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  • .NET Working with Locking and Threads

    - by aherrick
    Work on this small test application to learn threading/locking. I have the following code, I would think that the line should only write to console once. However it doesn't seem to be working as expected. Any thoughts on why? What I'm trying to do is add this Lot object to a List, then if any other threads try and hit that list, it would block. Am i completely misusing lock here? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { int threadCount = 10; //spin up x number of test threads Thread[] threads = new Thread[threadCount]; Work w = new Work(); for (int i = 0; i < threadCount; i++) { threads[i] = new Thread(new ThreadStart(w.DoWork)); } for (int i = 0; i < threadCount; i++) { threads[i].Start(); } // don't let the console close Console.ReadLine(); } } public class Work { List<Lot> lots = new List<Lot>(); private static readonly object thisLock = new object(); public void DoWork() { Lot lot = new Lot() { LotID = 1, LotNumber = "100" }; LockLot(lot); } private void LockLot(Lot lot) { // i would think that "Lot has been added" should only print once? lock (thisLock) { if(!lots.Contains(lot)) { lots.Add(lot); Console.WriteLine("Lot has been added"); } } } }

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  • How to call postback using javascript on ASP.NET form

    - by Anton
    I have a web form with textbox and button. I want after "ENTER" key click on textbox postbak form. I am using next code: onkeypress=" if(event.keyCode==13) { alert(2); WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions('ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$btnSearch', '', true, '', '', false, false)); alert(2); return false;} where WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions('ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$btnSearch', '', true, '', '', false, false)); is javascript code for button event onclick. I get two alerts, but postback doesnot happen. Any ideas what is wrong?

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  • How to split string in group in vb.net

    - by amol kadam
    Hi. i'm amol kadam,I want to know how to split string in two part.My string is in Time format (12:12).& I want to seperate this in hour & minute format.the datatype for all variables are string. for hour variable used strTimeHr & for minute strTimeMin .I tried below code but their was a exception "Index and length must refer to a location within the string. Parameter name: length" If Not (objDS.Tables(0).Rows(0)("TimeOfAccident") Is Nothing Or objDS.Tables(0).Rows(0)("TimeOfAccident") Is System.DBNull.Value) Then strTime = objDS.Tables(0).Rows(0)("TimeOfAccident") 'strTime taking value 12:12 index = strTime.IndexOf(":") 'index taking value 2 lastIndex = strTime.Length 'Lastindex taking value 5 strTimeHr = strTime.Substring(0, index) 'strTime taking value 12 correctly strTimeMin = strTime.Substring(index + 1, lastIndex) 'BUT HERE IS PROBLEM OCCURE strTimeMin Doesn't taking any value Me.NumUpDwHr.Text = strTimeHr Me.NumUpDwMin.Text = strTimeMin End If

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  • PRG in ASP.NET MVC but with object data transferred to the redirected action

    - by mare
    Following Post-Redirect-Get pattern as described in various spots but maybe in most detail here by Stephen Walter I want to use RedirectToAction but it does not accept a parameter for sending object to it. I can only send route values either as an object or as an RouteValueDictionary. So currently I send object ID and type and pull the object out of the datastore again in the action to which I redirected (like Results). // redirect to confirm view return RedirectToAction("ChangeSuccess", "Redirect", new { slug = tabgroup.Slug, contentType = tabgroup.ContentType }); But I would like to send an object there because I already have it in my updating controller action so I don't need to pull it out again. Is that possible somehow?

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  • Asp.Net(C#) Jquery Ajax with WebMethod In Public Method Call

    - by oraclee
    Hi All; Aspx Page: $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnn").click(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "TestPage.aspx/emp", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { } }); }); }); CodeBehind: public void grdload() { GridView1.DataSource = GetEmployee("Select * from Employee"); GridView1.DataBind(); } [WebMethod] public static void emp() { TestPage re = new TestPage(); re.grdload(); } I Can't Gridview Data Load ? How To Make GridView Data Load? Thank You

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  • ASP.NET MVC - PartialView not refreshing

    - by Billy Logan
    Hello Everyone, I have a view that uses a javascript callback to reload a partial view. For whatever reason the contents of the partial class do not refresh even though i can step through the entire process and see the page being recalled and populated. Any reason why the page would not display? Code is as follows: <div id="big_image_content"> <% Html.RenderPartial("ZoomImage", Model); %> </div> This link should reload the div above: <a href="javascript:void(0)" onclick="$('#big_image_content').load('/ShopDetai/ZoomImage);" title="<%= shape.Shape %>" alt="<%= shape.Shape %>"> <img src="http://images.rugs-direct.com/<%= shape.Image.ToLower() %>" width="40" alt="<%= shape.Shape %>"> </a> partial view(ZoomImage.ascx) simplified for now, but still doesn't load: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<RugsDirect.Data.ItemDetailsModel>" %> <%= Model.Category.ToLower()%> And finally the controller side of things: public ActionResult ZoomImage() { try { ItemDetailsModel model = GetMainImageContentModel(); return PartialView("ZoomImage", model); } catch (Exception ex) { //send the error email ExceptionPolicy.HandleException(ex, "Exception Policy"); //redirect to the error page return RedirectToAction("ViewError", "Shop"); } } Again, i can step through this entire process and all seems to be working accept for the page not reloading. I can even break on the <%= Model.Category.ToLower()% of the partial view, but it will not be displayed. Thanks in advance, Billy

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  • Having two ODP.NET (ODAC) versions in the same server

    - by vizcaynot
    Hello: Some months ago, a colleague of mine installed ODAC 11.106.21 in a server using XCOPY and then he developed many applications that use this client without problems (in test and production windows servers). Past week, I developed an application under ODAC 11.1.07.20. When I asked him to install these new ODAC version using XCOPY in a different folder and then include my application in the test server, he answered me that I should use ODAC 11.106.21 because he could have troubles with his applications. So I would like to know: 1) If it is really possible to have two different ODAC versions in one server. 2) If the answer is positive, how can I firmly ensure to my colleague that he will not have troubles with his applications? 3) If the answer is positive, is this necessary to do some kind of configuration in the server? Thanks!!

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  • Select All CheckBoxes in GridView ASP.NET using JQuery

    - by dexter
    I have checkBoxes in my Gridview templete columns called "Category A" and "Category B". I want Select-All functionality, i.e. when the user checks the Select-All check Box in category A column, all the checkboxes must get checked under that column. Same for Category B. I am trying with the code below. The problem with my code is, it selects all the check boxes in the entire gridview, "Category A" as well as "Category B"s checkboxes. But, I want only checkboxes selected under the same column. function SelectAllCheckboxesA(chk) { $('#<%=gvSurveys.ClientID %>').find("input:checkbox").each(function() { if (this != chk) { if ($(this).hasClass('CatA') != false) { this.checked = chk.checked; } } else { alert($(this)); } }); } <asp:GridView ID="gvSurveys" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" AllowSorting="True" Width="1500px"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate>Category A <asp:CheckBox ID="chkSelectAllCatA" runat="server" Visible="false" onclick="javascript:SelectAllCheckboxesA(this);" CssClass="SACatA" /> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkCatA" runat="server" Enabled="false" CssClass="CatA" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> Category B <asp:CheckBox ID="chkSelectAllCatB" runat="server" Visible="false" CssClass="CatB" onclick="javascript:SelectAllCheckboxesB(this);" /> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkCatB" runat="server" Enabled="false" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView>

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  • .net code readability and maintainability

    - by george9170
    There Currently is a local debate as to which code is more readability We have one programmer who comes from a c background and when that programmer codes it looks like string foo = "bar"; if (foo[foo.Length - 1] == 'r') { } We have another programmer that doesn't like this methodology and would rather use if (foo.EndsWith("r")) { } which way of doing these types of operations is better?

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  • .net MVC RenderPartial renders information that is not in the model

    - by Andreas
    Hi, I have a usercontrol that is rendering a list of items. Each row contains a unique id in a hidden field, a text and a delete button. When clicking on the delete button I use jquery ajax to call the controller method DeleteCA (seen below). DeleteCA returns a new list of items that replaces the old list. [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult DeleteCA(CAsViewModel CAs, Guid CAIdToDelete) { int indexToRemove = CAs.CAList.IndexOf(CAs.CAList.Single(m => m.Id == CAIdToDelete)); CAs.CAList.RemoveAt(indexToRemove); return PartialView("EditorTemplates/CAs", CAs); } I have checked that DeleteCA is really removing the correct item. The modified list of CAs passed to PartialView no longer contains the deleted item. Something weird happens when the partial view is rendered. The number of items in the list is reduced but it is always the last element that is removed from the list. The rendered items does not correspond to the items in the list/model sent to PartialView. In the usercontrol file (ascx) I'm using both Model.CAList and lambda expression m = m.CAList. How is it possible for the usercontrol to render stuff that is not in the model sent to PartialView? Thanx Andreas

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  • Correct way to edit and update complex viewmodel objects using asp.net-mvc2 and entity framework

    - by jslatts
    I have a table in my database with a one to many relationship to another table: ParentObject ID Name Description ChildObject ID Name Description ParentObjectID AnotherObjectID The objects are mapped into Entity Framework and exposed through a data access class. It seemed like ViewModels are recommended when the data to be displayed greatly differs from the domain object, so I created a ViewModel as follows: public class ViewModel { public IList<ParentObject> ParentObjects { get; set; } public ParentObject selectedObject { get; set; } public IList<ChildObject> ChildObjects { get; set; } } I have a view that displays a list of ParentObjects and when clicked will allow a ChildObject to be modified saved. <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <table> <% foreach (var parent in Model.ParentObjects) { %> <tr> <td> ObjectID [<%= Html.Encode(parent.ID)%>] </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(parent.Name)%> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(parent.Description)%> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table> <% if (Model.ParentObject != null) { %> <div> Name:<br /> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.ParentObject.Name) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ParentObject.Name, "*")%> </div> <div> Description:<br /> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.ParentObject.Description) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ParentObject.Description, "*")%> </div> <div> Child Objects </div> <% for (int i = 0; i < Model.ParentObject.ChildObjects.Count(); i++) { %> <div> <%= Html.DisplayTextFor(sd => sd.ChildObjects[i].Name) %> </div> <div> <%= Html.HiddenFor(sd => sd.ChildObjects[i].ID )%> <%= Html.TextBoxFor( sd => sd.ChildObjects[i].Description) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(sd => sd.ChildObjects[i].Description, "*") %> </div> <% } } } %> This all works fine. My question is around the best way to update the EF objects and persist the changes back to the database. I initially tried: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(ViewModel viewModel) { ParentObject parent = myRepository.GetParentObjectByID(viewModel.SelectedObject.ID); if ((!ModelState.IsValid) || !TryUpdateModel(parent, "SelectedObject", new[] { "Name", "Description" })) { || !TryUpdateModel(parent.ChildObjects, "ChildObjects", new[] { "Name", "Description" })) { //Code to handle failure and return the current model snipped return View(viewModel); } myRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Edit"); } When I try to save a change to the child object, I get this exception: Entities in 'MyEntities.ChildObject' participate in the 'FK_ChildObject_AnotherObject' relationship. 0 related 'AnotherObject' were found. 1 'AnotherObject' is expected. Investigation on StackOverflow and generally googling led me to this blog post that seems to describe my problem: TryUpdateModel() does not correctly handle nested collections. Apparently, (and stepping through the debugger confirms this) it creates a new ChildObject instead of associating with the EF objects from my instantiated context. My hacky work around is this: if (viewModel.ChildObjects.Count > 0) { foreach (ChildObject modelChildObject in viewModel.ChildObjects) { ChildObject childToUpdate = ParentObject.ChildObject.Where(a => a.ID == modelChildObject.ID).First(); childToUpdate.Name = modelChildObject.Name; } } This seems to work fine. My question to you good folks: Is there correct way to do this? I tried following the suggestion for making a custom model binder per the blog link I posted above but it didn't work (there was an issue with reflection) and I needed to get something going ASAP. PS - I tried to cleanup the code to hide specific information, so beware I may have hosed something up. I mainly just want to know if other people have solved this problem. Thanks!

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  • How do i judge when the NetWorkStream finishes by using .net TcpClient to communicate

    - by Hwasin
    I try to use stream.DataAvailable to judge if it is finished,but sometimes the value is false but after a little while it is true again,i have to set a counter and judge the end by the symbol '' like this int connectCounter = 0; while (connectCounter < 1200) { if (stream.DataAvailable) { while (stream.DataAvailable) { byte[] buffer = new byte[bufferSize]; int flag = stream.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); string strReadXML_t = System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(buffer); strReadXML = strReadXML + strReadXML_t.Replace("\0", string.Empty); } if (strReadXML.Substring(strReadXML.Length - 1, 1).Equals(">")) { break; } } Thread.Sleep(100); connectCounter++; } is there any good methord to deal with it?Thank you!

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  • Handle .NET exceptions within Classic ASP pages

    - by Tyler
    Hi All, I am making MSSQL stored procedure CLR calls from ASP pages. When an exception occurs, it is logged and then rethrown. In this scenario I need to be able to handle the exception (if possible) in the ASP page. Note that I cannot move away from classic ASP in this instance; I am stuck within a legacy system for this project. Please let me know if you know of a way to handle the exceptions in classic ASP. I appreciate the help! Thanks, Tyler

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  • VB.NET add an element to the XML document with LINQ to XML

    - by Bayonian
    Hi, I'm adding an element to existing XML doc with the following code: Dim theXMLSource As String = Server.MapPath("~/Demo/") & "LabDemo.xml" Dim nodeElement As XElement Dim attrAndValue As XElement = _ <LabService> <ServiceType> <%= txtServiceType.Text.Trim %> </ServiceType> <Level> <%= txtLevel.Text.Trim %> </Level> </LabService> nodeElement.Add(New XElement(attrAndValue)) nodeElement.Save(theXMLSource) It makes error like this: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Error line: nodeElement.Add(New XElement(attrAndValue)) I debugged it but I couldn't get the error yet. Can you show what the problem is? Thank you

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  • ASP.NET MVC Binding issue

    - by user295541
    Hi, I have an object with a property called "name". This object has a sub object that has a property called "name" as well. Transaction.name Transaction.TransactionItem TransactionItem.name I bind Transaction object to a partial control as usual: Html.TextBox("name", Model.name)% Model is a Transaction object. And I bind TransactionItems: < if (Model.mtTransactionItem != null) { foreach (var item in Model.mtTransactionItem) { % <%= Ajax.ActionLink(item.name, "ShowItem", new { id = item.id }, new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "dialog-form" })% And when I update the one of the transaction items through an ajax call I pass the entire transaction object to the partial view. When I debug I check the Model.name property, and it has a proper value. But on the page shows the name of TransactionItem value instead of the name of Transaction value. What do I do wrong? I have checked this problem in MVC 1.0 and MVC 2.0 framework.

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  • IoC and dataContext disposing in asp.net mvc 2 application

    - by zerkms
    I have the Global.asax like the code below: public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { // .... } protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(typeof(IOCControllerFactory)); } } public class IOCControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private readonly IKernel kernel; public IOCControllerFactory() { kernel = new StandardKernel(new NanocrmContainer()); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType == null) return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); var controller = kernel.TryGet(controllerType) as IController; if (controller == null) return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); var standartController = controller as Controller; if (standartController is IIoCController) ((IIoCController)standartController).SetIoc(kernel); return standartController; } class NanocrmContainer : Ninject.Modules.NinjectModule { public override void Load() { // ... Bind<DomainModel.Entities.db>().ToSelf().InRequestScope().WithConstructorArgument("connection", "Data Source=lims;Initial Catalog=nanocrm;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=***;Password=***"); } } } In this case if somewhere it is the class, defined like: public class UserRepository : IUserRepository { private db dataContext; private IUserGroupRepository userGroupRepository; public UserRepository(db dataContext, IUserGroupRepository userGroupRepository) { this.dataContext = dataContext; this.userGroupRepository = userGroupRepository; } } then the dataContext instance is created (if no one was created in this request scope) by Ninject. So the trouble now is - where to invoke dataContext method .Dispose()?

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  • How to debug jQuery ajax POST to .NET webservice

    - by Nick
    Hey all. I have a web service that I have published locally. I wrote an HTML page to test the web service. The webservice is expecting a string that will be XML. When I debug the web service from within VS everything works great. I can use FireBug and see that my web service is indeed being hit by they AJAX call. After deploying the web service locally to IIS it does not appear to be working. I need to know the best way to trouble shoot this problem. My AJAX js looks like this: function postSummaryXml(data) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://localhost/collection/services/datacollector.asmx/SaveSummaryDisplayData', data: { xml: data }, error: function(result) { alert(result); }, success: function(result) { alert(result); } }); The web method looks like so: [WebMethod] public string SaveSummaryDisplayData(string xml) { XmlDocument xmlDocument = new XmlDocument(); xmlDocument.LoadXml(xml); XmlParser parser = new XmlParser(xmlDocument); IModel repository = new Repository(); if(repository.AddRecord("TestData",parser.TestValues)) { return "true"; } return "false"; } } I added the return string to the web method in an attempt to ensure that the web-service is really hit from the ajax. The problem is this: In FF the 'Success' function is always called yet the result is always 'NULL'. And the web method does not appear to have worked (no data saved). In IE the 'Error' function is called and the response is server error: 500. I think (believe it or not) IE is giving me a more accurate indication that something is wrong but I cannnot determine what the issue is. Can someone please suggest how I should expose the specific server error message? Thanks for the help!

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  • Displaying Many-To-Many Database relationship in VB.NET 2008 with DataGrid, MS SQL 2008

    - by user337501
    Computer bombed while posting this, couldnt find a duplicate question but if there is one, forgive me. So, I've run into a wall. And rather than use a ladder to avoid it, I'd like go through it. I'm setting up what I can best describe as a many-to-many relationship in a database. To examplify, imagine I have three primary tables: Items, Categories, Sections(nevermind the potential redundancy) Then I have another table, Properties. Items, Categories, and Sections can be associated with many properties. A single property can be associated with one, all, or none of the other tables. The best way I can figure to do this is to have join tables make the relationship. i.e. tblItems----(Foreign Key)----tblItems_To_Properties----(Foreign Key)----tblProperties In this example, tblItems simply has an "ItemID" Primary Key. tblItems_To_Properties has its own Primary Key(tblItems_To_PropertiesID), a Foreign Key to the Item(ItemID) and a Foreign key to the Property(PropertyID). The Properties table simply has its primary key(PropertyID) I hope this example isnt too confusing...if I have to I can find a way to put a diagram up or something. My problem is, I want to display this in a DataGrid using the Master-Detail method(DevExpress GridControl). I use the tblItems as a test, and I can see the Items in the parent view, but in the child view I see(understandably) the join table and that is it. My goal is to make it so the Grid ignores the join table and shows the Properties table as the only child. Any help on this method or insight into another solution would be muuuuuuuch appreciat

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Custom validation message for value types

    - by Giovanni Galbo
    When I use UpdateModel or TryUpdateModel, the MVC framework is smart enough to know if you are trying to pass in a null into a value type (e.g. the user forgets to fill out the required Birth Day field) . Unfortunately, I don't know how to override the default message, "A value is required." in the summary into something more meaningful ("Please enter in your Birth Day"). There has to be a way of doing this (without writing too much work-around code), but I can't find it. Any help? EDIT Also, I guess this would also be an issue for invalid conversions, e.g. BirthDay = "Hello".

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  • Problems refreshing DataGridView after database update in VB.NET

    - by Gbolahan
    Dim myQuery = "UPDATE table1 SET data= CONCAT (data,'" & vbCrLf & "[ " & Date.Now() & " ]" & " " & "[" & getCN() & "]" & " " & txtTelenotes.Text & "[ item1 ]" & "') WHERE id='" & txtID.Text & "'" myCommand.Connection = conn myCommand.CommandText = myQuery myAdapter.SelectCommand = myCommand Dim myData As MySqlDataReader myData = myCommand.ExecuteReader() txtTelenotes.Text = "" dgvREcord.Refresh() I tried refreshing the DataGridView using: dgvREcord.Refresh() but it does not load the changes from the database.

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  • Tearing my hair out - ASP.Net AJAX AutoComplete not working

    - by Dave
    Hope someone can help with this. I've been up and down the web and through this site looking for an answer, but still can't get the Autocomplete AJAX control to work. I've gone from trying to include it in an existing site to stripping it right back to a very basic form and it's still not functioning. I'm having a little more luck using Page Methods rather than a local webservice, so here is my code <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="droptest.aspx.cs" Inherits="droptest" %> <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="cc1" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" EnablePageMethods="true" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="AutoCompleteExtender1" runat="server" MinimumPrefixLength="1" ServiceMethod="getResults" TargetControlID="TextBox1"> </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> </form> </body> </html> using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.Script.Services; using System.Web.Services; public partial class droptest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } [WebMethod] public string[] getResults(string prefixText, int count) { string[] test = new string[5] { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five" }; return test; } } Tried to keep things as simple as possible, but all I get is either the autocomplete dropdown with the source of the page (starting with the <! doctype...) letter by letter, or in IE7 it just says "UNDEFINED" all the way down the list. I'm using Visual Web Developer 2008 at the moment, this is running on Localhost. I think I've exhausted all the "Try this..." options I can find, everything from adding in [ScriptMethod] to changing things in Web.Config. Is there anything obviously wrong with this code? Only other thing that may be having an effect is in Global.asax I do a Context.RewritePath to rewrite URLs - does this have any effect on AJAX? Thanks for any help you can give.

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  • URLRewriter.net fails relative paths when using more than one substring in URL

    - by Andreas Strandfelt
    Hi. I have installed the URLRewriter on my server, and it works fine, but I have a rather big problem. Relative links in hyperlinks, CSS-links, images etc. doesn't work when I have URLs with more than one substring. E.g. (sorry, no http:// in front, as I do not have enough reputation): dkbyg.strandweb.dk/Leje-og-udlejning-arbejdskraft leads to the path dkbyg.strandweb.dk/Workers.aspx and works just fine. But dkbyg.strandweb.dk/Leje-og-udlejning-arbejdskraft/Midtjylland leads to dkbyg.strandweb.dk/Workers.aspx?Region=Midtjylland using this line in the Web.config: <rewrite url="~/Leje-og-udlejning-arbejdskraft/(.+)" to="~/Workers.aspx?Region=$1"/> It rewrites just fine, but my relative links doesn't work anymore. CSS, Images, links and so on thinks my root is now http://dkbyg.strandweb.dk/Leje-og-udlejning-arbejdskraft, which of course doesn't exist. Can't this be fixed? All my links are correctly set using the ~/, like this: <asp:HyperLink ID="HyperLink3" CssClass="black_text" NavigateUrl="~/Forgot-Password" runat="server">I have forgotten my password</asp:HyperLink>

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  • ASP.NET MVC check form input is valid on submit

    - by Gavin
    Hi all, I have a form that when submitted shows a busy animation and disables the submit button. Anyone know how to query Microsoft's Sys.Mvc.FormValidation to see if the form passed it's test so I can prevent the busy animation showing if the form hasn't actually been submitted? Or even some other work-around? At present my client side javascript looks like this: $('form').submit(function() { $('input[type=submit]', this).attr('disabled', 'disabled'); ShowBusy(); }); Cheers, Gavin

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  • Jquery Asp.Net GridView Data Binding

    - by oraclee
    Hi all; <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" /> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </div> </form> How to call Method Jquery ? public void GetGrid() { DataProviderDataContext db = new DataProviderDataContext(); GridView1.DataSource = db.Employees.ToList(); GridView1.DataBind(); } I do not know English pls help

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  • C# Winforms ADO.NET - DataGridView INSERT starting with null data

    - by Geo Ego
    I have a C# Winforms app that is connecting to a SQL Server 2005 database. The form I am currently working on allows a user to enter a large amount of different types of data into various textboxes, comboboxes, and a DataGridView to insert into the database. It all represents one particular type of machine, and the data is spread out over about nine tables. The problem I have is that my DataGridView represents a type of data that may or may not be added to the database. Thus, when the DataGridView is created, it is empty and not databound, and so data cannot be entered. My question is, should I create the table with hard-coded field names representing the way that the data looks in the database, or is there a way to simply have the column names populate with no data so that the user can enter it if they like? I don't like the idea of hard-coding them in case there is a change in the database schema, but I'm not sure how else to deal with this problem.

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