Search Results

Search found 11493 results on 460 pages for 'customer success'.

Page 423/460 | < Previous Page | 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430  | Next Page >

  • Default Database Collations got messed up

    - by dominicdinada
    I am using Ubuntu 9.10 with XAMPP ( Lampp "MYSQL 5.1.45 PHPMYADMIN 3.3.1 PHP 5.3.2 ) What my problem is, is that I set up my testing env to debug my scripts locally and when I did so there arose a problem. This problem is that I used firefox's addon SQLinject ME to test for weakness' and upon doing so it caused mysql to change the default local collations; character sets dir /opt/lampp/share/mysql/charsets/ collation connection latin1_general_ci (Global value) latin1_swedish_ci collation database latin1_swedish_ci collation server latin1_swedish_ci I have searched for quite sometime in regards to a solution to this problem and have come up with searching for the db.opt file which stores this information without success. Upon not finding a solution I removed lampp with the "sudo rm -fR /opt" command and reinstall and the problem still persists. I have tried to change the collations manually and still come up with the database displaying latin1_swedish_ci as the default language. Why is this a problem?? Why is it a problem with mysql? Because the application I am testing and debugging locally is built on the CodeIgnitor with Smarty framework and since this combination of framework is built to detect the LOCALES, Rather what the database defaults are I keep getting errors saying no language file for swedish...... Of course I could get the swedish language file to work around this problem but I do not feel the need to make this work around a perminant solution as with time when I move on to projects I will run into simular problems every time that A; When importing database files, backups etc it will default to import such databases as the locale swedish. B; As time passes on I might completly forget of this error and will be back to square one. I have found this code in searches for a fix,which seems to alter the tables to a desired Collaion; $value) { mysql_query("ALTER TABLE $value COLLATE latin1_general_ci"); }} echo "The collation of your database has been successfully changed!"; ? Which is handy to switch collations in One Schema at a time however this is not a fix when a framework doesnt care that the said database is in one langugae. It tests for the Default of the entire server. Someone with any knowledge of a purge or fix to this I would greatly appricate the help. One more final note is that when I was testing I only figured to back up the applications DataBase and not the entire Schema of the install. No matter if I uninstall or reinstall the database still seems to carry these problems.

    Read the article

  • Injecting generics with Guice

    - by paradigmatic
    I am trying to migrate a small project, replacing some factories with Guice (it is my first Guice trial). However, I am stuck when trying to inject generics. I managed to extract a small toy example with two classes and a module: import com.google.inject.Inject; public class Console<T> { private final StringOutput<T> out; @Inject public Console(StringOutput<T> out) { this.out = out; } public void print(T t) { System.out.println(out.converter(t)); } } public class StringOutput<T> { public String converter(T t) { return t.toString(); } } import com.google.inject.AbstractModule; import com.google.inject.Guice; import com.google.inject.Injector; import com.google.inject.TypeLiteral; public class MyModule extends AbstractModule { @Override protected void configure() { bind(StringOutput.class); bind(Console.class); } public static void main(String[] args) { Injector injector = Guice.createInjector( new MyModule() ); StringOutput<Integer> out = injector.getInstance(StringOutput.class); System.out.println( out.converter(12) ); Console<Double> cons = injector.getInstance(Console.class); cons.print(123.0); } } When I run this example, all I got is: Exception in thread "main" com.google.inject.CreationException: Guice creation errors: 1) playground.StringOutput<T> cannot be used as a key; It is not fully specified. at playground.MyModule.configure(MyModule.java:15) 1 error at com.google.inject.internal.Errors.throwCreationExceptionIfErrorsExist(Errors.java:354) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder.initializeStatically(InjectorBuilder.java:152) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder.build(InjectorBuilder.java:105) at com.google.inject.Guice.createInjector(Guice.java:92) I tried looking for the error message, but without finding any useful hints. Further on the Guice FAQ I stumble upon a question about how to inject generics. I tried to add the following binding in the configure method: bind(new TypeLiteral<StringOutput<Double>>() {}).toInstance(new StringOutput<Double>()); But without success (same error message). Can someone explain me the error message and provide me some tips ? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Connection Error using NHibernate 3.0 with Oracle

    - by Olu Lawrence
    I'm new to NHibernate. My first attempt is to configure and establish connection to Oracle 11.1g using ODP. For this test, I use a test fixture, but I get the following error: Inner exception: "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Outer exception: Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.OracleDataClientDriver. The test script is shown below: using IBCService.Models; using NHibernate.Cfg; using NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl; using NUnit.Framework; namespace IBCService.Tests { [TestFixture] public class GenerateSchema_Fixture { [Test] public void Can_generate_schema() { var cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.Configure(); cfg.AddAssembly(typeof(Product).Assembly); var fac = new SchemaExport(cfg); fac.Execute(false, true, false); } } } The exception occurs at the last line: fac.Execute(false, true, false); The NHibernate config is shown: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!-- This config use Oracle Data Provider (ODP.NET) --> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory name="IBCService.Tests"> <property name="connection.driver_class"> NHibernate.Driver.OracleDataClientDriver </property> <property name="connection.connection_string"> User ID=TEST;Password=test;Data Source=//RAND23:1521/RAND.PREVALENT.COM </property> <property name="connection.provider"> NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider </property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.Oracle10gDialect</property> <property name="query.substitutions"> true 1, false 0, yes 'Y', no 'N' </property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class"> NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu </property> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> Now, if I change the NHibernate.Driver.OracleDataClientDriver to NHibernate.Driver.OracleClientDriver (Microsoft provider for Oracle), the test succeed. Once switched back to Oracle provider, whichever version, the test fails with the error stated earlier. I've spent 3 days already trying to figure out what is not in order without success. I hope someone out there could provide useful info on what I am doing wrong.

    Read the article

  • Loading a Page into a jQuery Dialog

    - by Dave
    I tend to follow a fairly "modular" approach to building applications and I recently started working with jQuery. The application I'm working on is going to be fairly large so I'm trying to break pieces out into separate files/modules when possible. One example of this is a "User Settings" dialog. This dialog has a form, a few tabs, and quite a good number of input fields so I want to develop it in a separate HTML file (PHP actually, but it can be considered HTML for the purposes of this example). It's an entire page in and of itself with all the tags you would expect such as: <html><head></head><body></body></html> So I can now develop, what I want to be, the dialog separate from the base application. This dialog has it's own Javascript (A LOT of Javascript, in fact) in the head as well, with jQuery $(document).ready(){} capturing, etc. Everything works flawlessly in isolation. However, when I attempt to load the jQuery modal dialog with the page (inside of the main application page), as one might expect, trouble ensues. Here's a brief, very simple, example of what it looks like: editUserDialog.load ("editUser.php", {id : $('#userList').val(), popup : "true"}, function () { editUserDialog.dialog ("option", "title" , "Edit User"); editUserDialog.dialog ('open'); }); (I'm passing in a "popup" flag to the page so that the page can determine its context -- i.e. as a page or inside of the jQuery dialog). Question 1: When I moved the code from the "head" into "body" (in the editUser.php page) it actually worked for the most part. It seemed that jQuery was calling the $(document).ready() function in the context of the body of the loaded file and not the head. Is this a bad idea? Question 2: Is my process for building this application just totally flawed to begin with? I've scoured the net to attempt to find a "best practices" sort of document to building reasonably large applications using jQuery/PHP without a lot of success so maybe there's something out there someone else is aware of that I've somehow missed. Thanks for bearing with me while I attempt to describe the issues I've encountered and I hope I've accurately described the problem.

    Read the article

  • Node.js + Express.js. How to RENDER less css?

    - by Paden
    Hello all, I am unable to render less css in my express workspace. Here is my current configuration (my css/less files go in 'public/stylo/'): app.configure(function() { app.set('views' , __dirname + '/views' ); app.set('partials' , __dirname + '/views/partials'); app.set('view engine', 'jade' ); app.use(express.bodyDecoder() ); app.use(express.methodOverride()); app.use(express.compiler({ src: __dirname + '/public/stylo', enable: ['less']})); app.use(app.router); app.use(express.staticProvider(__dirname + '/public')); }); Here is my main.jade file: !!! html(lang="en") head title Yea a title link(rel="stylesheet", type="text/css", href="/stylo/main.less") link(rel="stylesheet", href="http://fonts.googleapis.com/cssfamily=Droid+Sans|Droid+Sans+Mono|Ubuntu|Droid+Serif") script(src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.4/jquery.min.js") script(src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.7/jquery-ui.min.js") body!= body here is my main.less css: @import "goodies.css"; body { .googleFont; background-color : #000000; padding : 20px; margin : 0px; > .header { border-bottom : 1px solid #BBB; background-color : #f0f0f0; margin : -25px -25px 30px -25px; /* important */ color : #333; padding : 15px; font-size : 18pt; } } AND here is my goodies.less css: .rounded_corners(@radius: 10px) { -moz-border-radius : @radius; -webkit-border-radius: @radius; border-radius : @radius; } .shadows(@rad1: 0px, @rad2: 1px, @rad3: 3px, @color: #999) { -webkit-box-shadow : @rad1 @rad2 @rad3 @color; -moz-box-shadow : @rad1 @rad2 @rad3 @color; box-shadow : @rad1 @rad2 @rad3 @color; } .gradient (@type: linear, @pos1: left top, @pos2: left bottom, @color1: #f5f5f5, @color2: #ececec) { background-image : -webkit-gradient(@type, @pos1, @pos2, from(@color1), to(@color2)); background-image : -moz-linear-gradient(@color1, @color2); } .googleFont { font-family : 'Droid Serif'; } Cool deal. Now: I have installed less via npm and I had heard from another post that @imports should reference the .css not the .less. In any case, I have tried the combinations of switching .less for .css in the jade and less files with no success. If you can help or have the solution I'd greatly appreciate it. Note: The jade portion works fine if I enter any ol' .css. Note2: The less compiles if I use lessc via command line.

    Read the article

  • PHP SASL(PECL) sasl_server_init(app) works with CLI but not with ApacheModule

    - by ZokRadonh
    I have written a simple auth script so that Webusers can type in their username and password and my PHP script verifies them by SASL. The SASL Library is initialized by php function sasl_server_init("phpfoo"). So phpfoo.conf in /etc/sasl2/ is used. phpfoo.conf: pwcheck_method: saslauthd mech_list: PLAIN LOGIN log_level: 9 So the SASL library now tries to connect to saslauthd process by socket. saslauthd command line looks like this: /usr/sbin/saslauthd -r -V -a pam -n 5 So saslauthd uses PAM to authenticate. In the php script I have created sasl connection by sasl_server_new("php", null, "myRealm"); The first argument is the servicename. So PAM uses the file /etc/pam.d/php to see for further authentication information. /etc/pam.d/php: auth required pam_mysql.so try_first_pass=0 config_file=/etc/pam.d/mysqlconf.nss account required pam_permit.so session required pam_permit.so mysqlconf.nss has all information that is needed for a useful MySQL Query to user table. All of this works perfectly when I run the script by command line. php ssasl.php But when I call the same script via webbrowser(php apache module) I get an -20 return code (SASL_NOUSER). In /var/log/messages there is May 18 15:27:12 hostname httpd2-prefork: unable to open Berkeley db /etc/sasldb2: No such file or directory I do not have anything with a Berkeley db for authentication with SASL. I think authentication using /etc/sasldb2 is the default setting. In my opinion it does not read my phpfoo.conf file. For some reason the php-apache-module ignores the parameter in sasl_server_init("phpfoo"). My first thought was that there is a permission issue. So back in shell: su -s /bin/bash wwwrun php ssasl.php "Authentication successful". - No file-permission issue. In the source of the sasl-php-extension we can find: PHP_FUNCTION(sasl_server_init) { char *name; int name_len; if (zend_parse_parameters(1 TSRMLS_CC, "s", &name, &name_len) == FAILURE) { return; } if (sasl_server_init(NULL, name) != SASL_OK) { RETURN_FALSE; } RETURN_TRUE; } This is a simple pass through of the string. Are there any differences between the PHP CLI and PHP ApacheModule version that I am not aware of? Anyway, there are some interesting log entries when I run PHP in CLI mode: May 18 15:44:48 hostname php: SQL engine 'mysql' not supported May 18 15:44:48 hostname php: auxpropfunc error no mechanism available May 18 15:44:48 hostname php: _sasl_plugin_load failed on sasl_auxprop_plug_init for plugin: sqlite May 18 15:44:48 hostname php: sql_select option missing May 18 15:44:48 hostname php: auxpropfunc error no mechanism available May 18 15:44:48 hostname php: _sasl_plugin_load failed on sasl_auxprop_plug_init for plugin: sql Those lines are followed by lines of saslauthd and PAM which results in authentication success.(I do not get any of them in ApacheModule mode) Looks like that he is trying auxprop pwcheck before saslauthd. I have no other .conf file in /etc/sasl2. When I change the parameter of sasl_server_init to something other then I get the same error in CLI mode as in ApacheModule mode.

    Read the article

  • Trouble with OpenLayers Styles.

    - by Jenny
    So, tired of always seeing the bright orange default regular polygons, I'm trying to learn to style OpenLayers. I've had some success with: var layer_style = OpenLayers.Util.extend({},OpenLayers.Feature.Vector.style['default']); layer_style.fillColor = "#000000"; layer_style.strokeColor = "#000000"; polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = layer_style; But sine I am drawing my polygons with DrawFeature, my style only takes effect once I've finished drawing, and seeing it snap from bright orange to grey is sort of disconcerting. So, I learned about temporary styles, and tried: var layer_style = new OpenLayers.Style({"default": {fillColor: "#000000"}, "temporary": {fillColor: "#000000"}}) polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = layer_style; This got me a still orange square--until I stopped drawing, when it snapped into completely opaque black. I figured maybe I had to explicitly set the fillOpacity...no dice. Even when I changed both fill colors to be pink and blue, respectively, I still saw only orange and opaque black. I've tried messing with StyleMaps, since I read that if you only add one style to a style map, it uses the default one for everything, including the temporary style. var layer_style = OpenLayers.Util.extend({}, OpenLayers.Feature.Vector.style['default']); var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap(layer_style); polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = style_map; That got me the black opaque square, too. (Even though that layer style works when not given to a map). Passing the map to the layer itself like so: polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer", style_map); Didn't get me anything at all. Orange all the way, even after drawn. polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer", {styleMap: style_map}); Is a lot more succesful: Orange while drawing, translucent black with black outline when drawn. Just like when I didn't use a map. Problem is, still no temporary... So, I tried initializing my map this way: var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({"default": layer_style, "temporary": layer_style}); No opaque square, but no dice for the temporary, either... Still orange snapping to black transparent. Even if I make a new Style (layer_style2), and set temporary to that, still no luck. And no luck with setting "select" style, either. What am I doing wrong? Temporary IS for styling things that are currently being sketched, correct? Is there some other way specific to the drawFeature Controller? Edit: setting extendDefault to be true doesn't seem to help, either... var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({"default": layer_style, "temporary": layer_style}, {"extendDefault": "true"});

    Read the article

  • What Is The Best Database For Delphi Desktop Applications That Supports Stored Procedures?

    - by Cape Cod Gunny
    I started with Turbo Pascal 3, went to TP5, Bought TP6 called Borland the next day and downgraded to TP5.5. Bought Delphi 3, and now have Delphi 5 Enterprise. I sort of lost interest in writing code about 4-5 years ago for two reasons; Spent all day writing ASP & SQL for someone else. PC Techniques magazine went away. I've got a few programs in the shareware market that are solid performers but are in need of serious updating. I love Delphi or did when it was Borland (before Borland bought DBase and all the other crap), I'd like to salvage as much of my D5E code as possible but I doubt I can. I plan on upgrading to Delphi 2010. My next software release needs to interact with a database. I'm very proficient with MS Sql and like to put all of the database code in stored procedures. What is the best database choice that interacts well with Delphi, allows stored procedures and is so easy to deploy that even the Geico gecko could deploy it? 10/25/2009 18:53 PM EST Re-Opened After Reading Install Docs for Delphi 2010 I downloaded a trial version of Delphi 2010 and unzipped the install. I've been reading the install docs included in the package. I started with the install.htm inside the zip package. install.htm wisely tells you to see the following two articles: Installation Notes: http://edn.embarcadero.com/article/39754 Release Notes: http://edn.embarcadero.com/article/39758 the release notes state the following... MSSQL driver requires the installation of the SQL Native Client. SQL Native Client 2008 is required for dbxmss.dll. SQL Native Client 2005 is required for dbxmss9.dll I checked my machine to see if SQL Native Client is installed. Nope. I wasn't done reading the docs so I made a note to install SQL Native Client. I googled dbxmss.dll and dbxmss9.dll and found a very interesting thread on the Embarcadero forums. read thread here. After reading this thread and some careful thought I don't think I will be using Microsoft SQL Express. I can't rely on my customers having the right drivers installed. So, I'm back to looking for a different solution. If I'm selling a $40 product to the general masses I need to have a bulletproof solution that doesn't require my brand new customer to update their machine before my software will work.

    Read the article

  • Validation firing in ASP.NET MVC

    - by rkrauter
    I am lost on this MVC project I am working on. I also read Brad Wilsons article. http://bradwilson.typepad.com/blog/2010/01/input-validation-vs-model-validation-in-aspnet-mvc.html I have this: public class Employee { [Required] public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public string FirstName { get; set; } [Required] public string LastName { get; set; } } and these in a controller: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var emp = GetEmployee(); return View(emp); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, Employee empBack) { var emp = GetEmployee(); if (TryUpdateModel(emp,new string[] { "LastName"})) { Response.Write("success"); } return View(emp); } public Employee GetEmployee() { return new Employee { FirstName = "Tom", LastName = "Jim", ID = 3 }; } and my view has the following: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary() %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.FirstName) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.DisplayFor(model => model.FirstName) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.LastName) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxOrLabelFor(model => model.LastName, true)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.LastName) %> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> Note that the only field editable is the LastName. When I postback, I get back the original employee and try to update it with only the LastName property. But but I see on the page is the following error: •The FirstName field is required. This from what I understand, is because the TryUpdateModel failed. But why? I told it to update only the LastName property. I am using MVC2 RTM Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Lawler's Algorithm Implementation Assistance

    - by Richard Knop
    Here is my implemenation of Lawler's algorithm in PHP (I know... but I'm used to it): <?php $jobs = array(1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6); $jobsSubset = array(2, 5, 6); $n = count($jobs); $processingTimes = array(2, 3, 4, 3, 2, 1); $dueDates = array(3, 15, 9, 7, 11, 20); $optimalSchedule = array(); foreach ($jobs as $j) { $optimalSchedule[] = 0; } $dicreasedCardinality = array(); for ($i = $n; $i >= 1; $i--) { $x = 0; $max = 0; // loop through all jobs for ($j = 0; $j < $i; $j++) { // ignore if $j already is in the $dicreasedCardinality array if (false === in_array($j, $dicreasedCardinality)) { // if the job has no succesor in $jobsSubset if (false === isset($jobs[$j+1]) || false === in_array($jobs[$j+1], $jobsSubset)) { // here I find an array index of a job with the maximum due date // amongst jobs with no sucessor in $jobsSubset if ($x < $dueDates[$j]) { $x = $dueDates[$j]; $max = $j; } } } } // move the job at the end of $optimalSchedule $optimalSchedule[$i-1] = $jobs[$max]; // decrease the cardinality of $jobs $dicreasedCardinality[] = $max; } print_r($optimalSchedule); Now the above returns an optimal schedule like this: Array ( [0] => 1 [1] => 1 [2] => 1 [3] => 3 [4] => 2 [5] => 6 ) Which doesn't seem right to me. The problem might be with my implementation of the algorithm because I am not sure I understand it correctly. I used this source to implement it: http://www.google.com/books?id=aSiBs6PDm9AC&pg=PA166&dq=lawler%27s+algorithm+code&lr=&hl=sk&cd=4#v=onepage&q=&f=false The description there is a little confusing. For example, I didn't quite get how is the subset D defined (I guess it is arbitrary). Could anyone help me out with this? I have been trying to find some sources with simpler explanation of the algorithm but all sources I found were even more complicated (with math proofs and such) so I am stuck with the link above. Yes, this is a homework, if it wasn't obvious. I still have few weeks to crack this but I have spent few days already trying to get how exactly this algorithm works with no success so I don't think I will get any brighter during that time.

    Read the article

  • Setting up NCover for NUnit in FinalBuilder

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I am attempting to set up NCover for usage in my FinalBuilder project, for a .NET 4.0 C# project, but my final coverage output file contains no coverage data. I am using: NCover 3.3.2 NUnit 2.5.4 FinalBuilder 6.3.0.2004 All tools are the latest official as of today. I've finally managed to coax FB into running my unit tests under NCover for the .NET 4.0 project, so I get Tests run: 184, ..., which is correct. However, the final Coverage.xml file output from NCover is almost empty, and looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!-- saved from NCover 3.0 Export url='http://www.ncover.com/' --> <coverage profilerVersion="3.3.2.6211" driverVersion="3.3.2" exportversion="3" viewdisplayname="" startTime="2010-04-22T08:55:33.7471316Z" measureTime="2010-04-22T08:55:35.3462915Z" projectName="" buildid="27c78ffa-c636-4002-a901-3211a0850b99" coveragenodeid="0" failed="false" satisfactorybranchthreshold="95" satisfactorycoveragethreshold="95" satisfactorycyclomaticcomplexitythreshold="20" satisfactoryfunctionthreshold="80" satisfactoryunvisitedsequencepoints="10" uiviewtype="TreeView" viewguid="C:\Dev\VS.NET\LVK.IoC\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug\Coverage.xml" viewfilterstyle="None" viewreportstyle="SequencePointCoveragePercentage" viewsortstyle="Name"> <rebasedpaths /> <filters /> <documents> <doc id="0" excluded="false" url="None" cs="" csa="00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000" om="0" nid="0" /> </documents> </coverage> The output in FB log is: ... ***************** End Program Output ***************** Execution Time: 1,5992 s Coverage Xml: C:\Dev\VS.NET\LVK.IoC\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug\Coverage.xml NCover Success My configuration of the FB step for NCover: NCover what?: NUnit test coverage Command: C:\Program Files (x86)\NUnit 2.5.4\bin\net-2.0\nunit-console.exe Command arguments: LVK.IoC.Tests.dll /noshadow /framework:4.0.30319 /process=single /nothread Note: I've tried with and without the /process and /nothread options Working directory: %FBPROJECTDIR%\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug List of assemblies to profile: %FBPROJECTDIR%\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug\LVK.IoC.dll Note: I've tried just listing the name of the assembly, both with and without the extension. The documentation for the FB step doesn't help, as it only lists minor sentences for each property, and fails to give examples or troubleshooting hints. Since I want to pull the coverage results into NDepend to run build-time analysis, I want that file to contain the information I need. I am also using TestDriven, and if I right-click the solution file and select "Test with NCover", NCover-explorer opens up with coverage data, and if I ask it to show me the folder with coverage files, in there is an .xml file with the same structure as the one above, just with all the data that should be there, so the tools I have is certainly capable of producing it. Has anyone an idea of what I've configured wrong here?

    Read the article

  • xslt broken: pattern does not match

    - by krisvandenbergh
    I'm trying to query an xml file using the following xslt: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:rdf="http://www.w3.org/1999/02/22-rdf-syntax-ns#" xmlns:rdfs="http://www.w3.org/2000/01/rdf-schema#" xmlns:bpmn="http://dkm.fbk.eu/index.php/BPMN_Ontology"> <!-- Participants --> <xsl:template match="/"> <html> <body> <table> <xsl:for-each select="Package/Participants/Participant"> <tr> <td><xsl:value-of select="ParticipantType" /></td> <td><xsl:value-of select="Description" /></td> </tr> </xsl:for-each> </table> </body> </html> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Here's the contents of the xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="xpdl2bpmn.xsl"?> <Package xmlns="http://www.wfmc.org/2008/XPDL2.1" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" Id="25ffcb89-a9bf-40bc-8f50-e5afe58abda0" Name="1 price setting" OnlyOneProcess="false"> <PackageHeader> <XPDLVersion>2.1</XPDLVersion> <Vendor>BizAgi Process Modeler.</Vendor> <Created>2010-04-24T10:49:45.3442528+02:00</Created> <Description>1 price setting</Description> <Documentation /> </PackageHeader> <RedefinableHeader> <Author /> <Version /> <Countrykey>CO</Countrykey> </RedefinableHeader> <ExternalPackages /> <Participants> <Participant Id="008af9a6-fdc0-45e6-af3f-984c3e220e03" Name="customer"> <ParticipantType Type="RESOURCE" /> <Description /> </Participant> <Participant Id="1d2fd8b4-eb88-479b-9c1d-7fe6c45b910e" Name="clerk"> <ParticipantType Type="ROLE" /> <Description /> </Participant> </Participants> </Package> Despite, the simple pattern, the foreach doesn't work. What is wrong with Package/Participants/Participant ? What do I miss here? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Cannot integrate Gallio MBUnit with Team City

    - by Bernard Larouche
    I have been trying to get my MBUnit tests suite to work on Team City for many days now without any success. My solution builds no problem. The program is with my tests. After googling for Gallio integration with Team City I tried many ways to make this thing work and I think I am close but need help. I have included the gallio bin directory to my repository and also on my TC Server. Here is my build runner set up in Team City : Build runner : MSBuild Build file path : Myproject.msbuild Targets : RebuildSolution RunTests Here is Myproject.msbuild file I created and included in the Source control trunk directory : <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <!-- This is needed by MSBuild to locate the Gallio task --> <UsingTask AssemblyFile="C:\Gallio\bin\Gallio.MSBuildTasks.dll" TaskName="Gallio" /> <!-- Specify the tests assemblies --> <ItemGroup> <TestAssemblies Include="C:\_CBL\CBL\CoderForTraders\Source\trunk\UnitTest\DomainModel.Tests\bin\Debug\CBL.CoderForTraders.DomainModel.Tests.dll" /> </ItemGroup> <Target Name="RunTests"> <Gallio IgnoreFailures="false" Assemblies="@(TestAssemblies)" RunnerExtensions="TeamCityExtension,Gallio.TeamCityIntegration"> <!-- This tells MSBuild to store the output value of the task's ExitCode property into the project's ExitCode property --> <Output TaskParameter="ExitCode" PropertyName="ExitCode"/> </Gallio> <Error Text="Tests execution failed" Condition="'$(ExitCode)' != 0" /> </Target> <Target Name="RebuildSolution"> <Message Text="Starting to Build"/> <MSBuild Projects="CoderForTraders.sln" Properties="Configuration=Debug" Targets="Rebuild" /> </Target> </Project> Here are the errors displayed by Team City : error MSB4064: The "Assemblies" parameter is not supported by the "Gallio" task. Verify the parameter exists on the task, and it is a settable public instance property error MSB4063: The "Gallio" task could not be initialized with its input parameters. Thanks for your help

    Read the article

  • jQuery and XML (with CDATA)

    - by P..
    I've seen the post that deal with this issue but I still can't solve my issue: I've got XML with CDATA and when I parse the XML, it includes the CDATA (which I don't want). XML sample: <mainnav> <nav path="/" xmlpath="home.xml" key="footer" navigator=""> <display><![CDATA[Home]]></display> <title><![CDATA[Home]]></title> </nav> <nav path="/nav1/" xmlpath="nav1.xml" key="primary" navigator="primary" iconid="0"> <display><![CDATA[Nav 1]]></display> <title><![CDATA[Nav 1]]></title> <overdesc><![CDATA[test nav 1]]></overdesc> <sub path="/nav1/sub1/" xmlpath="nav1/sub1.xml" key="sub"> <display><![CDATA[sub 1<br />of nav 1]]></display> <title><![CDATA[sub 1<br />of nav 1]]></title> </sub> </nav> <nav path="/nav1/" xmlpath="nav2.xml" key="primary" navigator="primary" iconid="1"> <display><![CDATA[Nav 2]]></display> <title><![CDATA[Nav 2]]></title> <overdesc><![CDATA[test nav 2]]></overdesc> <sub path="/nav2/sub1/" xmlpath="nabv2/sub1.xml" key="sub"> <display><![CDATA[sub 1<br />of nav 2]]></display> <title><![CDATA[sub 1<br />of nav2]]></title> </sub> </nav> </mainnav> jQuery: $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "site_xml/config.xml", //contentType: "text/xml", dataType: ($.browser.msie) ? "xml" : "text/xml", success: parseXML, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(errorThrown); } });}); function parseXML(xml) { $(xml).find('nav').each(function(){ if ($(this).attr("key")=="primary") { // this is a primary nav item; var title = $.trim( $(this).find('title').text() ); alert(title); $("#output").append(title); //nothing showing up in my output DIV, presumably due to the CDATA tags? } }); }

    Read the article

  • How to Connect Crystal Reports to MySQL directly by C# code without DSN or a DataSet

    - by Yanko Hernández Alvarez
    How can I connect a Crystal Report (VS 2008 basic) to a MySQL DB without using a DSN or a preload DataSet using C#? I need install the program on several places, so I must change the connection parameters. I don't want to create a DSN on every place, nor do I want to preload a DataSet and pass it to the report engine. I use nhibernate to access the database, so to create and fill the additional DS would take twice the work and additional maintenance later. I think the best option would be to let the crystal reports engine to connect to MySQL server by itself using ODBC. I managed to create the connection in the report designer (VS2008) using the Database Expert, creating an ODBC(RDO) connection and entering this connection string "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};SERVER=myserver.mydomain" and in the "Next" page filling the "User ID", "Password" and "Database" parameters. I didn't fill the "Server" parameter. It worked. As a matter of fact, if you use the former connection string, it doesn't matter what you put on the "Server" parameter, it seems the parameter is unused. On the other hand, if you use "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver}" as a connection string and later fill the "Server" parameter with the FQDN of the server, the connection doesn't work. How can I do that by code? All the examples I've seen till now, use a DSN or the DataSet method. I saw the same question posted but for PostgreSQL and tried to adapt it to mysql, but so far, no success. The first method: Rp.Load(); Rp.DataSourceConnections[0].SetConnection("DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};SERVER=myserver.mydomain", "database", "user", "pass"); Rp.ExportToDisk(ExportFormatType.PortableDocFormat, "report.pdf"); raise an CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.LogOnException during ExportToDisk Message="Logon failed.\nDetails: IM002:[Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified.\rError in File temporal file path.rpt:\nUnable to connect: incorrect log on parameters. the InnerException is an System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException with the same message and no InnerException The "no default driver specified" makes me wonder if the server parameter is unused here too (see above). In that case: How can I specify the connection string? I haven't tried the second method because it doesn't apply. Does anybody know the solution?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Ajax (beforeSend and complete) working properly on FireFox but not on IE8 and Chrome

    - by Farhan Zia
    I am using jQuery ajax version 1.4.1 in my MVC application (though the issue I am discussing was same with the old jQuery version 3.2.1) as well, to check during customer registration if the username is already registered. As the user clicks on the "Check Availibility" button, I am showing a busy image in place of the check button (actually hiding the check button and showing the image) while checking the availibility on the server and then displaying a message. It is a Sync call (async: false) and I used beforeSend: and complete: to show and hide the busy image and the check button. This thing is working well on Firefox but in IE 8 and Chrome, neither the busy image appear nor the check button hides rather the check button remained pressed as the whole thing has hanged. The available and not available messages appear correctly though. Below is the code: HTML in a User Control (ascx): (i have replaced the angular braces with square below) [div id="available"]This Username is Available [div id="not_available"]This Username is not available [input id="txtUsername" name="txtUsername" type="text" size="50" /]  [button id="check" name="check" type="button"]Check Availability[/button] [img id="busy" src="/Content/Images/busy.gif" /] On the top of this user control, I am linking an external javascript file that has the following code: $(document).ready(function() { $('img#busy').hide(); $('div#available').hide(); $('div#not_available').hide(); $("button#check").click(function() { var available = checkUsername($("input#txtUsername").val()); if (available == "1") { $("div#available").show(); $("div#not_available").hide(); } else { $("div#available").hide(); $("div#not_available").show(); } }); }); function checkUsername(username) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/SomeController/SomeAction", data: { "id": username }, timeout: 3000, async: false, beforeSend: function() { $("button#check").hide(); $("img#busy").show(); }, complete: function() { $("button#check").show(); $("img#busy").hide(); }, cache: false, success: function(result) { return result; }, error: function(error) { $("img#busy").hide(); $("button#check").show(); alert("Some problems have occured. Please try again later: " + error); } }); }

    Read the article

  • Jason/ajax web service call get redirected (302 Object moved) and then 500 unknow webservice name

    - by user646499
    I have been struggling with this for some times.. I searched around but didnt get a solution yet. This is only an issue on production server. In my development environment, everything works just fine. I am using JQuery/Ajax to update product information based on product's Color attribute. for example, a product has A and B color, the price for color A is different from color B. When user choose different color, the price information is updated as well. What I did is to first add a javascript function: function updateProductVariant() { var myval = jQuery("#<%=colorDropDownList.ClientID%").val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById", data: "{variantId:'" + myval + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { var obj = jQuery.parseJSON(response.d); jQuery("#<%=lblStockAvailablity.ClientID%>").text(obj.StockMessage); jQuery(".price .productPrice").text(obj.CurrentPrice); jQuery(".price .oldProductPrice").text(obj.OldPrice); } }); } Then I can register the dropdown list's 'onclick' event point to function 'updateProductVariant' GetVariantInfoById is a WebGet method in the codebehind, its also very straightforward: [WebMethod] public static string GetVariantInfoById(string variantId) { int id = Convert.ToInt32(variantId); ProductVariant productVariant = IoC.Resolve().GetProductVariantById(id); string stockMessage = productVariant.FormatStockMessage(); StringBuilder oBuilder = new StringBuilder(); oBuilder.Append("{"); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}"",", "StockMessage", stockMessage); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}"",", "OldPrice", PriceHelper.FormatPrice(productVariant.OldPrice)); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}""", "CurrentPrice", PriceHelper.FormatPrice(productVariant.Price)); oBuilder.Append("}"); return oBuilder.ToString(); } All these works fine on my local box, but if i upload to the production server, catching the traffic using fiddler, /Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById becomes a Get call instead of a POST On my local box, HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: ASP.NET Development Server/10.0.0.0 Date: Thu, 03 Mar 2011 09:00:08 GMT X-AspNet-Version: 4.0.30319 Cache-Control: private, max-age=0 Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 117 Connection: Close But when deployed on the host, it becomes HTTP/1.1 302 Found Proxy-Connection: Keep-Alive Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Length: 186 Via: 1.1 ADV-TMG-01 Date: Thu, 03 Mar 2011 08:59:12 GMT Location: http://www.pocomaru.com/Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById/default.aspx Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET then of course, then it returns 500 error titleUnknown web method GetVariantInfoById/default.aspx.Parameter name: methodName Can someone please take a look? I think its some configuration in the production server which automatially redirects my webservice call to some other URL, but since the product server is out of my control, i am seeking a local fix for this. Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • webservice method is not accessible from jquery ajax

    - by Abhisheks.net
    Hello everyone.. i am using jqery ajax to calling a web service method but is is not doing and genrating error.. the code is here for jquery ajax in asp page var indexNo = 13; //pass the value $(document).ready(function() { $("#a1").click(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "myWebService.asmx/GetNewDownline", data: "{'indexNo':user_id}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { $("#divResult").text(msg.d); } }); }); }); and this is the is web service method using System; using System.Collections; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Services; using System.Web.Services.Protocols; using System.Xml.Linq; using System.Data; using System.Web.Script.Serialization; using TC.MLM.DAL; using TC.MLM.BLL.AS; /// /// Summary description for myWebService /// [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class myWebService : System.Web.Services.WebService { public myWebService() { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public string HelloWorld() { return "Hello World"; } [WebMethod] public string GetNewDownline(string indexNo) { IndexDetails indexDtls = new IndexDetails(); indexDtls.IndexNo = "13"; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ds = TC.MLM.BLL.AS.Index.getIndexDownLineByIndex(indexDtls); indexNoDownline[] newDownline = new indexNoDownline[ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count]; for (int count = 0; count <= ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count - 1; count++) { newDownline[count] = new indexNoDownline(); newDownline[count].adjustedid = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["AdjustedID"].ToString(); newDownline[count].name = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["name"].ToString(); newDownline[count].structPostion = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["Struct_Position"].ToString(); newDownline[count].indexNo = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["IndexNo"].ToString(); newDownline[count].promoterId = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["PromotorID"].ToString(); newDownline[count].formNo = ds.Tables[0].Rows[count]["FormNo"].ToString(); } JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new JavaScriptSerializer(); JavaScriptSerializer js = new JavaScriptSerializer(); string resultedDownLine = js.Serialize(newDownline); return resultedDownLine; } public class indexNoDownline { public string adjustedid; public string name; public string indexNo; public string structPostion; public string promoterId; public string formNo; } } please help me something.

    Read the article

  • jQuery DatePicker - How to highlight certain days every month?

    - by Sergio
    Hi I have a jquery datepicker which is renders the current date by default as a full calendar. Before this is rendered I get a list of days from the server via ajax of days that need to be highlighted for the current month. The code for this is as follows: $.get("Note/GetActionDates/?orgID=" + orgID + "&month=" + month +"&year=" + year, null, function(result) { RenderCalendar(result); }, "json"); function RenderCalendar(dates) { $("#actionCal").datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy', beforeShowDay: function(thedate) { var theday = thedate.getDate(); if ($.inArray(theday, dates) == -1) { return [true, "", ""]; } else { return [true, "specialDate", "Actions Today"]; } } }); } This is all good, but I would like the highlighted dates to update when the user clicks to a different month. I can modify the jquery datepicker initialise code with the following code: onChangeMonthYear: function(year, month, inst) { //get new array of dates for that month $.get("Note/GetActionDates/?orgID=" + orgID + "&month=" + month + "&year=" + year, null, function(result) { RenderCalendar(result); }, "json"); } But this doesn't seem to work. Could anyone show me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks! :) UPDATE - Working Code Thanks for the help! I have tweaked the code from petersendidit as follows and it now works. Gonna add a little more code to remove duplicate dates from the dates array but aside from that its all good. $("#actionCal").datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yyyy', beforeShowDay: function(thedate) { var theday = thedate.getDate() + "/" + (thedate.getMonth() + 1) + "/" + thedate.getFullYear(); if ($.inArray(theday, actionCalDates) == -1) { return [true, "", ""]; } else { return [true, "specialDate", "Actions Today"]; } }, onChangeMonthYear: function(year, month, inst) { dateCount = 0; getDates(orgID, month, year); } }); function getDates(orgID, month, year) { dateCount += 1; if (dateCount < 4) { $.ajax({ url: "Note/GetActionDates/", data: { 'orgID': orgID, 'month': month, 'year': year }, type: "GET", dataType: "json", success: function(result) { actionCalDates = actionCalDates.concat(result); getDates(orgID, month + 1, year); getDates(orgID, month - 1, year); } }); } }

    Read the article

  • SmoApplication.EnumAvailableSqlServers returns server names but not instance names (but only on one

    - by Matma
    Hi, There are a number of questions about this and a number of possible causes and thus far ive tried them all with no success. situation: i have an app that needs a db to work, onstartup it does a SmoApplication.EnumAvailableSqlServers(false) to get all the instances on the network, shows the user a dropdown, they pick one and i go connect to my db on that server. all good problem: this works on my machine, the guys next to me and others. HOWEVER it doesnt work on one of the tech guys machines (and potentially others). we are all on the same network domain, physically connected (no wireless), all logged on with network user names, all running the same sql express 2005 sp3, though im using win7 the other guys are running xppro. MSSMS on all machines can see all the instances when you select "Browse for more". yet on this one tech guys machine it lists his local instance (since its hardcoded to) and all the network servers, but has no instances names? i.e. .sqlexpress server1 server2 server3 server4 but on my machine and others we get: .sqlexpress server1/sqlexpress server2/sqlexpress server3/sqlexpress server4/sqlexpress the code im using: ' .... some code ' this populates my datatable dtServers = SmoApplication.EnumAvailableSqlServers(False) '.... some code '.... then later i ShowServers(...) Private dtServers As DataTable = Nothing Private Sub ShowServers(ByVal SQLInstance As String) ' Create a DataTable where we enumerate the available servers cmbServer.Items.Clear() cmbDatabase.Items.Clear() ' If there are any (network listed) servers at all If (dtServers.Rows.Count > 0) Then ' Loop through each server in the DataTable For Each drServer As DataRow In dtServers.Rows ' Add the name to the combobox cmbServer.Items.Add(drServer("Server") & "\" & drServer("Instance")) Next End If 'To make life simpler (add the local instance of sql express): cmbServer.Items.Add(SQLInstance) ' select first item If cmbServer.Items.Count > 0 Then cmbServer.SelectedIndex = 0 End If End Sub now i know this uses udp and its not 100%, but how come his machine is 100% consistent in not showing remote instances, and mine is 100 consistent showing them. even a udl file on his desktop cant see them, regarldess of provider i choose to use? some of the suggestions are to uninstall and re-install, but that doesnt seem like a solution as i (and most others) can see the instances, but one guy cant. this suggests its not the remote sql server but rather the local machine. Notes: ive tried firewall 1433, 1434 i can connect using a udl with full SERVERNAME\INSTANCENAME the browser service is running locally and on the remote machine ive tried stopping and restarting both the browser service on the local and remote machine. Ideas?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC partial view does not call my Action

    - by Johannes
    I just started building a small simple Website on ASP.NET MVC, in a page I am using a Partial view, the Partial View represents a simple Form which should be submitted on button click, and If I click the first Time it is submitted with success and does return my partial view with my validation Messages (if the content is invalid) but if I wish to try again the Action isn't called again. Any Idea? View: <form action="<%= Url.Action("ChangePassword", "Account") %>" method="post" id="jform"> <div> <fieldset> <legend>Account Information</legend> <p> <label for="currentPassword">Current password:</label> <%= Html.Password("currentPassword") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("currentPassword") %> </p> <p> <label for="newPassword">New password:</label> <%= Html.Password("newPassword") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("newPassword") %> </p> <p> <label for="confirmPassword">Confirm new password:</label> <%= Html.Password("confirmPassword") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirmPassword") %> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Change Password" /> </p> </fieldset> </div> </form> <!--<% } %>--> </div> <script> $(function() { $('#jform').submit(function() { $('#jform').ajaxSubmit({ target: '#FmChangePassword' }); return false; }); }); /*$(document).ready(function() { $('#jform').live('submit', function() { $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function(data) { $("#jform").replaceWith($(data)); }); return false; }); });*/ </script> Part of the Controller: if (!ValidateChangePassword(currentPassword, newPassword, confirmPassword)) { return PartialView(ViewData); }

    Read the article

  • JSF Navigation issue Facelets and Beans

    - by ortho
    Hi, I have an issue with navigation in my simple jsf system. I have MainBean that has two methods: public String register() and public String login(). I have played with faces-config.xml for several hours and I feel like I miss something very important because I think like I have tried all simple solutions so far :). I have added the mysql connector (jdbc) to Tomcat's lib folder and I am able to register the table to mySQL databse. It even allows my users to log in to the page. The only problem is that I can't use navigation in any other page than login.xhtml. Seems like navigation is only active on this one. I tried to use * but is no joy. I am sure that there is a simple fix for that and someone will come up with correct solution soon. Let's skip all the mysql part and try to fix the navigation issue please. faces-config.xml: http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-facesconfig_1_2.xsd" version="1.2" com.sun.facelets.FaceletViewHandler mainBean dk.itu.beans.MainBean session registerBean dk.itu.beans.RegisterBean session /login.xhtml success /welcome.xhtml failure /login_failed.xhtml sign /register.xhtml /login_failed.xhtml back /login.xhtml Here the last navigation-rule from login_failed.xhtml does not work at all. login.xhtml (which is the main - starting view): login_failed.xhtml: Here I tried many options. I used action="#{mainBean.register})" method that returns "sign" string and none of these worked. There is one more file (not specified in faces-config.xml file, because did not work either - but going from login.xhtml by button works fine. I tried to manage navigation from login_failed.xhtml first, then I will apply the same rool for registration to come back to login page when customer registers his nick name). register.xhtml: Basicaly mainBean.register now calls the database and returns string, but obviously it doesn't navigate to any view (but gives an entry to database). I believe it is simple fix for most of the experienced web developers and any help will be greately appreciated. I use eclipse, tomcat 6 and Widows Vista if that helps :) Thank you in advance. Kindest regards.

    Read the article

  • C# searching for new Tool for the tool box, how to template this code

    - by Nix
    All i have something i have been trying to do for a while and have yet to find a good strategy to do it, i am not sure C# can even support what i am trying to do. Example imagine a template like this, repeated in manager code overarching cocept function Returns a result consisting of a success flag and error list. public Result<Boolean> RemoveLocation(LocationKey key) { List<Error> errorList = new List<Error>(); Boolean result = null; try{ result = locationDAO.RemoveLocation(key); }catch(UpdateException ue){ //Error happened less pass this back to the user! errorList = ue.ErrorList; } return new Result<Boolean>(result, errorList); } Looking to turn it into a template like the below where Do Something is some call (preferably not static) that returns a Boolean. I know i could do this in a stack sense, but i am really looking for a way to do it via object reference. public Result<Boolean> RemoveLocation(LocationKey key) { var magic = locationDAO.RemoveLocation(key); return ProtectedDAOCall(magic); } public Result<Boolean> CreateLocation(LocationKey key) { var magic = locationDAO.CreateLocation(key); return ProtectedDAOCall(magic); } public Result<Boolean> ProtectedDAOCall(Func<..., bool> doSomething) { List<Error> errorList = new List<Error>(); Boolean result = null; try{ result = doSomething(); }catch(UpdateException ue){ //Error happened less pass this back to the user! errorList = ue.ErrorList; } return new Result<Boolean>(result, errorList); } If there is any more information you may need let me know. I am interested to see what someone else can come up with. Marc solution applied to the code above public Result<Boolean> CreateLocation(LocationKey key) { LocationDAO locationDAO = new LocationDAO(); return WrapMethod(() => locationDAO.CreateLocation(key)); } public Result<Boolean> RemoveLocation(LocationKey key) { LocationDAO locationDAO = new LocationDAO(); return WrapMethod(() => locationDAO.RemoveLocation(key)); } static Result<T> WrapMethod<T>(Func<Result<T>> func) { try { return func(); } catch (UpdateException ue) { return new Result<T>(default(T), ue.Errors); } }

    Read the article

  • How do I use .htaccess RewriteRule to change underscores to dashes

    - by soopadoubled
    I'm working on a site, and its CMS used to save new page urls using the underscore character as a word seperator. Despite the fact that Google now treats underscore as a word seperator, the SEO powers that be are demanding the site use dashes instead. This is very easy to do within the CMS, and I can of course change all existing URLs saved in the MySQL database that serves the CMS. My problem lies in writing a .htaccess rule that will 301 old style underscore seperated links to the new style hyphenated verstion. I had success using the answers to this Stack Overflow question on other sites, using: RewriteRule ^([^_]*)_([^_]*_.*) $1-$2 [N] RewriteRule ^([^_]*)_([^_]*)$ /$1-$2 [L,R=301] However this CMS site uses a lot of existing rules to produce clean URLs, and I can't get this working in conjunction with the existing rule set. .htaccess currently looks like this: Options FollowSymLinks # RewriteOptions MaxRedirects=50 RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\.mydomain\.co\.uk$ [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://www.mydomain.co.uk/$1 [R=301,L] #trailing slash enforcement RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !# RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !(.*)/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.mydomain.co.uk/$1/ [L,R=301] RewriteRule ^test/([0-9]+)(/)?$ test_htaccess.php?year=$1 [nc] RewriteRule ^index(/)?$ index.php RewriteRule ^department/([^/]*)/([^/]*)/([^/]*)(/)?$ ecom/index.php?action=ecom.details&mode=$1&$2=$3 [nc] RewriteRule ^department/([^/]*)(/)?$ ecom/index.php?action=ecom.details&mode=$1 [nc] RewriteRule ^product/([^/]*)/([^/]*)/([^/]*)(/)?$ ecom/index.php?action=ecom.pdetails&mode=$1&$2=$3 [nc] RewriteRule ^product/([^/]*)(/)?$ ecom/index.php?action=ecom.pdetails&mode=$1 [nc] RewriteRule ^content/([^/]*)(/)?$ ecom/index.php?action=ecom.cdetails&mode=$1 [nc] RewriteRule ([^/]*)/action/([^/]*)/([^/]*)/([^/]*)/([^/]*)(/)?$ $1/index.php?action=$2&mode=$3&$4=$5 [nc] RewriteRule ([^/]*)/action/([^/]*)/([^/]*)(/)?$ $1/index.php?action=$2&mode=$3 [nc] RewriteRule ([^/]*)/action/([^/]*)(/)?$ $1/index.php?action=$2 [nc] RewriteRule ^eaction/([^/]*)/([^/]*)/([^/]*)/([^/]*)(/)?$ ecom/index.php?action=$1&mode=$2&$3=$4 [nc] RewriteRule ^eaction/([^/]*)/([^/]*)(/)?$ ecom/index.php?action=$1&mode=$2 [nc] RewriteRule ^action/([^/]*)/([^/]*)(/)?$ index.php?action=$1&mode=$2 [nc] RewriteRule ^sid/([^/]*)(/)?$ index.php?sid=$1 [nc] ## Error Handling ## #RewriteRule ^error/([^/]*)(/)?$ index.php?action=error&mode=$1 [nc] # ----------------------------------- Content Section ------------------------------ # #RewriteRule ^([^/]*)(/)?$ index.php?action=cms&mode=$1 [nc] RewriteRule ^accessibility(/)?$ index.php?action=cms&mode=accessibility RewriteRule ^terms(/)?$ index.php?action=cms&mode=conditions RewriteRule ^privacy(/)?$ index.php?action=cms&mode=privacy RewriteRule ^memberpoints(/)?$ index.php?action=cms&mode=member_points RewriteRule ^contactus(/)?$ index.php?action=contactus RewriteRule ^sitemap(/)?$ index.php?action=sitemap ErrorDocument 404 /index.php?action=error&mode=content ExpiresDefault "access plus 3 days" All page URLS are in one of the 3 following formats: http://www.mydomain.com/department/some_page_address/ http://www.mydomain.com/product/some_page_address/ http://www.mydomain.com/content/some_page_address/ I'm sure I am missing something obvious, but at this level my regex and mod_rewrite skills clearly aren't up to par. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • UTF8 encoding not working when using ajax.

    - by Ronedog
    I recently changed some of my pages to be displayed via ajax and I am having some confusion as to why the utf8 encoding is now displaying a question mark inside of a box, whereas before it wasn't. Fore example. The oringal page was index.php. charset was explicitly set to utf8 and is in the <head>. I then used php to query the database Heres is the original index.php page: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title>Title here</title> </head> <body class='body_bgcolor' > <div id="main_container"> <?php Data displayed via php was simply a select statement that output the HTML. ?> </div> However, when I made the change to add a menu that populated the "main_container" via ajax all the utf8 encoding stopped working. Here's the new code: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title>Title here</title> </head> <body class='body_bgcolor' > <a href="#" onclick="display_html('about_us');"> About Us </a> <div id="main_container"></div> The "display_html()" function calls the javascript page which uses jquery ajax call to retrieve the html stored inside a php page, then places the html inside the div with an id of "main_container". I'm setting the charset in jquery to be utf8 like: $.ajax({ async: false, type: "GET", url: url, contentType: "charset=utf-8", success: function(data) { $("#main_container").html(data); } }); What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430  | Next Page >