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  • virtual methods and template classes

    - by soxs060389
    Hi I got over a problem, I think a very specific one. I've got 2 classes, a B aseclass and a D erived class (from B aseclass). B is a template class ( or class template) and has a pure virtual method virutal void work(const T &dummy) = 0; The D erived class is supposed to reimplement this, but as D is Derived from B rather than D being another template class, the compiler spits at me that virtual functions and templates don't work at once. Any ideas how to acomplish what I want? I am thankfull for any thoughts and Ideas, especially if you allready worked out that problem this class is fixed aka AS IS, I can not edit this without breaking existing code base template <typename T> class B { public: ... virtual void work(const T &dummy) = 0; .. }; take int* as an example class D : public B<int*>{ ... virtual void work(const int* &dummy){ /* put work code here */ } .. }; Edit: The compiler tells me, that void B<T>::work(const T&) [with T = int*] is pure virtual within D

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  • HOWTO: implement a jQuery version of ASP.Net MVC "Strongly Typed Partial Views"

    - by Sam Carleton
    I am working on a multi-page assessment form where the questions/responses are database driven. Currently I the basic system working with Html.BeginForm via standard ASP.Net MVC. At this point in time, the key to the whole system is the 'Strongly Typed Partial Views'. When the question/response is read from the database, the response type determines which derived model is created and added to the collection. The main view it iterates through the collection and uses the 'Strongly Typed Partial Views' system of ASP.Net MVC to determine which view to render the correct type of response (radio button, drop down, or text box). I would like to change this process from a Html.BeginForm to Ajax.BeginForm. The problem is I don't have a clue as to how to implement the dynamic creation of the question/response in the JavaScript/jQuery world. Any thoughts and/or suggestions? Here is the current code to generate the dynamic form: @using (Html.BeginForm(new { mdsId = @Model.MdsId, sectionId = @Model.SectionId })) { <div class="SectionTitle"> <span>Section @Model.SectionName - @Model.SectionDescription</span> <span style="float: right">@Html.CheckBoxFor(x => x.ShowUnansweredQuestions) Show only unaswered questions</span> </div> @Html.HiddenFor(x => x.PrevSectionId) @Html.HiddenFor(x => x.NextSectionId) for (var i = 0; i < Model.answers.Count(); i++) { @Html.EditorFor(m => m.answers[i]); } }

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  • JOIN (SELECT DISTINCT [..] substitute

    - by FRKT
    Hello, I'd like to find a substitute for using SELECT DISTINCT in a derived table. Let's say I have three tables: CREATE TABLE `trades` ( `tradeID` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `employeeID` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL, `corporationID` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL, `profit` int(11) NOT NULL, KEY `tradeID` (`tradeID`), KEY `employeeID` (`employeeID`), KEY `corporationID` (`corporationID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `corporations` ( `corporationID` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(255) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`corporationID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `employees` ( `employeeID` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(255) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`employeeID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 Let's say I'd like to find out how much profit a specific employee has generated. Simple: SELECT SUM(profit) FROM trades JOIN employees ON trades.employeeID = employees.employeeID AND employees.employeeID = 1; It gets trickier if I'd like to query how much revenue a specific corporation has, however. I cannot simply replicate the aforementioned query, because two or more employees from the same company might be involved in the same trade. This query should do the trick: SELECT SUM(profit) FROM trades JOIN (SELECT DISTINCT tradeID FROM trades WHERE trades.corporationID = 1) ... unfortunately, DISTINCT JOINs seem crazy ineffective. Is there any alternative I can use to determine how much revenue a corporation has, taking into account that a corporation might be listed several times with the same tradeID?

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  • Is it possible to navigate to the parent node of a matched node during XSLT processing?

    - by Darin
    I'm working with an OpenXML document, processing the main document part with some XSLT. I've selected a set of nodes via <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> </xsl:template> In most cases, I simply need to replace that matched node with something else, and that works fine. BUT, in some cases, I need to replace not the w:sdt node that matched, but the closest w:p ancestor node (ie the first paragraph node that contains the sdt node). The trick is that the condition used to decide one or the other is based on data derived from the attributes of the sdt node, so I can't use a typical xslt xpath filter. I'm trying to do something like this <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test={first condition}> {apply whatever templating is necessary} </xsl:when> <xsl:when test={exception condition}> <!-- select the parent of the ancestor w:p nodes and apply the appropriate templates --> <xsl:apply-templates select="(ancestor::w:p)/.." mode="backout" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> <!-- by using "mode", only this template will be applied to those matching nodes from the apply-templates above --> <xsl:template match="node()" mode="backout"> {CUSTOM FORMAT the node appropriately} </xsl:template> This whole concept works, BUT no matter what I've tried, It always applies the formatting from the CUSTOM FORMAT template to the w:p node, NOT it's parent node. It's almost as if you can't reference a parent from a matching node. And maybe you can't, but I haven't found any docs that say you can't Any ideas?

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  • Type casting in C++ by detecting the current 'this' object type

    - by Elroy
    My question is related to RTTI in C++ where I'm trying to check if an object belongs to the type hierarchy of another object. The BelongsTo() method checks this. I tried using typeid, but it throws an error and I'm not sure about any other way how I can find the target type to convert to at runtime. #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> class X { public: // Checks if the input type belongs to the type heirarchy of input object type bool BelongsTo(X* p_a) { // I'm trying to check if the current (this) type belongs to the same type // hierarchy as the input type return dynamic_cast<typeid(*p_a)*>(this) != NULL; // error C2059: syntax error 'typeid' } }; class A : public X { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { }; int main() { X* a = new A(); X* b = new B(); X* c = new C(); bool test1 = b->BelongsTo(a); // should return true bool test2 = b->BelongsTo(c); // should return false bool test3 = c->BelongsTo(a); // should return true } Making the method virtual and letting derived classes do it seems like a bad idea as I have a lot of classes in the same type hierarchy. Or does anybody know of any other/better way to the do the same thing? Please suggest.

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  • In Mercurial, can I apply changes from one file to another file in the same branch?

    - by Stephen
    In the good old days of Subversion, I would sometimes derive a new file from an existing one using svn copy. Then if something changed in sections they had in common, I could still use svn merge to update the derived version. To use the example from hginit.com, say the "guac" recipe already exists, and I want to create a "superguac" that includes instructions on how to serve guacamole to 1000 raving soccer fans. Using the process I just described, I could: svn cp guac superguac svn ci -m "Created superguac by copying guac" (edit superguac) svn ci -m "Added instructions for serving 1000 raving soccer fans to superguac" (edit guac) svn ci -m "Fixed a typo in guac" svn merge -r3:4 guac superguac and thus the typo fix would be applied to superguac. Mercurial provides an hg copy command that marks a file as a copy of the original, but I'm not sure the repository structure supports a similar workflow. Here's the same example, and I carefully only edit a single file in the commit I want to use in the merge: hg cp guac superguac hg ci -m "Created superguac by copying guac" (edit superguac) hg ci -m "Added instructions for serving 1000 raving soccer fans to superguac" (edit guac) hg ci -m "Fixed a typo in guac" I now want to apply the change in guac to superguac. Is that possible? If so, what's the right command? Is there a different workflow in Mercurial that achieves the same results (limited to a single branch)?

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  • Ember Data Sycn - LocalStorage+REST+RealTime+Online/Offline

    - by Miguel Madero
    We have a combination of requirements in terms o data access. Pre-load some reference data. We need reference data to survive browser restarts instead of just living in memory to avoid loading it all the time. I'm currently using the LocalStorageAdapter for that. Once we have it, we would like to sync changes (polling or using Socket.IO in the background and updating the LocalStorage could do the trick) There're other models that are more transactional, where we would need to directly go to the Server and get/save them. It would be nice to use something like the RESTAdapter for that. Lastly, there're some operations that should work off-line and changes should be synced later. To make it more concrete: * We pre-load vendor and "favorite products" into Local Storage. We work offline with those. * We need to sync server changes to vendor and product information. * If they search the full catalog, that requires them to be online. * When offline, we need to allow users to add something to their cart or even submit and order. We would like to queue this action and submit it when they have an Internet Connection. So a few questions are derived from this: * Is there a way to user RESTAdapter in combination with LocalStorage? * Is there some Socket.IO support? (Happy to do this part manually) * Is there Queueing support? Ideally at the Ember-Data level. I know we will have to do a lot of this manually and pull together the different lego pieces, but I wanted to ask for some perspective from experience Ember devs.

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  • LINQ .Cast() extension method fails but (type)object works.

    - by Ben Robinson
    To convert between some LINQ to SQL objects and DTOs we have created explicit cast operators on the DTOs. That way we can do the following: DTOType MyDTO = (LinqToSQLType)MyLinq2SQLObj; This works well. However when you try to cast using the LINQ .Cast() extension method it trows an invalid cast exception saying cannot cast type Linq2SQLType to type DTOType. i.e. the below does not work List<DTO.Name> Names = dbContact.tNames.Cast<DTO.Name>() .ToList(); But the below works fine: DAL.tName MyDalName = new DAL.tName(); DTO.Name MyDTOName = (DTO.Name)MyDalName; and the below also works fine List<DTO.Name> Names = dbContact.tNames.Select(name => (DTO.Name)name) .ToList(); Why does the .Cast() extension method throw an invalid cast exception? I have used the .Cast() extension method in this way many times in the past and when you are casting something like a base type to a derived type it works fine, but falls over when the object has an explicit cast operator.

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  • OnConnect event not firing when using TClientSocket inside a TThread on non-blocking mode

    - by mathematician1975
    I am trying to make use of Borlands TClientSocket component in non-blocking mode inside a multithreaded C++ Windows application. I am creating multiple threads (classes derived from TThread), each of which creates its own TClientSocket object. I then assign member functions of the thread class to act as event handlers for the OnConnect, OnDisconnect and OnSocketError events of the socket. The problem I am having here is that whenever I call the TClientSocket::Open() function from within the TThread::Execute() function, the OnConnect event never fires. However, When I call the Open() function from the VCL thread prior to the TThread::Execute() function getting called, all of the events fire and I can use the thread-socket combination as I would like. Now I have not read anything in documentation that says that TClientSocket should not be used in non-blocking mode when used inside a thread, but it appears to me that there is perhaps something wrong conceptually in the way I am trying to use this class. Borland documentation is quite poor on the subject and these components have now been deprecated so reliable information is hard to come by. Despite being deprecated I have to use them as there is no alternative in the Builder 6 package I have. Can anyone please advise me if there is a right/wrong way to use TThread and a non-blocking TClientSocket in combination. I have never had problems using it as part of the VCL thread and never had problems using TServerSocket before and I really cannot understand why some events are not firing.

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  • Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

    - by Michal Czardybon
    Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

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  • Getting empty update rectangle in OnPaint after calling InvalidateRect on a layered window

    - by Shawn
    I'm trying to figure out why I've been getting an empty update rectangle when I call InvalidateRect on a transparent window. The idea is that I've drawn something on the window (it gets temporarily switched to have an alpha of 1/255 for the drawing), and then I switch it to full transparent mode (i.e. alpha of 0) in order to interact with the desktop & to be able to move the drawing around the screen on top of the desktop. When I try to move the drawing, I get its bounding rectangle & use it to call InvalidateRect, as such: InvalidateRect(m_hTarget, &winRect, FALSE); I've confirmed that the winRect is indeed correct, and that m_hTarget is the correct window & that its rectangle fully encompasses winRect. I get into the OnPaint handler in the class corresponding to m_hTarget, which is derived from a CWnd. In there, I create a CPaintDC, but when I try to access the update rectangle (dcPaint.m_ps.rcPaint) it's always empty. This rectangle gets passed to a function that determines if we need to update the screen (by using UpdateLayeredWindow in the case of a transparent window). If I hard-code a non-empty rectangle in here, the remaining code works correctly & I am able to move the drawing around the screen. I tried changing the 'FALSE' parameter to 'TRUE' in InvalidateRect, with no effect. I also tried using a standard CDC, and then using BeginPaint/EndPaint method in my OnPaint handler, just to ensure that CPaintDC wasn't doing something odd ... but I got the same results. The code that I'm using was originally designed for opaque windows. If m_hTarget corresponds to an opaque window, the same set of function calls results in the correct (i.e. non-empty) rectangle being passed to OnPaint. Once the window is layered, though, it doesn't seem to work right.

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  • Sending a JSON object to an ASP.NET web service using JQUERY ajax function

    - by uzay95
    I want to create object on the client side of aspx page. And i want to add functions to these javascript classes to make easier the life. Actually i can get and use the objects (derived from the server side classes) which returns from the services. When i wanted to send objects from the client by jquery ajax methods, i couldn't do it :) This is my javascript object: function ClassAndMark(_mark, _lesson){ this.Lesson = _lesson; this.Mark = _mark; } function Student(_name, _surname, _classAndMark){ this.Name = _name; this.SurName = _surname; this.ClassAndMark = _classAndMark; } JSClass.prototype.fSaveToDB(){ $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "/WS/SaveObject.asmx/fSaveToDB"), data: ????????????, dataType: "json" }); } Actually i don't know what should be definition of classes and methods on the Server side but i think: class ClassAndMark{ public string Lesson ; public string Mark ; } class Student{ public string Name ; public string SurName ; public ClassAndMark ClassAndMark ; } Web service is below but again i couldn't get what should be instead of the ???? : [WebMethod()] public void fSaveToDB(???? _obj) { // How can i convert input parameter/parameters // of method in the server side object? }

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  • C# Type conversion between two similar Datatable objects

    - by Ali
    I have .NET project with sync framework and two separate Datasets for MS SQL and Compact SQL. in my base class I have a generic DataTable object. in my derived classed I assign Typed DataTable to the generic object based on whether the application is operating online or offline: example: if (online) _dataTable = new MSSQLDataSet.Customer; else _dataTable = new CompactSQLDataSet.Customer; Now every where in my code i have to check and do a cast based on the current network mode like this: public void changeCustomerID(int ID) { if (online) (MSSQLDataSet.CustomerDataTable)_dataTable)[i].CustomerID = value; else (CompactMSSQLDataSet.CustomerDataTable)_dataTable)[i].CustomerID = value; } but I don't think this is very efficient and I believe it can be done in a smarter way to only use one line of code by dynamically getting the Type of _dataTable on the run time. my problem is at the design time, in order to acess datatable porperties such as "CustomerID" it has to be casted to either MSSQLDataSet.CustomerDataTable or CompactMSSQLDataSet.CustomerDataTable. Is there a way to have a function or a operator to convert the _datatable to its runtime type but still be able to use it's design time properties which are the same between the two types? something like: ((aType)_dataTable)[i].CustomerID = value; //or GetRuntimeType(_dataTable)[i].CustomerID = value;

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  • PHP.ini Settings Are Ignored By PHP5.3.5 Running With Windows 7 And Apache 2.2.15

    - by Andy
    I did an install of PHP5.3.5 on Windows 7 Home Premium using the MSI installer download. I got it to overwrite a previous version of PHP5 in C:\php5\ When first testing it, the server failed to start. I fixed this by adding the path to PHP in the Apache2.2 httpd file where the installer had inserted 2 lines of coded pointing to the ini file directory and the PHP DLL but had left out the directory path. After doing this, the server starts ok and I can run phpinfo to view the PHP settings in my web browser on local host. In the phpinfo it states that the loaded configuration file is C:\php5\php.ini as expected. But if I make any changes to the settings, and reboot the server, none of the changes are reflected in phpinfo. Yes, I do refresh the browser window. If I rename the php.ini to something else to make it invisible phpinfo then correctly identifies that there is no php.ini file loaded. So the settings in php.ini are being ignored and some default settings are being used (but I have no idea where these are derived from). As far as I can tell, there are no other php.ini files on my computer. In phpinfo it states that the Configuration File (php.ini) Path is C:\Windows but this is the same as on a Windows XP computer that I work on. And in the windows folder I don't see any php.ini file. In the windows registry, there is no mention of PHP5, and the PATH environment variable starts with C:\php5\; So hopefully someone can suggest how I can get PHP5 to take notice of the C:\php5\php.ini settings. :)

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  • Inheritence and usage of dynamic_cast

    - by Mewzer
    Hello, Suppose I have 3 classes as follows (as this is an example, it will not compile!): class Base { public: Base(){} virtual ~Base(){} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; virtual void DoSomethingElse() = 0; }; class Derived1 { public: Derived1(){} virtual ~Derived1(){} virtual void DoSomething(){ ... } virtual void DoSomethingElse(){ ... } virtual void SpecialD1DoSomething{ ... } }; class Derived2 { public: Derived2(){} virtual ~Derived2(){} virtual void DoSomething(){ ... } virtual void DoSomethingElse(){ ... } virtual void SpecialD2DoSomething{ ... } }; I want to create an instance of Derived1 or Derived2 depending on some setting that is not available until run-time. As I cannot determine the derived type until run-time, then do you think the following is bad practice?... class X { public: .... void GetConfigurationValue() { .... // Get configuration setting, I need a "Derived1" b = new Derived1(); // Now I want to call the special DoSomething for Derived1 (dynamic_cast<Derived1*>(b))->SpecialD1DoSomething(); } private: Base* b; }; I have generally read that usage of dynamic_cast is bad, but as I said, I don't know which type to create until run-time. Please help!

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  • Are C++ exceptions sufficient to implement thread-local storage?

    - by Potatoswatter
    I was commenting on an answer that thread-local storage is nice and recalled another informative discussion about exceptions where I supposed The only special thing about the execution environment within the throw block is that the exception object is referenced by rethrow. Putting two and two together, wouldn't executing an entire thread inside a function-catch-block of its main function imbue it with thread-local storage? It seems to work fine: #include <iostream> #include <pthread.h> using namespace std; struct thlocal { string name; thlocal( string const &n ) : name(n) {} }; thlocal &get_thread() { try { throw; } catch( thlocal &local ) { return local; } } void print_thread() { cerr << get_thread().name << endl; } void *kid( void *local_v ) try { thlocal &local = * static_cast< thlocal * >( local_v ); throw local; } catch( thlocal & ) { print_thread(); return NULL; } int main() try { thlocal local( "main" ); throw local; } catch( thlocal & ) { print_thread(); pthread_t th; thlocal kid_local( "kid" ); pthread_create( &th, NULL, &kid, &kid_local ); pthread_join( th, NULL ); print_thread(); return 0; } Is this novel or well-characterized? Was my initial premise correct? What kind of overhead does get_thread incur in, say, GCC and VC++? It would require throwing only exceptions derived from struct thlocal, but altogether this doesn't feel like an unproductive insomnia-ridden Sunday morning…

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  • Is the C++ compiler optimizer allowed to break my destructor ability to be called multiple times?

    - by sharptooth
    We once had an interview with a very experienced C++ developer who couldn't answer the following question: is it necessary to call the base class destructor from the derived class destructor in C++? Obviously the answer is no, C++ will call the base class destructor automagically anyway. But what if we attempt to do the call? As I see it the result will depend on whether the base class destructor can be called twice without invoking erroneous behavior. For example in this case: class BaseSafe { public: ~BaseSafe() { } private: int data; }; class DerivedSafe { public: ~DerivedSafe() { BaseSafe::~BaseSafe(); } }; everything will be fine - the BaseSafe destructor can be called twice safely and the program will run allright. But in this case: class BaseUnsafe { public: BaseUnsafe() { buffer = new char[100]; } ~BaseUnsafe () { delete[] buffer; } private: char* buffer; }; class DerivedUnsafe { public: ~DerivedUnsafe () { BaseUnsafe::~BaseUnsafe(); } }; the explicic call will run fine, but then the implicit (automagic) call to the destructor will trigger double-delete and undefined behavior. Looks like it is easy to avoid the UB in the second case. Just set buffer to null pointer after delete[]. But will this help? I mean the destructor is expected to only be run once on a fully constructed object, so the optimizer could decide that setting buffer to null pointer makes no sense and eliminate that code exposing the program to double-delete. Is the compiler allowed to do that?

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  • Checking when two headers are included at the same time.

    - by fortran
    Hi, I need to do an assertion based on two related macro preprocessor #define's declared in different header files... The codebase is huge and it would be nice if I could find a place to put the assertion where the two headers are already included, to avoid polluting namespaces unnecessarily. Checking just that a file includes both explicitly might not suffice, as one (or both) of them might be included in an upper level of a nesting include's hierarchy. I know it wouldn't be too hard to write an script to check that, but if there's already a tool that does the job, the better. Example: file foo.h #define FOO 0xf file bar.h #define BAR 0x1e I need to put somewhere (it doesn't matter a lot where) something like this: #if (2*FOO) != BAR #error "foo is not twice bar" #endif Yes, I know the example is silly, as they could be replaced so one is derived from the other, but let's say that the includes can be generated from different places not under my control and I just need to check that they match at compile time... And I don't want to just add one include after the other, as it might conflict with previous code that I haven't written, so that's why I would like to find a file where both are already present. In brief: how can I find a file that includes (direct or indirectly) two other files? Thanks!

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  • Suggestions on error handling of Win32 C++ code: AtlThrow vs. STL exceptions

    - by EmbeddedProg
    In writing Win32 C++ code, I'd appreciate some hints on how to handle errors of Win32 APIs. In particular, in case of a failure of a Win32 function call (e.g. MapViewOfFile), is it better to: use AtlThrowLastWin32 define a Win32Exception class derived from std::exception, with an added HRESULT data member to store the HRESULT corresponding to value returned by GetLastError? In this latter case, I could use the what() method to return a detailed error string (e.g. "MapViewOfFile call failed in MyClass::DoSomething() method."). What are the pros and cons of 1 vs. 2? Is there any other better option that I am missing? As a side note, if I'd like to localize the component I'm developing, how could I localize the exception what() string? I was thinking of building a table mapping the original English string returned by what() into a Unicode localized error string. Could anyone suggest a better approach? Thanks much for your insights and suggestions.

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  • How do I compare two PropertyInfos or methods reliably?

    - by Rob Ashton
    Same for methods too: I am given two instances of PropertyInfo or methods which have been extracted from the class they sit on via GetProperty or GetMember etc, (or from a MemberExpression maybe). I want to determine if they are in fact referring to the same Property or the same Method so (propertyOne == propertyTwo) or (methodOne == methodTwo) Clearly that isn't going to actually work, you might be looking at the same property, but it might have been extracted from different levels of the class hierarchy (in which case generally, propertyOne != propertyTwo) Of course, I could look at DeclaringType, and re-request the property, but this starts getting a bit confusing when you start thinking about Properties/Methods declared on interfaces and implemented on classes Properties/Methods declared on a base class (virtually) and overridden on derived classes Properties/Methods declared on a base class, overridden with 'new' (in IL world this is nothing special iirc) At the end of the day, I just want to be able to do an intelligent equality check between two properties or two methods, I'm 80% sure that the above bullet points don't cover all of the edge cases, and while I could just sit down, write a bunch of tests and start playing about, I'm well aware that my low level knowledge of how these concepts are actually implemented is not excellent, and I'm hoping this is an already answered topic and I just suck at searching. The best answer would give me a couple of methods that achieve the above, explaining what edge cases have been taken care of and why :-)

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  • How do you use boost iterators

    - by Neil G
    It worked, and then I added the typedefs so that I could have a const_sparse_iterator as well. Now, when I compile this and try to use sparse_iterator, it says: /Users/neilrg/nn/src/./core/sparse_vector.h:331: error: invalid use of incomplete type 'struct sparse_vector<A>::sparse_iterator' Here's the code. More code here. tempalte<typename T> class sparse_vector { // There is more code at my previous question, but this might be enough...? private: template<typename base_type> class sparse_iterator_private : public boost::iterator_adaptor< sparse_iterator_private<base_type> // Derived , base_type // Base , value_type // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag // CategoryOrTraversal > { private: struct enabler {}; // a private type avoids misuse public: sparse_iterator_private() : sparse_iterator_private<base_type>::iterator_adaptor_(0) {} explicit sparse_iterator_private(typename array_type::iterator&& p) : sparse_iterator_private<base_type>::iterator_adaptor_(p) {} private: friend class boost::iterator_core_access; reference dereference() const { return this->base()->value; } }; public: typedef sparse_iterator_private<typename array_type::iterator> sparse_iterator; typedef sparse_iterator_private<typename array_type::const_iterator> const_sparse_iterator; };

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  • Passing objects across Appdomains

    - by MUSTAQ
    My issue is similar to the one posted in "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/981773/moving-objects-across-appdomains-in-net". In one of my application, I am creating a separate appdomain. I need to create an instance of a class (Note: this class is derived by MarshalByRefObject) in my parent domain and invoke a MethodA in that instance. This instance is created using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap". The problem is that this MethodA takes objects of type class as an argument. These objects are not created in the MethodB where i created the appdomain. It was passed as an argument to the MethodB where i create the appdomain. So is it necessary to create a new instance of these objects using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap" before passing it to the created domain. Not doing this gives me an error in the created domain mentioning that "MyClass object has no attribute foo" during some invocation. Please let me know how to pass the objects across appdomains and execute the method. My statements might be confusing, please let me know for any specific details required.

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  • Complicated .NET factory design

    - by Tom W
    Hello SO; I'm planning to ask a fairly elaborate question that is also something of a musing here, so bear with me... I'm trying to design a factory implementation for a simulation application. The simulation will consist of different sorts of entities i.e. it is not a homogenous simulation in any respect. As a result, there will be numerous very different concrete implementations and only the very general properties will be abstracted at the top level. What I'd like to be able to do is create new simulation entities by calling a method on the model with a series of named arguments representing the parameters of the entity, and have the model infer what type of object is being described by the inbound parameters (from the names of the parameters and potentially the sequence they occur in) and call a factory method on the appropriate derived class. For example, if I pass the model a pair of parameters (Param1=5000, Param2="Bacon") I would like it to infer that the names Param1 and Param2 'belong' to the class "Blob1" and call a shared function "getBlob1" with named parameters Param1:=5000, Param2:="Bacon" whereas if I pass the model (Param1=5000, Param3=50) it would call a similar factory method for Blob2; because Param1 and Param3 in that order 'belong' to Blob2. I foresee several issues to resolve: Whether or not I can reflect on the available types with string parameter names and how to do this if it's possible Whether or not there's a neat way of doing the appropriate constructor inference from the combinatoric properties of the argument list or whether I'm going to have to bodge something to do it 'by hand'. If possible I'd like the model class to be able to accept parameters as parameters rather than as some collection of keys and values, which would require the model to expose a large number of parametrised methods at runtime without me having to code them explicitly - presumably one for every factory method available in the relevant namespace. What I'm really asking is how you'd go about implementing such a system, rather than whether or not it's fundamentally possible. I don't have the foresight or experience with .NET reflection to be able to figure out a way by myself. Hopefully this will prove an informative discussion.

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  • Mocking non-virtual methods in C++ without editing production code?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, I am a fairly new software developer currently working adding unit tests to an existing C++ project that started years ago. Due to a non-technical reason, I'm not allowed to modify any existing code. The base class of all my modules has a bunch of methods for Setting/Getting data and communicating with other modules. Since I just want to unit testing each individual module, I want to be able to use canned values for all my inter-module communication methods. I.e. for a method Ping() which checks if another module is active, I want to have it return true or false based on what kind of test I'm doing. I've been looking into Google Test and Google Mock, and it does support mocking non-virtual methods. However the approach described (http://code.google.com/p/googlemock/wiki/CookBook#Mocking_Nonvirtual_Methods) requires me to "templatize" the original methods to take in either real or mock objects. I can't go and templatize my methods in the base class due to the requirement mentioned earlier, so I need some other way of mocking these virtual methods Basically, the methods I want to mock are in some base class, the modules I want to unit test and create mocks of are derived classes of that base class. There are intermediate modules in between my base Module class and the modules that I want to test. I would appreciate any advise! Thanks, JW EDIT: A more concrete examples My base class is lets say rootModule, the module I want to test is leafModule. There is an intermediate module which inherits from rootModule, leafModule inherits from this intermediate module. In my leafModule, I want to test the doStuff() method, which calls the non virtual GetStatus(moduleName) defined in the rootModule class. I need to somehow make GetStatus() to return a chosen canned value. Mocking is new to me, so is using mock objects even the right approach?

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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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