Search Results

Search found 12437 results on 498 pages for 'normal mapping'.

Page 422/498 | < Previous Page | 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429  | Next Page >

  • How to stop ejabberd from using mnesia

    - by Eldad Mor
    I'm trying to establish a procedure for restoring my database from a crashed server to a new server. My server is running Ejabberd as an XMPP server, and I configured it to use postgresql instead of mnesia - or so I thought. My procedure goes something like "dump the contents of the original DB, run the new server, restore the contents of the DBs using psql, then run the system". However, when I try running Ejabberd again I get a crash: =CRASH REPORT==== 3-Dec-2010::22:05:00 === crasher: pid: <0.36.0> registered_name: [] exception exit: {bad_return,{{ejabberd_app,start,[normal,[]]}, {'EXIT',"Error reading Mnesia database"}}} in function application_master:init/4 Here I was thinking that my system is running on PostgreSQL, while it seems I was still using Mnesia. I have several questions: How can I make sure mnesia is not being used? How can I divert all the ejabberd activities to PGSQL? This is the modules part in my ejabberd.cfg file: {modules, [ {mod_adhoc, []}, {mod_announce, [{access, announce}]}, % requires mod_adhoc {mod_caps, []}, {mod_configure,[]}, % requires mod_adhoc {mod_ctlextra, []}, {mod_disco, []}, {mod_irc, []}, {mod_last_odbc, []}, {mod_muc, [ {access, muc}, {access_create, muc}, {access_persistent, muc}, {access_admin, muc_admin}, {max_users, 500} ]}, {mod_offline_odbc, []}, {mod_privacy_odbc, []}, {mod_private_odbc, []}, {mod_pubsub, [ % requires mod_caps {access_createnode, pubsub_createnode}, {plugins, ["default", "pep"]} ]}, {mod_register, [ {welcome_message, none}, {access, register} ]}, {mod_roster_odbc, []}, {mod_stats, []}, {mod_time, []}, {mod_vcard_odbc, []}, {mod_version, []} ]}. What am I missing? I am assuming the crash is due to the mnesia DB being used by Ejabberd, and since it's out of sync with the PGSQL DB, it cannot operate correctly - but maybe I'm totally off track here, and would love some direction. EDIT: One problem solved. Since I'm using amazon cloud, I needed to hardcode the ERLANG_NODE so it won't be defined by the hostname (which changes on reboot). This got my ejabberd running, but still I wish to stop using mnesia, and I wonder what part of ejabberd is still using it and how can I found it.

    Read the article

  • Creating an Admin directory in Rails

    - by matsko
    I've been developing the CMS backend for a website for a few weeks now. The idea is to craft everything in the backend first so that it can manage the database and information that will be displayed on the main website. As of now, I currently have all my code setup in the normal rails MVC structure. So the users admin is /users and videos is /videos. My plans are to take the code for this and move it to a /admin directory. So the two controllers above would need to be accessed by /admin/users and /admin/videos. I'm not sure how todo the ruote (adding the /admin as a prefix) nor am I sure about how to manage the logic. What I'm thinking of doing is setting up an additional 'middle' controller that somehow gets nested between the ApplicationControler and the targetted controller when the /admin directory is accessed. This way, any additional flags and overloaded methods can be spawned for the /admin section only (I believe I could use a filter too for this). If that were to work, then the next issue would be separating the views logic (but that would just be renaming folders and so on). Either I do it that way or I have two rails instances that share the MVC code between them (and I guess the database too), but I fear that would cause lots of duplication errors. Any ideas as to how I should go about doing this? Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • CSS buttons and crossbrowser issue

    - by Jason
    I have a class 'button' that I want to use for button, input and a tags. The problem is that both button and input tags have a greater line height than the anchor tag does. I have attached an example here so you can play around with it in firebug or whatever. http://28dev.com/stackoverflow/css-buttons.html But for those who just want to see the css/html, here it is: .button { font-family : helvetica, arial, sans-serif; -moz-border-radius: 3px; -webkit-border-radius: 3px; background : url(/images/ui-bg_glass_75_e6e6e6_1x400.png) repeat-x scroll 50% 50% #E6E6E6; border-color : #636363 #888888 #888888 #636363; border-right : 1px solid #888888; border-style : solid; border-width : 1px; cursor : pointer; display : block; float : left; font-size : 12px; font-weight : normal; line-height : 100%; min-width : 100px; padding : 3px 12px; text-align : center; } .button, .button a { color : #282828; text-decoration : none; } .button:hover, .button:hover a { border-color : #343434; color : #080808; } .marginR { margin-right : 5px; } <button class='button marginR' type='submit'>button.button</button> <input type="submit" value="input.button" class="button marginR" /> <a class="button" href="">a.button</a>

    Read the article

  • Centering a div block without the width

    - by Vinicius
    Hi, I have a problem when I try to center the div block "products" because I don't know in advance the div width. Anybody have a solution? Update: The problem I have is I don't know how many products I'll display, I can have 1, 2 or 3 products, I can center them if it was a fixed number as I'd know the width of the parent div, I just don't know how to do it when the content is dynamic. <style> .product_container { text-align: center; height: 150px; } .products { height: 140px; text-align: center; margin: 0 auto; clear: ccc both; } .price { margin: 6px 2px; width: 137px; color: #666; font-size: 14pt; font-style: normal; border: 1px solid #CCC; background-color: #EFEFEF; } </style> <div class="product_container"> <div class="products" id="products"> <div id="product_15"> <img src="/images/ecommerce/card_default.png"> <div class="price">R$ 0,01</div> </div> <div id="product_15"> <img src="/images/ecommerce/card_default.png"> <div class="price">R$ 0,01</div> </div> <div id="product_15"> <img src="/images/ecommerce/card_default.png"> <div class="price">R$ 0,01</div> </div> </div> </div>

    Read the article

  • git workflow incorporating many, but not all commits from many forks

    - by becomingGuru
    I have a git repo. It has been forked several times and many independent commits are made on top of it. Everything normal, like what happens in many github hosted projects. Now, what exact workflow should I follow, if I want to see all that commits individually and apply the ones I like. The workflow I followed, which is not the optimal is to create a branch of the name github-username and merge the changes into my master and undo any changes in the commit I dont need manually (there are not many, so it worked). What I want is the ability to see all commits from different forks individually and cherry pick and apply them on top of my master. What is the workflow to follow for that? And what gui (gitk?) enables me to see all different individual commits. I realize that merge should be a primary part of the workflow and not cherry-pick as it creates a different commit (from git's point of view). Even rebasing other's changes on top of mine might not preserve the history on the graph to indicate that it is his commits I have rebased. So then, How do I ignore just a few commits from a lot of them? I think github should have a "apply this commit on top of my master" thing in their graph after each commit node; so I can just pull it, after doing all that.

    Read the article

  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

    Read the article

  • Dot Matrix printing in C# ?

    - by Dale
    I'm trying to print to Dot Matrix printers (various models) out of C#, currently I'm using Win32 API (you can find alot of examples online) calls to send escape codes directly to the printer out of my C# application. This works great, but... My problem is because I'm generating the escape codes and not relying on the windows print system the printouts can't be sent to any "normal" printers or to things like PDF print drivers. (This is now causing a problem as we're trying to use the application on a 2008 Terminal Server using Easy Print [Which is XPS based]) The question is: How can I print formatted documents (invoices on pre-printed stationary) to Dot Matrix printers (Epson, Oki and Panasonic... various models) out of C# not using direct printing, escape codes etc. **Just to clarify, I'm trying things like GDI+ (System.Drawing.Printing) but the problem is that its very hard, to get things to line up like the old code did. (The old code sent the characters direct to the printer bypassing the windows driver.) Any suggestions how things could be improved so that they could use GDI+ but still line up like the old code did?

    Read the article

  • How to highlight the button untill the next view is changed in iphone?

    - by Pugal Devan
    Hi, I am new to iphone development. I have created five buttons in the view controller. If i clicked the button it goes to the corresponding view. Now i want to display the button in highlighted state when it is clicked. It should go back to the normal state only when i click the other button.(See the image below). I have set the another image for highigthting buttons when i clicked it, but it shows that highlighted state only one sec. Now i want to display the buttons highlighted till another button is clicked. Same like a Tabbar operations.(I have used buttons instead of tabbar for my requirements). Now i have used the following code, void didLoad { [btn1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"ContentColor.png"] forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [btn2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"bColor.png"] forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [btn3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"ShColor.png"] forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [btn4 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"PicturesColor.png"] forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [btn5 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"infoColor.png"] forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; } Please help me out. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Manually start session with specific id / transitioning session cookie between domains

    - by deceze
    My host requires me to use a different domain for SSL secured access (shared SSL), so I need to transition the user session between two domains. One part of the page lives at http://example.com, while the SSL'd part is at https://example.hosting.com. As such I can't set a domain-spanning cookie. What I'm trying to do is to transition the session id over and re-set the cookie like this: http://example.com/normal/page, user clicks link to secure area and goes to: http://example.com/secure/page, which causes a redirect to: https://example.hosting.com/secure/page?sess=ikub..., which resurrects the session and sets a new cookie valid for the domain, then redirects to: https://example.hosting.com/secure/page This works up to the point where the session should be resurrected. I'm doing: function beforeFilter() { ... $this->Session->id($_GET['sess']); $this->Session->activate(); ... } As far as I can tell this should start the session with the given ID. It actually generates a new session ID though and this session is empty, the data is not restored. This is on CakePHP 1.2.4. Do I need to do something else, or is there a better way to do what I'm trying to do?

    Read the article

  • Help with animating an element in jQuery

    - by alex
    I have an unordered list with a few list elements. #tags { width: 300px; height: 300px; position: relative; border: 1px solid red; list-style: none none; } #tags li { position: absolute; background: gray; } I have also started writing a jQuery plugin to animate the list elements. So far, I place the list elements randomly in the parent container, and choose a random font size for the text. My next step (which I am a bit stuck on) is to animate the list elements... essentially, I want the list elements to do something like this Slide from left to right whilst getting slightly larger up to the middle and then dropping in size back to normal when it hits the right border. Then, it should do the same in reverse, however it should also set a negative 'z-index' and maybe fade in opacity a bit. The first bit I'm really stuck on, is how to determine if the element is near the middle, in a way that I can have a value that starts at 0.1 on the far left hand size and is 1 in the middle and then back to 0.1 on the far right hand size. Basically, I want them to appear as if they are going around in a faux 3D circle into the page. Then I could do something like this $(this).css({ fontSize: percentageTowardsMiddle * 14, }); Do you know how I could do this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using Javascript to flip flop a textbox's readonly flag

    - by Velika
    I have a frame with several radio buttons where the user is supposed to select the "Category" that his Occupation falls into and then unconditionally also specify his occupation. If the user selects "Retired", the requirement is to prefill "Retired" in the "Specify Occupation" text box and to disable it to prevent it from being changed. The Specify Occupation text box should also no longer be a tab stop. If the user selects a radio button other than Retired the Specify Occupation text box should be enabled and once again in the normal tab sequence. Originally, I was setting and clearing the disabled property on the Specify occupation textbox, then I found out that, upon submitting the form, disabled fields are excluded from the submit and the REQUIRED validator on the Specify Occupation textbox was being raised because the textbox was being blanked out. What is the best way to solve this? My approach below was to mimic a disabled text box by setting/resetting the readonly attribute on the text box and changing the background color to make it appear disabled. (I suppose I should be changing the forecolor instead of teh background color). Nevertheless, my code to make the textbox readonly and to reset it doesn't appear to be working. function OccupationOnClick(sender) { debugger; var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationRetired.ClientId %>"); var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%= txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientId %>"); var optOccupationOther = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationOther.ClientId %>"); if (sender == optOccupationRetired) { txtSpecifyOccupation.value = "Retired" txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = "readonly"; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#E0E0E0"; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = -1; } else { if (txtSpecifyOccupation.value == "Retired") txtSpecifyOccupation.value = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#FFFFFF"; txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = 0; } } Can someone provide a suggest for the best way to handle this scenario and porovide a tweek to the code above to fix the setting/resetting on the readonly property?

    Read the article

  • Problem with flash in a webbrowser in a winform

    - by fgnt
    I have the oddest problem (but aren't all programming problems odd?). I have a winform that contains a webbrowser object that opens a website that has flash on it. This winform is running on a touchscreen computer (I can't find the brand or model number). Here is what I know: flash objects embeded in a website that is accessed via the webbrowser object in my winform do not function properly said flash objects only react to the first 'click' on them. So the website opens and if I hit a button, that button works but nothing afterward works within the flash object works. If my first 'click' misses a button, nothing works there after. trying to 'click' an flash button gives the same response as just hovering over the button This isn't a problem with the touch part of the touch screen as using a mouse also gives the same not working right response this isn't a problem with the web page as I can open up explorer on the same computer and navigate the webpage just fine from there The program also works 100% right on my personal computer so it shouldn't be the program's fault if it's not the touch screen fault and not the program's fault, I can't blame anything right now. the EXACT same program worked 100% on our old touch screen (which was having other problems so we had to get rid of it). Oh, also, surfing just a 'normal' webpage in a webbrowser in the winform works just fine.

    Read the article

  • Update Related Entity Of Detached Entity

    - by Hemslingo
    I'm having an issue updating an entity with multiple related entities. I've got a very simple model which consists of an article entity and a list of categories the article can be related to. You can choose from a check box list which of these categories are associated to it...which works fine. The problem crops up when I actually come to update an existing entity using the dbContext. As I am updating this entity, I have already detached it from the context ready to re-attach it later so the update can execute properly. I can see that after I posting the model, the category(s) are being added to the article entity just fine and it looks like it updates in the repository with no errors occurring. When I look in the database the article has updated as normal but the category(s) have not. Here is my (simplified) update code... public virtual bool Attach(T entity) { _dbContext.Entry(entity).State = EntityState.Modified; _dbSet.Attach(entity); return this.Commit(); } Any help will be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

    - by Mike Davis
    There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

    Read the article

  • RIA Services for transmitting non DB object-graph

    - by Mike Gates
    I have been getting into RIA services because I thought it would simplify dealing with the services layer of web applications I wish to build. I see lots of examples out there showing how to create DomainService classes which expose and consume entities that have some kind of relational database backing, and therefore have foreign-key relationships. However, I would like to know how to expose and consume normal object graphs...objects that contain references to eachother but don't have foreign keys. For example, say I want a service operation called "GetFolderInformation(string pathToFolder)". I want this to return a custom object called "FolderInformation" structured with: - string Name - IEnumerable<FileInformation> Files I cannot get this to work because it seems that RIA wants to deal with entities that have foreign key relationships. Why? Why can't the serializer just see my object references and recreate that in the proxy on the other side? Data exists behind service layers that doesn't necessarily have foreign key relationships...like folder/file for example. EDIT: I realized I hadn't asked my question! My question is, is there a way to do what I am trying to do?

    Read the article

  • jquery ui tabs problem

    - by Eagletrophy
    hi good people, been a while I have had my hands full with a cold but I came back to a problem we never found an answer to, it the homepage of a site I am workin and I said that my tabs would just scatter on a resolution less than mine or around it but not quite. I am on a 1280x800 screen and it displays no problem but as soon as I drop to 1024x768 or 1280x1024 or anything like that this is what it looks like. I wanted to post the code but it means posting alot of HTML and I don't think that will be healthy. hopefully the screenshot will. some one said a while back that my tabs were too big so i reduced them and still. here is the screen shot though: HERE IS THE CSS THAT POWERS THE ADVERTS. THE CSS FOR THE REST OF THE SITE IS JUST A NORMAL JQUERY UI BASE. #adverts{ padding:0px; width:400px; height:109px; float: right; margin-top: auto; margin-left:320px; /* margin-right: auto; */ } enter code here

    Read the article

  • Retrieval of Single Entity + Ria Services

    - by Oliver
    Hi there, I am reading and doing some RnD on RIA as a solution for a new Silverlight project. I have read alot of the documentation and decided to do a small mockup of a system using .Net RIA Services. I want to know how to get a Single Entity from the Domain Service? example: I want to get a person and populate a form: public Person GetSinglePerson() { return new Person { ID = 4, FirstName = "Cyanide", LastName = "Happiness", Status=3 }; } Say I use the the DomainDataSource: <riaControls:DomainDataSource x:Name="source2" QueryName="GetSinglePersonQuery" AutoLoad="True"> <riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> <web:DataContext/> </riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> </riaControls:DomainDataSource> This only returns a EntityCollectionView? How do I bind for example in a form to properties that are in the Person Class? Like: <TextBox Text="{Binding FirstName, ElementName=source2}"/> Everything seems to come back as IEnumerable or as CollectionViews (like the DATA binding in the samples) which aren't useful for a single entity. I want a single persons entry, why do I want a CollectionView in which I cannot access properties directly. I have also use the: LoadOperation<Person> oLoadOperation = oDataContext.Load(oDataContext.GetSinglePersonQuery()); I am very close to giving up on this RIA idea and just going with a normal WCF service as it is more predictable and manageable at this stage.

    Read the article

  • Static variables and long running thread on IIS 7.5

    - by Dmitry
    Hello people. Help me solve next problem. I have ASP .NET MVC2 application. I run it on IIS 7.5. In one page user clicks button and handler for this button sends request to server (jquery.ajax). At server action in controller starts new thread (it makes long time import): var thread = new Thread(RefreshCitiesInDatabase); thread.Start(); State of import is available in static variable. New thread changes value of variable in the begin of work. User can check state of import too with the help of this variable, which is used in view. And user sees import's state. When I start this function few minutes everything is okey. On page I see right state of import, quantity of imported records is changed, I see changes in logs. But after few minutes begin troubles. When I refresh page with import state sometimes I see that import is okey but sometimes I see page with default values about import (like application is just started), but after that again I can see page with normal import's state. I tried to attach Visual Studio to IIS process and debug application. But when request comes to controller sometimes static variables have right values and sometimes they have default values (static int has 0, static string has "" etc.). Tell me what I do wrong. May be I must start additional thread in other way? Thanks in advance, Dmitry

    Read the article

  • jquery ready function: script not detecting a function

    - by deostroll
    There is a web page with place holder (a normal div). Via ajax calls I am loading a <form> and a <script> into the place holder. The script contains necessary javascript to initialize the form (i.e. for e.g. disable the controls so as to make form read-only, etc). Here is a piece of code I have; it works, but the commented part doesn't work. Because the script engine cannot find the object tristate_DisableControl which is a function in one of those scripts I call via ajax. $(document).ready(function() { // $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { // if (typeof (window.tristate_DisableControl) == 'undefined') { // if (typeof (window.console) != 'undefnied') // console.log((new Date()).toTimeString() + ' not logable'); // pausecomp(1000); // } // else // tristate_DisableControl(this); // }); //end $('#site_prefrences_content div').each() setTimeout(function() { $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { tristate_DisableControl(this); }) }, 1000); }); I thought by the time $(document).ready() executes the DOM will be properly loaded...

    Read the article

  • J2ME cache issue

    - by kiennt
    I have to write a J2ME app to retrieve images from server and display in mobile phone. I have seen and test that Snaptu have a mechanism to cache image, event with 100 images (both normal size and zoom size). I wonder how they can do that? I though that those guys use rms to save image stream to data. But when i check in working folder of simulater( I use Windows XP and Sun Wireless Toolkit 3.0, the Emulator device i use to run my program is CLDC Device 1 - my working folder is C:\Document And Settings\Administrator\javame-sdk\3.0\work\6\appdb), i see some .db file. When i delete these files, i still can view cache image in my emulator???? I also thought that those guys use heap memory to save image. But it is not correct because when i set limit device memory is 2MB (like some mobile phones), and i load and view 100 images in zoom size, it didn't make OutOfMemory Error? It so weird. Any one can help me? Thanks

    Read the article

  • What's correct way to remove a boost::shared_ptr from a list?

    - by Catskul
    I have a std::list of boost::shared_ptr<T> and I want to remove an item from it but I only have a pointer of type T* which matches one of the items in the list. However I cant use myList.remove( tPtr ) I'm guessing because shared_ptr does not implement == for its template argument type. My immediate thought was to try myList.remove( shared_ptr<T>(tPtr) ) which is syntactically correct but it will crash from a double delete since the temporary shared_ptr has a separate use_count. std::list< boost::shared_ptr<T> > myList; T* tThisPtr = new T(); // This is wrong; only done for example code. // stand-in for actual code in T using // T's actual "this" pointer from within T { boost::shared_ptr<T> toAdd( tThisPtr ); // typically would be new T() myList.push_back( toAdd ); } { //T has pointer to myList so that upon a certain action, // it will remove itself romt the list //myList.remove( tThisPtr); //doesn't compile myList.remove( boost::shared_ptr<T>(tThisPtr) ); // compiles, but causes // double delete } The only options I see remaining are to use std::find with a custom compare, or to loop through the list brute force and find it myself, but it seems there should be a better way. Am I missing something obvious, or is this just too non-standard a use to be doing a remove the clean/normal way?

    Read the article

  • PHP mySQL Error

    - by happyCoding25
    Hello, Im new to php so I decided to follow this tutorial for a simple login screen. I got the code setup but when I try login I get this error: Warning: mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in (a long file path to the script) on line 27 The code I got from the tutorial is: <?php ob_start(); $host="thehost"; // Host name $username="myusername"; // Mysql username $password="mypass"; // Mysql password $db_name="test"; // Database name $tbl_name="members"; // Table name // Connect to server and select databse. mysql_connect("$host", "$username", "$password")or die("cannot connect"); mysql_select_db("$db_name")or die("cannot select DB"); // Define $myusername and $mypassword $myusername=$_POST['myusername']; $mypassword=$_POST['mypassword']; // To protect MySQL injection (more detail about MySQL injection) $myusername = stripslashes($myusername); $mypassword = stripslashes($mypassword); $myusername = mysql_real_escape_string($myusername); $mypassword = mysql_real_escape_string($mypassword); $sql="SELECT * FROM $tbl_name WHERE username='$myusername' and password='$mypassword'"; $result=mysql_query($sql); // Mysql_num_row is counting table row $count=mysql_num_rows($result); // If result matched $myusername and $mypassword, table row must be 1 row if($count==1){ // Register $myusername, $mypassword and redirect to file "login_success.php" session_register("myusername"); session_register("mypassword"); header("location:login_success.php"); } else { echo "Wrong Username or Password"; } ob_end_flush(); ?> (Note: All of the mySQL database info is filled in on my version) Aslo, the author gives a php5 version and a normal php version. I have tried both and gotten the same error. If anyone knows why this is happening help is really appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Merging datasets based on 2 variables in SAS.

    - by John
    Hye Guys, my question is the following, i'm working with different databases, all contain information about 1000+ companies, a company is defined by its ticker code (the short version of the name( Ford as F) usually seen on stock quotation boards). Aside from the ticker code to merge on I also have to merge on the time, I used month as a count variable throughout my time series. The final purpose is to have a regression in the kind of Y(jt) = c + X(jt) +X1(jt) etc with j = company (ticker) and t = time (month). So imagine I have 2 databases, one which is the base database with variables such as Tickers, months, beta's of a company (risk measure) etc and a second database which has an extra variable (let's say market capitalisation). What I want to do then is to merge these 2 databases based on the ticker and the month. Example: Base database: Ticker __ Month __ Betas AA __ 4 __ 1.2 BB __ 8 __ 1.18 Second database: Ticker __ Month __ MCAP AA __ 4 __ 8542 BB __ 6 __ 1245 Then after merge I would like to have something like this: Ticker __ Month _ Betas ___ MCAP AA __ 4 _ 1.2 ___ 8542 So all observations that do not match BOTH date and ticker have to be dropped, I'm sure this is possible, just can't find the right type of code. Thanks! PS: I'm guessing the underscars have something to do with font layout but both the bold as italic is supposed to be normal :)

    Read the article

  • log4js ConsoleAppender initialization

    - by perrierism
    I'm wondering if anyone happens to have some experience using Log4js? It seems its normal ConsoleAppender isn't always ready to use immediately after it's added to a logger object... If I have two sequential script tags in a document like: //Initialize logger <script type="text/javascript"> var logger = new Log4js.getLogger("JSLOG"); logger.addAppender(new Log4js.ConsoleAppender(logger, false)); logger.setLevel(Log4js.Level.INFO); </script> //Use logger <script type="text/javascript"> logger.info('Test test'); </script> ... It causes the console pop-up (pop-up window) to appear with an error message on page load: 12:58:23 PM WARN Log4js - Could not run the listener function () { return fn.apply(object, arguments); }. TypeError: this.outputElement is null The console is still initialised, it's there afterward, but for just that first logger call it doesn't seem to be there fully. If I make the first logger call setTimeout("logger.info('test test')", 1000), it doesn't have the error. So it's like it's not ready immediately. Anyone see this before or know what a workaround might be? Cheers

    Read the article

  • jQuery server ping slowly but surely filling memory?

    - by danspants
    I use the following piece of code to test if our server is running whilst the user is in a page. I've also started adding other functions that grab small amounts of data that are constantly changing and are to be relayed to the user (Files waiting for download, messages, reports etc). I've noticed recently that if I leave any page open (all pages contain the same function), the browser takes up more and more system memory which I can only attribute to this regular task (overnight it reached 1.6 gb). Is there some way of clearing out the data that is being accumulated? Is this normal behaviour? As far as i can tell, every time I call the function it should overwrite the previously retrieved data? function testServer(){ jQuery.ajax({ type:"HEAD", url:"/media/d_arrow_blue.png", error: function(msg) { jQuery.jGrowl("Server Disconnected"); } }); //retrieves count of files awaiting download - move to seperate function jQuery.get("/get_files/",{"type":"count"},function(data) { jQuery("#downloadList").children("div").text(data); }); }; jQuery().doTimeout(6000,function() { testServer(); return true; });

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429  | Next Page >