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• Is the 'var' keyword bad? Or am I just old school?

  - by WaggingSiberian

  Recently I overheard junior developer ask "why do you use 'var' so much?". The mid-level developer responded "I use VAR all the time. I love it! I don't have to figure out the type." I didn't have the time or energy to get into a religious war and hey, I'm still the new guy here :-) I understand var has its place. LINQ comes to mind. But I have also always been told the use of var represents lazy programming and I should just use the correct type to begin with. If it's an int, define it as an int, not a var. When reviewing code, seeing the type makes it easier to follow. My opinion is, it's just lazy but there are exceptions. Var also reminds me of the VB/VBA variant type. It also had its place. I recall (from many years ago) its usage being less-than-desirable type and it was rather resource hungry. Am I just being stuck in my ways? Should we start using var all the time as my co-worker does?

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• Google maps api Directions User defined Steps

  - by Via Lactea

  Hi All, I have a google map service with the stores mapped on it. I also have directions service (then you define two addresses or more and it shows you a way on this map, see google map api directions). So I wa?? to show the nearest stores to this way. Of course it could be the store located in the next streat of my way, so it also should be included to the list. So far I just found only an array of steps in the directions object which I get from google maps api. But these steps are predefined by google, so they can be too close one each to other and they also can be too far (if a part of your route is a highway or there is no any special steps on your way etc.) So, what I want to do. I want to make my own steps on the line that I get from google directions (for example to put these steps on my line every 500 meeters etc.), and after that to search every step for any stores around 200 meeters. Is it possible to do? I cannot find any solution of this idea in internet.

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• printing out dictionnaires

  - by kyril

  I have a rather specific question: I want to print out characters at a specific place using the \033[ syntax. This is what the code below should do: (the dict cells has the same keys as coords but with either '*' or '-' as value.) coords = {'x'+str(x)+'y'+str(y) : (x,y) for x,y, in itertools.product(range(60), range(20))} for key, value in coords.items(): char = cells[key] x,y = value HORIZ=str(x) VERT=str(y) char = str(char) print('\033['+VERT+';'+HORIZ+'f'+char) However, I noticed that if I put this into a infinite while loop, it does not always prints the same characters at the same position. There are only slight changes, but it deletes some and puts them back in after some loops. I already tried it with lists, and there it seems to behave just fine, so I tend to think it has something todo with the dict, but I can not figure out what it could be. You can see the Problem in a console here: SharedConsole.I am happy for every tip on this matter. On a related topic: After the printing, some changes should be made at the values of the cells dict, but for reason unknown to me, the only the first two rules are executed and the rest is ignored. The rules should test how many neighbours (which is in population) are around the cell and apply the according rule. In my implemention of this I have some kind of weird tumor growth (which should not happen, as if there more than three around they should the cell should die) (see FreakingTumor): if cells_copy [coord] == '-': if population == 3: cells [coord] = '*' if cells_copy [coord] == '*': if population > 3: cells [coord] = '-' elif population <= 1: cells [coord] = '-' elif population == 2 or 3: cells [coord] = '*' I checked the population variable several times, so I am quite sure that is not the matter. I am sorry for the slow consoles. Thanks in advance! Kyril

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• Potential Django Bug In QuerySet.query?

  - by Mike

  Disclaimer: I'm still learning Django, so I might be missing something here, but I can't see what it would be... I'm running Python 2.6.1 and Django 1.2.1. (InteractiveConsole) >>> from myproject.myapp.models import * >>> qs = Identifier.objects.filter(Q(key="a") | Q(key="b")) >>> print qs.query SELECT `app_identifier`.`id`, `app_identifier`.`user_id`, `app_identifier`.`key`, `app_identifier`.`value` FROM `app_identifier` WHERE (`app_identifier`.`key` = a OR `app_identifier`.`key` = b ) >>> Notice that it doesn't put quotes around "a" or "b"! Now, I've determined that the query executes fine. So, in reality, it must be doing so. But, it's pretty annoying that printing out the query prints it wrong. Especially if I did something like this... >>> qs = Identifier.objects.filter(Q(key=") AND") | Q(key="\"x\"); DROP TABLE `app_identifier`")) >>> print qs.query SELECT `app_identifier`.`id`, `app_identifier`.`user_id`, `app_identifier`.`key`, `app_identifier`.`value` FROM `app_identifier` WHERE (`app_identifier`.`key` = ) AND OR `app_identifier`.`key` = "x"); DROP TABLE `app_identifier` ) >>> Which, as you can see, not only creates completely malformed SQL code, but also has the seeds of a SQL injection attack. Now, obviously this wouldn't actually work, for quite a number of reasons (1. The syntax is all wrong, intentionally, to show the oddity of Django's behavior. 2. Django won't actually execute the query like this, it will actually put quotes and slashes and all that in there like it's supposed to). But, this really makes debugging confusing, and it makes me wonder if something's gone wrong with my Django installation. Does this happen for you? If so/not, what version of Python and Django do you have? Any thoughts?

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• $this->url() to another subdomain

  - by Supertino7

  Hello, I created subdomain for my application. host_www.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" host_www.route = "www.mywebsite.com" host_www.defaults.module = "produits" host_www.defaults.controller = "produits" host_www.defaults.action = "index" fiche_boutique.route = "ficheboutique/:boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.controller = "boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.action = "fiche-boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.module = "default" fiche_boutique.chain = "host_www" host_produits.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" host_produits.route = "produits.mywebsite.com" host_produits.defaults.module = "produits" host_produits.defaults.controller = "produits" host_produits.defaults.action = "index" fiche_produit.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex" fiche_produit.route = "([-\w]+).htm" fiche_produit.reverse = "%s.htm" fiche_produit.map.1 = "q" fiche_produit.defaults.module = "produits" fiche_produit.defaults.controller = "produits" fiche_produit.defaults.action = "voir-produit" fiche_produit.chain = "host" I don't know if the syntax in this zend config ini file is correct, in particular for routes chaining. Once I'm on this subdomain, urls constructed with $this-url() like this : <a href="<?= $this->url(array('boutique' => 1234), 'fiche_boutique', true) ?>"> Visit this store </a> still point to the subdomain produits.mywebsite.com, where I want it to point to www.mywebsite.com For the moment, I do this : <a href="http://www.mywebsite.com<?= $this->url(array('boutique' => 1234), 'fiche_boutique', true) ?>"> Visit this store </a> But it's not flexible at all. Is there a solution, a parameter to add, or my config file is wrong ? thanks in advance for your help.

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• How to get XML nodes content when names include special Characters?

  - by paoloi

  Im trying to navigate an XML block similar to this one ($doc) using PHP simplexml_load_string and using xpath on $doc to get only the 'Day' block like this: $myday = $doc->xpath ('//Day'); that lets me access all data from the block as an object, meaning $doc-AdultCount returns 1 and $doc-Id returns "6a0" however I can't access "SpecialDeals" content not using: $doc-SpecialDeals nor using: $doc-SpecialDeals-a:string Whats is the right syntax in this case? Thanks in advance. <Days> <DaysId>687</DaysId> <Day> <AdultsCount>1</AdultsCount> <Availability>Available</Availability> <Id>6a0</Id> <RoomType>Studio</RoomType> <SpecialDeals xmlns:a="http://microsoft.com/2003/Arrays"> <a:string>Best Day Ever</a:string> </SpecialDeals> </Day> <DaysPrice>247.4</DaysPrice> </Days>");

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• Plugin architecture in C using libdl

  - by LukeN

  I've been toying around, writing a small IRC framework in C that I'm now going to expand with some core functionality - but beyond that, I'd like it to be extensible with plugins! Up until now, whenever I wrote something IRC related (and I wrote a lot, in about 6 different languages now... I'm on fire!) and actually went ahead to implement a plugin architecture, it was inside an interpreted language that had facilities for doing (read: abusing) so, like jamming a whole script file trough eval in Ruby (bad!). Now I want to abuse something in C! Basically there's three things I could do define a simple script language inside of my program use an existing one, embedding an interpreter use libdl to load *.so modules on runtime I'm fond of the third one and raather avoid the other two options if possible. Maybe I'm a masochist of some sort, but I think it could be both fun and useful for learning purposes. Logically thinking, the obvious "pain-chain" would be (lowest to highest) 2 - 1 - 3, for the simple reason that libdl is dealing with raw code that can (and will) explode in my face more often than not. So this question goes out to you, fellow users of stackoverflow, do you think libdl is up to this task, or even a realistic thought?

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• CakePHP 2.0: how to access properties of the parent object?

  - by PaulJ

  I just started learning CakePHP 2.0 a few days ago, and there's one thing that is leaving me stumped: say I have an User model and a Posts model: class User extends AppModel { public $name = "User"; public $hasMany=array( 'Post' => array( 'className' => 'Post', 'foreignKey' => 'author_id' ) ); } class Post extends AppModel { public $name = 'Post'; public $belongsTo = array( 'className' = 'User', 'foreignKey' = 'author_id', ); } (Where "author_id" is the foreign key in the posts table that references the Users table's primary key). And now, in the PostsController, I want to access the properties of the user that owns the current post (to show his display name, for example). What would be the proper syntax? I tried: $this->Post->User->find('first', array('conditions' => array('User.id' => "$usuario"))) But it didn't work (I guess it's because the User is the parent of the Post object, not its child). Or should CakePHP load everything automatically, once you've declared the $hasMany and $belongsTo relationships?

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• Processing data from an AJAX request

  - by Josh K

  I have a PHP API I'm working with that outputs everything as JSON. I need to call one of the API methods and parse it out using an AJAX request. I am using jQuery (though it shouldn't matter). When I make the request it errors out with a "parsererror" as the textStatus and a "Syntax Error: invalid label" when I make the request. Simplified code: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://mydomain.com/api/get/userlist/"+mid, dataType: "json", dataFilter: function(data, type) { /* Here we assume and pray */ users = eval(data); alert(users[1].id); }, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { alert(data.length); // Should be an array, yet is undefined. }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(textStatus); alert(errorThrown); }, complete: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus) { alert("Done"); } }); If I leave off the eval(data) then everything works fine. Well, except for data still being undefined in success. Note that I'm taking an array of objects in PHP and then passing them out through json_encode. Would that make any difference? There has been no progress made on this. I'm willing to throw more code up if someone believes they can help. Here is the PHP side of things private function _get_user_colors($id) { $u = new User(); $u->get_where(array('id' => $id)); $bar = array(); $bar['user'] = $u->stored; foreach($user->colors as $color) { $bar['colors'][] = $color; } echo(json_encode($bar)); } I have had zero issues using this with other PHP based scripts. I don't know why Javascript would take issue with it.

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• Is there an user-level accessible font table present in Linux?

  - by youngdood

  Hi again Stackoverflow! Since there is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Code_page_437 For MSDOS, is there something similar for Linux systems? Is it possible to access that font data via userland program? I would actually just need an access to the actual bit patterns which define the font, and I would do the rendering myself. I'm fairly sure that something like this exists, but I haven't been able to find what exactly is it and how to access it. After all, e.g. text mode console font has to reside somewhere, and I really do hope it is "rawly" accessible somehow for a userland program. Before I forget, I'm programming my program in C, and have access only to the "standard" linux/posix development headers. The only thing I could came up with myself is to use the fonts in /usr/share/fonts, but having to write my own implementations to extract the data from there doesn't sound really an option; I would really want to achieve this with the least amount of bytes possible, so I feel I'm left with finding a standard way of doing this. It's not really feasible for me to store my own 8x8 ASCII-compatible font with the program either(it takes some 1024 bytes(128 chars * 8x8 bits) just to store the font, which is definitely unacceptable for the strict size limits(some < 1024 bytes for code+data) which I am working with), so being able to use the font data stored at the system itself would greatly simplify my task.

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• Using pair in c++

  - by user1543957

  Can someone please tell why i am unable to compile the following program #include<iostream> #include<string> #include<cmath> #include<iostream> #include<cfloat> #define MOD 10000009 using namespace std; double distance(pair<int,int> p1,pair<int,int> p2) { double dist; dist = sqrt( (p1.first-p2.first)*(p1.first-p2.first) + (p1.second-p2.second)*(p1.second-p2.second) ); return(dist); } int main() { int N,i,j; cin >> N; pair<int,int> pi[N]; for(i=0;i<N;i++) { cin >> pi[i].first >> pi[i].second; } for(i=0;i<N;i++) { cout << pi[i].first << " "<< pi[i].second << endl; } distance(pi[0],pi[1]); // This line is giving error return 0; }

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• how to create an object using self?

  - by Nick

  I thought I understood the use of self while referring to anything in the current class. After encountering this warning and subsequent run failure, I have googled many variants of "define self" or "usage of self" and gotten nowhere. This problem is how to create an object without the warning, and understand why. #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface Foo : NSObject { Foo *obj; } -(void)beta; @end #import "Foo.h" @implementation Foo -(void)beta{ obj = [self new]; // 'Foo' may not respond to '-new' } @end Note, if I substitute Foo for self, there's no problem. I thought the class name and self were equivalent, but obviously the compiler doesn't think so. Perhaps an explanation of what's wrong here will not only solve my problem but also enlighten my understanding of the usage of self. Are there any tutorials about proper usage of self? I couldn't find anything beyond something like "self is the receiver of the message," which I didn't help me at all.

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• Is there a jQuery Equivalent of YUI 2 Custom Event Publish/Subscribe Event Model?

  - by Abe

  Hello! I learned how to develop in Javascript using the YUI 2 library and was wondering if there is a jQuery equivalent of Custom Events (http://developer.yahoo.com/yui/event/#customevent) Specifically, I want to be able to define custom events without having to attach the listeners initially. In YUI, I would create a page class and declare different custom events that can be subscribed to. Below is some example code to demonstrate what I want to do, but with jQuery function ListPage() { var me = this; this.initEvent = new YAHOO.util.CustomEvent("initEvent"); this.init = function() { // initialize events, DOM, etc this.initEvent.fire(me); } } In application Javascript, I would then like to subscribe to the initEvent. var page = new ListPage(); page.initEvent.subscribe( function (type, args) { // do stuff here } ); page.init(); Are there any tutorials/examples of something this in jQuery? I understand I can do something similar using bind() and trigger(), but the impression I get is I have to pass in the event handler when I call bind(). Is it possible in jQuery to create the custom event, but pass in the event handler later? I hope my question makes sense. thanks!

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• How can I pass an array resulting from a Perl method by reference?

  - by arareko

  Some XML::LibXML methods return arrays instead of references to arrays. Instead of doing this: $self->process_items($xml->findnodes('items/item')); I want to do something like: $self->process_items(\$xml->findnodes('items/item')); So that in process_items() I can dereference the original array instead of creating a copy: sub process_items { my ($self, $items) = @_; foreach my $item (@$items) { # do something... } } I can always store the results of findnodes() into an array and then pass the array reference to my own method, but let's say I want to try a reduced version of my code. Is that the correct syntax for passing the method results or should I use something different? Thanks! EDIT: Now suppose I want to change process_items() to process_item() so I can do stuff on a single element of the referenced array inside a loop. Something like: $self->process_item($_) for ([ $xml->findnodes('items/item') ]); This doesn't work as process_item() is executed only once because a single value is passed to the for loop (the reference to the array from findnodes()). What's the proper way of using $_ in this case?

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• Parser Error Problem

  - by user177140

  Hi I have found a problem in Multilingual Asp.Net Web Application I have Created a Global.asax file and write the code private void Application_BeginRequest(Object source, EventArgs e) { string[] languages = HttpContext.Current.Request.UserLanguages; if (languages[0].ToLower() != null && languages[0].ToLower()!="") { System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new System.Globalization.CultureInfo(languages[0].ToLower()); System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = System.Globalization.CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture(languages[0].ToLower()); } } and define Label Like this <asp:Label ID="Labeldg" runat="server" Text="<%$ Resources:Resource, Labeldg %>"</asp:Label> But it through Parser error like: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: The resource object with key 'LblUsrName_Login' was not found. Source Error: </div> <div class="impcLoginText_Login"> <asp:Label ID="LblUsrName" runat="server" Text="<%$ Resources:PageResource, LblUsrName_Login %>" "></asp:Label>

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• Append to the end of a Char array in C++

  - by Taylor Huston

  Is there a command that can append one array of char onto another? Something that would theoretically work like this: //array1 has already been set to "The dog jumps " //array2 has already been set to "over the log" append(array2,array1); cout << array1; //would output "The dog jumps over the log"; This is a pretty easy function to make I would think, I am just surprised there isn't a built in command for it. *Edit I should have been more clear, I didn't mean changing the size of the array. If array1 was set to 50 characters, but was only using 10 of them, you would still have 40 characters to work with. I was thinking an automatic command that would essentially do: //assuming array1 has 10 characters but was declared with 25 and array2 has 5 characters int i=10; int z=0; do{ array1[i] = array2[z]; ++i; ++z; }while(array[z] != '\0'); I am pretty sure that syntax would work, or something similar.

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• Is there a way to make sure classes implementing an Interface implement static methods?

  - by Tobias Kienzler

  Frist of all, I read erickson's usefull reply to "Why can’t I define a static method in a Java interface?". This question is not about the "why" but about the "how then?". So basically I want one Interface to provide both usual methods and e.g. a getSimilarObject method. For (a made up) example public interface ParametricFunction { /** @return f(x) using the parameters */ static abstract public double getValue(double x, double[] parameters); /** @return The function's name */ static abstract public String getName(); } and then public class Parabola implements ParametricFunction { /** @return f(x) = parameters[0] * x² + parameters[1] * x + parameters[2] */ static public double getValue(double x, double[] parameters) { return ( parameters[2] + x*(parameters[1] + x*parameters[0])); } static public String getName() { return "Parabola"; } } Since this is not allowed in the current Java standard, what is the closest thing to this? The idea behind this is putting several ParametricFunction's in a package and use Reflection to list them all, allowing the user to pick e.g. which one to plot. Obviously one could provide a loader class containing an array of the available ParametricFunction's, but every time a new one is implemented one has to remember adding it there, too.

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• Linq-to-sql join/where?

  - by Curtis White

  I've the following table structures Users id Types id isBool UsersTypes userid types I want to select all the UserTypes based on id and isBool. I tried this query var q = from usertype in usertypes from type in types where type.isBool == false where userstypes.user == id select usertype; But this did not work as expected. My questions are: Why? Is there any difference in using the join on syntax vs where, where vs where cond1 && cond2? My understanding is query optimizer will optimize. Is there any difference in using where cond1 == var1 && cond2 == var2 with and without the parenthesis? This seems peculiar that it is possible to build this without parenthesis What type of query do I need in this case? I can see that I could do a subquery or use a group but not 100% sure if it is required. An example might be helpful. I'm thinking a subquery may be required in this case.

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• C# property exactly the same, defined in two places

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I have the following classes: Defect - represents a type of data that can be found in a database FilterQuery - provides a way of querying the database by setting simple Boolean filters Both Defect and FilterQuery implement the same interface: IDefectProperties. This interface specifies particular fields that are in the database. Different classes have methods that return lists of Defect instances. With FilterQuery, you specify some filters for the particular properties implemented as part of IDefectProperties, and then you run the query and get back a list of Defect instances. My problem is that I end up implementing some properties exactly the same in FilterQuery and Defect. The two are inherently different classes, they just share some of the same properties. For example: public DateTime SubmitDateAsDate { get { return DateTime.Parse(SubmitDate); } set { SubmitDate = value.ToString(); } } This is a property required by IDefectProperties that depends on a different property, SubmitDate, which returns a string instead of a DateTime. Now SubmitDate is implemented differently in Defect and FilterQuery, but SubmitDateAsDate is exactly the same. Is there a way that I can define SubmitDateAsDate in only place, but both Defect and FilterQuery provide it as a property? FilterQuery and Defect already inherit from two different classes, and it wouldn't make sense for them to share an ancestor anyway, I think. I am open to suggestions as to my design here as well.

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• Problem understanding Inheritance

  - by dhruvbird

  I've been racking my brains over inheritance for a while now, but am still not completely able to get around it. For example, the other day I was thinking about relating an Infallible Human and a Fallible Human. Let's first define the two: Infallible Human: A human that can never make a mistake. It's do_task() method will never throw an exception Fallible Human: A human that will occasionally make a mistakes. It's do_task() method may occasionally throw a ErrorProcessingRequest Exception The question was: IS an infallible human A fallible human OR IS a fallible human AN infallible human? The very nice answer I received was in the form of a question (I love these since it gives me rules to answer future questions I may have). "Can you pass an infallible human where a fallible human is expected OR can you pass a fallible human where an infallible human is expected?" It seems apparent that you can pass an infallible human where a fallible human is expected, but not the other way around. I guess that answered my question. However, it still feels funny saying "An infallible human is a fallible human". Does anyone else feel queasy when they say it? It almost feels as if speaking out inheritance trees is like reading out statements from propositional calculus in plain English (the if/then implication connectives don't mean the same as that in spoken English). Does anyone else feel the same?

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• Code producing System.NullReferenceException error for Membership.GetUser(). This is VB.Net (ASP.Net 4)

  - by Derrek

  I have a Default.aspx page that is not static. I have added functionality with datalist and sqldatasources. When a user logins he/she will see items like saved workouts, saved equipment, total replys, etc... This is based on getting the currently logged in user UserID. Quite simply this works great when the user is logged in. However, I do not want to force a user to login to view the Default page because it does have functionality on it that does not require login. When a user is not logged in of course I receive the [System.NullReferenceException] error. I understand the error well but I do not know how to code to fix it. That is where I need help. I will admit I am more designer than developer. However, I do know the exception error I am receivving is caused by me not setting a value in my code when a user is not logged in. I do not know how to do that and have for a week made unsuccessful attempts at writing the code. Both sets of code below compile for VB.Net/ASP.Net 4/Visual Studio 2010 without errors. However, I still get the System.NullReferenceException error if not logged in. I know it can be done but I do not know the right syntax. If you can help please insert you code in mine or write it out. JUST TELLING ME WHERE TO GO TO FIND AN ANSWER WON'T HELP. I HAVE DONE THAT FOR 7 STRAIGHT DAYS. I APPRECIATE OUR HELP. Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() If Not MemUser Is DBNull.Value Then UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End If End Sub -------------------------------------ORIGINAL CODE------------------------------- Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End Sub

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• templated method on T inside a templated class on TT : Is that possible/correct.

  - by paercebal

  I have a class MyClass which is templated on typename T. But inside, I want a method which is templated on another type TT (which is unrelated to T). After reading/tinkering, I found the following notation: template <typename T> class MyClass { public : template<typename TT> void MyMethod(const TT & param) ; } ; For stylistic reasons (I like to have my templated class declaration in one header file, and the method definitions in another header file), I won't define the method inside the class declaration. So, I have to write it as: template <typename T> // this is the type of the class template <typename TT> // this is the type of the method void MyClass<T>::MyMethod(const TT & param) { // etc. } I knew I had to "declare" the typenames used in the method, but didn't know how exactly, and found through trials and errors. The code above compiles on Visual C++ 2008, but: Is this the correct way to have a method templated on TT inside a class templated on T? As a bonus: Are there hidden problems/surprises/constraints behind this kind of code? (I guess the specializations can be quite amusing to write)

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• Storing C++ templated objects as same type

  - by JaredC

  I have a class that is a core component of a performance sensitive code path, so I am trying to optimize it as much as possible. The class used to be: class Widget { Widget(int n) : N(n) {} .... member functions that use the constant value N .... const int N; // just initialized, will never change } The arguments to the constructor are known at compile time, so I have changed this class to a template, so that N can be compiled into the functions: template<int N> class Widget { .... member functions that use N .... } I have another class with a method: Widget & GetWidget(int index); However, after templating Widget, each widget has a different type so I cannot define the function like this anymore. I considered different inheritance options, but I'm not sure that the performance gain from the template would outweigh the cost of inherited function invocations. SO, my question is this: I am pretty sure I want the best of both worlds (compile-time / run-time), and it may not be possible. But, is there a way to gain the performance of knowing N at compile time, but still being able to return Widgets as the same type? Thanks!

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• Project management software, available options

  - by canni

  Hey, sorry for posting this here, I know that this question better suites into SuperUser, but I would like to know answers from developers point of view. I have been using Indefero for project management etc. for some time, but I found that Indefero limitations are too big for my team. I'm searching project-management software that best suites this needs: Open-Source, but I can consider commercial apps GIT integration is mandatory, best if it can support multiple repos per project Time-tracking, good if it can have Gannt chart connected with issues etc. Issue, milestone, task tracking Good if it can be integrated with Gitosis, or have similar repository access control It must have an option, to setup on our own server Markdown syntax support is mandatory (or easy way to install plugin for this etc.) Issue tagging will be and advantage It will be used by developers team by 99% of time, but it has to have some simple interface, that clients can fill up bug reports etc. per project. It does not have to fill all this needs, but good if it can :) What options do You know, and can recommend?

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• JavaScript: When does JavaScript evaluate a function, onload or when the function is called?

  - by Benj

  When does JavaScript evaluate a function? Is it on page load or when the function is called? The reason why I ask is because I have the following code: function scriptLoaded() { // one of our scripts finished loading, detect which scripts are available: var jQuery = window.jQuery; var maps = window.google && google.maps; if (maps && !requiresGmaps.called) { requiresGmaps.called = true; requiresGmaps(); } if (jQuery && !requiresJQuery.called) { requiresJQuery.called = true; requiresJQuery(); } if (maps && jQuery && !requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called) { requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called = true; requiresBothJQueryGmaps(); } } // asynch download of script function addScript(url) { var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = url; // older IE... script.onreadystatechange=function () { if (this.readyState == 'complete') scriptLoaded.call(this); } script.onload=scriptLoaded; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } addScript('http://google.com/gmaps.js'); addScript('http://jquery.com/jquery.js'); // define some function dependecies function requiresJQuery() { // create JQuery objects } function requiresGmaps() { // create Google Maps object, etc } function requiresBothJQueryGmaps() { ... } What I want to do is perform asynchronous download of my JavaScript and start at the earliest possible time to begin executing those scripts but my code has dependencies on when the scripted have been obviously downloaded and loaded. When I try the code above, it appears that my browser is still attempting to evaluate code within my require* functions even before those functions have been called. Is this correct? Or am I misunderstanding what's wrong with my code?

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