?

    - by TimothyP
    I've posted some questions on this before, but it's different. So consider a small portion of our model: Person Customer Employee Spouse Person is the base class which has 3 classes that inherit from it. These 4 are very central in our design and link to many other entities. I could solve all the problems I'm experiencing with ria-services by removing the inheritance but that would really increase the complexety of the model. The first problem I experienced was that I couldn't query for Customers, Employees or Spouses, but someone gave me a solution, which was to add something like this to the DomainService: public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployees() { return this.ObjectContext.People.OfType<Employee>(); } public IQueryable<Customer> GetCustomers() { return this.ObjectContext.People.OfType<Customer>(); } public IQueryable<Spouse> GetSpouses() { return this.ObjectContext.People.OfType<Spouse>(); } Next I tried something that seemed very normal to me: var employee = new Employee() { //.... left out to reduce the length of this question }; var spouse = new Spouse() { //.... left out to reduce the length of this questions }; employee.Spouse = spouse; context.People.Add(spouse); context.People.Add(employee); context.SubmitChanges(); Then I get the following exception: Cannot retrieve an entity set for the derived entity type 'Spouse'. Use EntityContainer.GetEntitySet(Type) to get the entity set for the base entity type 'Person'. Even when the spouse is already in the database, and I retreive it first I get similar exceptions. Also note that for some reason in some places "Persons" is used instead of "People"... So how do I solve this problem, what am I doing wrong and will I keep running into walls when using ria services with inheritance? I found some references on the web, all saying it works and then some DomainService code in which they suposedly changed something but no details... I'm using VS2010 RC1 + Silveright 4

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  • Mysql Server Optimization

    - by Ish Kumar
    Hi Geeks, We are having serious MySQL(InnoDB) performance issues at a moment when we do: (10-20) insertions on TABLE1 (10-20) updates on TABLE2 Note: Both above operations happens within fraction of a second. And this occurs every few (10-15) minutes. And all online users (approx 400-600) doing read operation on join of TABLE1 & TABLE2 every 1 second. Here is our mysql configuration info: http://docs.google.com/View?id=dfrswh7c_117fmgcmb44 Issues: Lot queries wait and expire later (saw it from phpmyadmin / processes). My poor MySQL server crashes sometimes Questions Q1: Any suggestions to optimize at MySQL level? Q2: I thinking to use persistent connections at application level, is it right? Info Added Later: Database Engine: InnoDB TABLE1 : 400,000 rows (inserting 8,000 daily) & TABLE2: 8,000 rows 1 second query: SELECT b.id, b.user_id, b.description, b.debit, b.created, b.price, u.username, u.email, u.mobile FROM TABLE1 b, TABLE2 u WHERE b.credit = 0 AND b.user_id = u.id AND b.auction_id = "12345" ORDER BY b.id DESC LIMIT 10; // there are few more but they are not so critical. Indexing is good, we are using them wisely. In above query all id's are indexed And TABLE1 has frequent insertions and TABLE2 has frequent updates.

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  • A Digg-like rotating homepage of popular content, how to include date as a factor?

    - by Ferdy
    I am building an advanced image sharing web application. As you may expect, users can upload images and others can comments on it, vote on it, and favorite it. These events will determine the popularity of the image, which I capture in a "karma" field. Now I want to create a Digg-like homepage system, showing the most popular images. It's easy, since I already have the weighted Karma score. I just sort on that descendingly to show the 20 most valued images. The part that is missing is time. I do not want extremely popular images to always be on the homepage. I guess an easy solution is to restrict the result set to the last 24 hours. However, I'm also thinking that in order to keep the image rotation occur throughout the day, time can be some kind of variable where its offset has an influence on the image's sorting. Specific questions: Would you recommend the easy scenario (just sort for best images within 24 hours) or the more sophisticated one (use datetime offset as part of the sorting)? If you advise the latter, any help on the mathematical solution to this? Would it be best to run a scheduled service to mark images for the homepage, or would you advise a direct query (I'm using MySQL) As an extra note, the homepage should support paging and on a quiet day should include entries of days before in order to make sure it is always "filled" I'm not asking the community to build this algorithm, just looking for some advise :)

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  • 3 tier application pattern suggestion

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    I have attempted to make my first 3 tier application. In the process I have run into one problem I am yet to find an optimal solution for. Basically all my objects use an IFillable interface which forces the implementation of a sub as follows Public Sub Fill(ByVal Datareader As Data.IDataReader) Implements IFillable.Fill This sub then expects the Ids from the datareader will be identical to the properties of the object as such. Me.m_StockID = Datareader.GetGuid(Datareader.GetOrdinal("StockID")) In the end I end up with a datalayer that looks something like this. Public Shared Function GetStockByID(ByVal ConnectionString As String, ByVal StockID As Guid) As Stock Dim res As New Stock Using sqlConn As New SqlConnection(ConnectionString) sqlConn.Open() res.Fill(StockDataLayer.GetStockByIDQuery(sqlConn, StockID)) End Using Return res End Function Mostly this pattern seems to make sense. However my problem is, lets say I want to implement a property for Stock called StockBarcodeList. Under the above mentioned pattern any way I implement this property I will need to pass a connectionstring to it which obviously breaks my attempt at layer separation. Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might be able to solve this problem or am I going about this the completely wrong way? Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might improve my implementation? Please note however I am deliberately trying to avoid using the dataset in any form.

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  • set static member pointer variables

    - by Chris
    I'm trying to set a static pointer variable in a class but I'm getting these errors for each variable I try to set. error C4430: missing type specifier - int assumed. Note: C++ does not support default-int error C2040: 'xscroll' : 'int' differs in levels of indirection from 'float *' error C2440: 'initializing' : cannot convert from 'float **' to 'int' Here is the code Enemy.h #include <windows.h> #include "Player.h" class Enemy { public: Enemy(float xPos, float yPos); Enemy(void); ~Enemy(void); //update the position of the user controlled object. void updatePosition(float timeFactor); //loads all the enemy textures void static loadTextures(); //creates a set number of enemies void static createEnemies(int numEnemies, Enemy * enemyArray); GLuint static enemyTex; static float * xscroll; static float * yscroll; static Player * player; private: bool checkCollison(float x, float y, int radius); float XPos; float YPos; }; trying to set variables Enemy::xscroll = &xscroll; Enemy::yscroll = &yscroll; Enemy::player = &player;

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  • Perl Regex - Condensing groups of find/replace

    - by brydgesk
    I'm using Perl to perform some file cleansing, and am running into some performance issues. One of the major parts of my code involves standardizing name fields. I have several sections that look like this: sub substitute_titles { my ($inStr) = @_; ${$inStr} =~ s/ PHD./ PHD /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ P H D / PHD /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ PROF./ PROF /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ P R O F / PROF /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ DR./ DR /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ D.R./ DR /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ HON./ HON /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ H O N / HON /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ MR./ MR /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ MRS./ MRS /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ M R S / MRS /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ MS./ MS /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ MISS./ MISS /; } I'm passing by reference to try and get at least a little speed, but I fear that running so many (literally hundreds) of specific string replaces on tens of thousands (likely hundreds of thousands eventually) of records is going to hurt the performance. Is there a better way to implement this kind of logic than what I'm doing currently? Thanks Edit: Quick note, not all the replace functions are just removing periods and spaces. There are string deletions, soundex groups, etc.

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  • .Net xsd.exe tool doesn't generate all types

    - by Mrchief
    For some reason, MS .Net (v3.5) tool - xsd.exe doesn't generate types when they are not used inside any element. e.g. XSD File (I threw in the complex element to avoid this warning - "Warning: cannot generate classes because no top-level elements with complex type were found."): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema targetNamespace="http://tempuri.org/XMLSchema.xsd" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns="http://tempuri.org/XMLSchema.xsd" xmlns:mstns="http://tempuri.org/XMLSchema.xsd" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" > <xs:simpleType name="EnumTest"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="item1" /> <xs:enumeration value="item2" /> <xs:enumeration value="item3" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> <xs:complexType name="myComplexType"> <xs:attribute name="Name" use="required" type="xs:string"/> </xs:complexType> <xs:element name="myElem" type="myComplexType"></xs:element> </xs:schema> When i run this thru xsd.exe using xsd /c xsdfile.xsd I don't see EnumTest in the generated cs file. Note; Even though I don't use the enum here, but in my actual project, I have cases like this where we send enum's string value as output. How can I force the xsd tool to include these? Or should I switch to some other tool? I work in Visual Studio 2008.

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  • java.security.AccessControlException : access denied (java.util.PropertyPermission http.agent read)

    - by Stefano Borini
    I have a non-signed java applet interacting with the same host. Every time I click on an element in my page, the applet (which is a third part applet I have no control on) should load data from a URL. I say should, because for some files, I get java.security.AccessControlException : access denied (java.util.PropertyPermission http.agent read) and some other files are correctly loaded. All files are correctly readable and downloadable from the web server, and they are very simple text files. I also found that, in some cases, files that previously returned the error are now loaded and continue to load, so it seems a cache is involved somehow. Does any of you have an idea of what's going on here ? The behavior seems to be absolutely random, and I have no way of performing debug on this thing. Note: I used this applet to perform many other "single shot" file access, and it never gave me any problem. The only apparent difference I have is that now I do it "on-demand" via a javascript event. What could be the cause, in the java of the applet or anywhere else ?

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How to create a usable UrlHelper instance?

    - by Marek
    I am using quartz.net to schedule regular events within asp.net mvc application. The scheduled job should call a service layer script that requires a UrlHelper instance (for creating Urls based on correct routes (via urlHelper.Action(..)) contained in emails that will be sent by the service). I do not want to hardcode the links into the emails - they should be resolved using the urlhelper. The job: public class EvaluateRequestsJob : Quartz.IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { // where to get a usable urlHelper instance? ServiceFactory.GetRequestService(urlHelper).RunEvaluation(); } } Please note that this is not run within the MVC pipeline. There is no current request being served, the code is run by the Quartz scheduler at defined times. How do I get a UrlHelper instance usable on the indicated place? If it is not possible to construct a UrlHelper, the other option I see is to make the job "self-call" a controller action by doing a HTTP request - while executing the action I will of course have a UrlHelper instance available - but this seems a little bit hacky to me.

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  • HTTP: can GET and POST requests from a same machine come from different IPs?

    - by NoozNooz42
    I'm pretty sure I remember reading --but cannot find back the links anymore-- about this: on some ISP (including at least one big ISP in the U.S.) it is possible to have a user's GET and POST request appearing to come from different IPs. (note that this is totally programming related, and I'll give an example below) I'm not talking about having your IP adress dynamically change between two requests. I'm talking about this: IP 1: 123.45.67.89 IP 2: 101.22.33.44 The same user makes a GET, then a POST, then a GET again, then a POST again and the servers see this: - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 So altough it's the same user, the webserver sees different IPs for the GET and the POSTs. Surely seen that HTTP is a stateless protocol this is perfectly legit right? I'd like to find back the explanation as to how/why certain ISP have their networks configured such that this may happen. I'm asking because someone asked me to implement the following IP filter and I'm pretty sure it is fundamentally broken code (breaking havoc for at least one major american ISP users). Here's a Java servlet filter that is supposed to protect against some attacks. The reasoning is that: "For any session filter checks that IP address in the request is the same that was used when session was created. So in this case session ID could not be stolen for forming fake sessions." http://www.servletsuite.com/servlets/protectsessionsflt.htm However I'm pretty sure this is inherently broken because there are ISPs where you may see GET and POST coming from different IPs. Any info on this subject is very welcome.

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  • Ignore LD_LIBRARY_PATH and stick with library given through -rpath at link time

    - by roe
    I'm sitting in an environment which I have no real control over (it's not just me, so basically, I can't change the environment or it won't work for anyone else), the only thing I can affect is how the binary is built. My problem is, the environment specifies an LD_LIBRARY_PATH containing a libstdc++ which is not compatible with the compiler being used. I tried compiling it statically, but that doesn't seem possible for g++ (version 4.2.3, seems to have been work done in this direction in later versions though which are not available, -static-libstdc++ or something like that). Now I've arrived at using rpath to bake the absolute path name into the executable (would work, all machines it's supposed to run on are identical). Unfortunately it appears as though LD_LIBRARY_PATH takes precedence over rpath (resetting LD_LIBRARY_PATH confirmed that it's able to find the library, but as stated above, LD_LIBRARY_PATH will be set for everyone, and I cannot change that). Is there any way I can make rpath take precedence over LD_LIBRARY_PATH, or are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Note that I'm talking about dynamic linking at runtime, I am able to control the command line at compile and link time. Thanks.

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  • h:commandButton action not working inside a h:datatable.

    - by Chris
    I'm stuck with this piece of jsf code that I don't understand why it's working when used outside a datatable and doesn't inside a datatable... <h:dataTable id="myTable" rendered="true" value="#{bean.selectedItemsList}" var="items"> <h:column> <h:commandButton action="#{bean.removeItemFromList}" image="/resources/images/deleterow.gif"> <f:actionListener binding="#{bean.actionListenerImpl}" type="com.mycorp.ActionListenerImpl"/> </h:commandButton> </h:column> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{items}" /> </h:column> </h:dataTable> I read around the net to put value="#{items}" inside the action listener so the action can get the items in the row like this: <f:actionListener value="#{items}" binding="#{bean.actionListenerImpl}" type="com.mycorp.ActionListenerImpl"/> But it's doesn't work either. Bu if I do the action outside the data table everything work fine. <h:commandButton action="#{bean.removeItemFromList}" image="/resources/images/deleterow.gif"> <f:actionListener binding="#{bean.actionListenerImpl}" type="com.mycorp.ActionListenerImpl"/> </h:commandButton> Side note I also tried a4j:commandButton and didn't so I guess my problem is probably the actionlistener or how the bean handling it.

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  • dynamically created controls and responding to control events

    - by Dirk
    I'm working on an ASP.NET project in which the vast majority of the forms are generated dynamically at run time (form definitions are stored in a DB for customizability). Therefore, I have to dynamically create and add my controls to the Page every time OnLoad fires, regardless of IsPostBack. This has been working just fine and .NET takes care of managing ViewState for these controls. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); RenderDynamicControls() } private void RenderDynamicControls(){ //1. call service layer to retrieve form definition //2. create and add controls to page container } I have a new requirement in which if a user clicks on a given button (this button is created at design time) the page should be re-rendered in a slightly different way. So in addition to the code that executes in OnLoad (i.e. RenderDynamicControls()), I have this code: protected void MyButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() } private void RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() (){ //1. clear all controls from the page container added in RenderDynamicControls() //2. call service layer to retrieve form definition //3. create and add controls to page container } My question is, is this really the only way to accomplish what I'm after? It seems beyond hacky to effectively render the form twice simply to respond to a button click. I gather from my research that this is simply how the page-lifecycle works in ASP.NET: Namely, that OnLoad must fire on every Postback before child events are invoked. Still, it's worthwhile to check with the SO community before having to drink the kool-aid. On a related note, once I get this feature completed, I'm planning on throwing an UpdatePanel on the page to perform the page updates via Ajax. Any code/advice that make that transition easier would be much appreciated. Thanks

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  • Oracle doesn't remove cursors after closing result set

    - by Vladimir
    Note: we reuse single connection. ************************************************ public Connection connection() {                try {            if ((connection == null) || (connection.isClosed()))            {               if (connection!=null) log.severe("Connection was closed !");                connection = DriverManager.getConnection(jdbcURL, username, password);            }        } catch (SQLException e) {            log.severe("can't connect: " + e.getMessage());        }        return connection;            } ************************************************** public IngisObject[] select(String query, String idColumnName, String[] columns) { Connection con = connection(); Vector<IngisObject> objects = new Vector<IngisObject>(); try {     Statement stmt = con.createStatement();     String sql = query;     ResultSet rs =stmt.executeQuery(sql);//oracle increases cursors count here     while(rs.next()) {        IngisObject o = new IngisObject("New Result");        o.setIdColumnName(idColumnName);                    o.setDatabase(this);        for(String column: columns) o.attrs().put(column, rs.getObject(column));        objects.add(o);        }     rs.close();// oracle don't decrease cursor count here, while it's expected     stmt.close();     } catch (SQLException ex) {     System.out.println(query);     ex.printStackTrace(); }

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  • Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

    - by Ophidian
    I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

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  • Batch script crashing

    - by TamirGali
    My Batch script keeps crashing with the note: "set was unexpected at this time" which I could only see via video recording and checking frame by frame. here is the script: @echo off color 6f set min=0 set max=25 goto REDIR :REDIR set var=0 goto TOP :TOP cls set /a var=%var%+1 set /a rand%var%=%random% %% (max - min + 1)+ min if %rand2%==%rand1% set var=0&goto TOP if %rand3%==%rand2% set var=1&goto TOP if %rand4%==%rand3% set var=2&goto TOP if %rand5%==%rand4% set var=3&oto TOP if %rand6%==%rand5% set var=4&goto TOP if %rand7%==%rand6% set var=5&goto TOP if %rand8%==%rand7% set var=6&goto TOP if %rand9%==%rand8% set var=7&goto TOP if %rand10%==%rand9% set var=8&goto TOP if %rand11%==%rand10% set var=9&goto TOP if %rand12%==%rand11% set var=10&goto TOP if %rand13%==%rand12% set var=11&goto TOP if %rand14%==%rand13% set var=12&goto TOP if %rand15%==%rand14% set var=13&goto TOP if %rand16%==%rand15% set var=14&goto TOP if %rand17%==%rand16% set var=15&goto TOP if %rand18%==%rand17% set var=16&goto TOP if %rand19%==%rand18% set var=17&goto TOP if %rand20%==%rand19% set var=18&goto TOP if %rand21%==%rand20% set var=19&goto TOP if %rand22%==%rand21% set var=20&goto TOP if %rand23%==%rand22% set var=21&goto TOP if %rand24%==%rand23% set var=22&goto TOP if %rand25%==%rand24% set var=23&goto TOP if %rand26%==%rand25% set var=24&goto TOP if %var%==26 goto SHOW goto TOP :SHOW cls echo A=%rand1% echo B=%rand2% echo C=%rand3% echo D=%rand4% echo E=%rand5% echo F=%rand6% echo G=%rand7% echo H=%rand8% echo I=%rand9% echo J=%rand10% echo K=%rand11% echo L=%rand12% echo M=%rand13% echo N=%rand14% echo O=%rand15% echo P=%rand16% echo Q=%rand17% echo R=%rand18% echo S=%rand19% echo T=%rand20% echo U=%rand21% echo V=%rand22% echo W=%rand23% echo X=%rand24% echo Y=%rand25% echo Z=%rand26% pause goto REDIR

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  • Focus behavior in Applet-Javascript interaction

    - by Dan
    I have a web page with an applet that opens a popup window and also makes Javascript calls. When that Javascript call results in a focus() call on an HTML input, that causes the browser window to push itself in front of the applet window. But only on certain browsers, namely MSIE. On Firefox the applet window remains on top. How can I keep that behavior consistent in MSIE? Note that using the old Microsoft VM for Java also achieves the desired (applet window in front) result. HTML code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function focusMe() { document.getElementById('mytext').focus(); } </script> </head> <body> <applet id="myapplet" mayscript code="Popup.class" ></applet> <form> <input type="text" id="mytext"> <input type="button" onclick="document.getElementById('myapplet').showPopup()" value="click"> </form> </body> </html> Java code: public class Popup extends Applet { Frame frame; public void start() { frame = new Frame("Test Frame"); frame.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); Button button = new Button("Push Me"); frame.add("Center", button); button.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { frame.setVisible(false); } }); frame.pack(); } public void showPopup() { frame.setVisible(true); JSObject.getWindow(this).eval("focusMe()"); } }

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  • Remove "Flash" between pages while using Internet Explorer modal boxes

    - by AaronS
    I have an internal web application, that is IE specific, and uses a lot of IE specific modal boxes: (window.showModalDialog). I recently received a request to remove the "flash" when navigating between pages of the site. To accomplish this, I just added a meta transition tag to my master page: <meta http-equiv="Page-Enter" content="blendTrans(duration=0.0)" /> This works perfectly except for the modal boxes. When you launch a modal box, and then move it around, the web page behind it keeps a trail of the modal box instead of re-drawing the web page content. This prevents the user from moving the modal box to read anything that was behind it. Is there a way to prevent the "flash" between pages in an IE specific site and have the site still work with modal boxes? Please note, this is a large and complex site, so re-architecting it to not use modal boxes isn't an option. This is an asp.net, c# web application, and all of my users are using IE 7 and IE 8 if it makes any difference. -Edit- To duplicate this, put the following into an html page, and open it in Internet Explorer: <html> <head> <title>Test</title> <meta content="blendTrans(duration=0.0)" http-equiv="Page-Exit"> </head> <body> <script language="javascript"> window.showModalDialog('modal.htm', window); </script> </body> </html>

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