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  • Parsing Line Breaks in PHP/JavaScript

    - by Matt G
    I have a text area in my PHP application where users can enter notes in a project. Sometimes this is displayed on the page via PHP and sometimes it is displayed via javascript. The problem is, if the note is across multiple lines (i.e. the user presses enter while entering notes in the text area), it causes the JS to fail. It's fine when it's being done by the PHP. The line of code in question is: var editnotes='<textarea class="desc_text" style="width:20em;" id="notes_editor"><?php print $notes; ?></textarea>'; So, if the note is over multiple lines, the PHP builds the pager as: var editnotes='<textarea class="desc_text" style="width:20em;" id="notes_editor">This is a test note over multiple lines </textarea>'; And this obviously causes problems for the js. So my question is, what can I do to prevent this? As the code is being built by PHP before it even gets to the browser, I'm thinking that the best approach may be to parse it in the PHP so that the output is something more like this: var editnotes='<textarea class="desc_text" style="width:20em;" id="notes_editor">This is<br/>a test note<br/>over multiple lines<br/></textarea>'; Will this work? How would I do it? Thanks

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  • Problem with libcurl cookie engine

    - by Seb Rose
    [Cross-posted from lib-curl mailing list] I have a single threaded app (MSVC C++ 2005) build against a static LIBCURL 7.19.4 A test application connects to an in house server & performs a bespoke authentication process that includes posting a couple of forms, and when this succeeds creates a new resource (POST) and then updates the resource (PUT) using If-Match. I only use a single connection to libcurl (i.e. only one CURL*) The cookie engine is enabled from the start using curl_easy_setopt(CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "") The cookie cache is cleared at the end of the authentication process using curl_easy_setopt(CURLOPT_COOKIELIST, "SESS"). This is required by the authentication process. The next call, which completes a successful authentication, results in a couple of security cookies being returned from the server - they have no expiry date set. The server (and I) expect the security cookies to then be sent with all subsequent requests to the server. The problem is that sometimes they are sent and sometimes they aren't. I'm not a CURL expert, so I'm probably doing something wrong, but I can't figure out what. Running the test app in a loop results shows a random distribution of correct cookie handling. As a workaround I've disabled the cookie engine and am doing basic manual cookie handling. Like this it works as expected, but I'd prefer to use the library if possible. Does anyone have any ideas? Thanks Seb

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  • Why can I run JUnit tests for my Spring project, but not a main method?

    - by FarmBoy
    I am using JDBC to connect to MySQL for a small application. In order to test without altering the real database, I'm using HSQL in memory for JUnit tests. I'm using Spring for DI and DAOs. Here is how I'm configuring my HSQL DataSource <bean id="mockDataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.SingleConnectionDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver"/> <property name="url" value="jdbc:hsqldb:mem:mockSeo"/> <property name="username" value="sa"/> </bean> This works fine for my JUnit tests which use the mock DB. But when I try to run a main method, I find the following error: Error creating bean with name 'mockDataSource' defined in class path resource [beans.xml]: Error setting property values; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.PropertyBatchUpdateException; nested PropertyAccessExceptions (1) are: PropertyAccessException 1: org.springframework.beans.MethodInvocationException: Property 'driverClassName' threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalStateException: Could not load JDBC driver class [org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver] I'm running from Eclipse, and I'm using the Maven plugin. Is there a reason why this would work as a Test, but not as a main()? I know that the main method itself is not the problem, because it works if I remove all references to the HSQL DataSource from my Spring Configuration file.

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  • How to use Java varargs with the GWT Javascript Native Interface? (aka, "GWT has no printf()")

    - by markerikson
    I'm trying to quickly learn GWT as part of a new project. I found out that GWT doesn't implement Java's String.format() function, so there's no printf()-like functionality. I knew that some printf() implementations exist for Javascript, so I figured I could paste one of those in as a GWT Javascript Native Interface function. I ran into problems, and decided I'd better make sure that the varargs values were being passed in correctly. That's where things got ugly. First, some example code: // From Java, call the JSNI function: test("sourceString", "params1", "params2", "params3"); .... public static native void test(Object... params) /*-{ // PROBLEM: this kills GWT! // alert(params.length); // returns "function" alert(typeof(params)); // returns "[Ljava.lang.Object;@b97ff1" alert(params); }-*/; The GWT docs state that "calling a varargs JavaScript method from Java will result in the callee receiving the arguments in an array". I figured that meant I could at least check params.length, but accessing that throws a JavascriptException wrapped in an UmbrellaException, with no real information. When I do "typeof(params)", it returns "function". As if that weren't odd enough, if I check the string value of params, it returns what appears to be a string version of a Java reference. So, I guess I'm asking a few different questions here: 1) How do GWT/JSNI varargs actually work, and do I need to do something special to pass in values? 2) What is actually going on here? 3) Is there any easier way to get printf()-style formatting in a GWT application?

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  • Testing a method that sends e-mail without sending the mail

    - by SnOrfus
    I have a method like public abstract class Base { public void MethodUnderTest(); } public class ClassUnderTest : Base { public override MethodUnderTest() { if(condition) { IMail mail = new Mail() { /* ... */ }; IMailer mailer = new Mailer() { /* ... */ } mailer.Send(mail); } else { /* ... */ } } } I have unit tests for this method, and the mail gets sent to myself, so it's not terrible (better than no test) but I'd prefer not to send the mail. The problem I have is that I don't want test specific code in the class (ie. if (testMode) return; instead of sending the mail) I don't know lots about DI, but I considered passing a mock IMailer into MethodUnderTest except that it overrides the base class, and no other class that derives from Base needs an IMailer object (I don't want to force implementers of Base to take an unnecessary IMailer in MethodUnderTest) What else can I do? (note: IMail and IMailer are part of an external library for sending e-mail. It's written in house, so I can modify it all I like if necessary, though I can't see a need to in this situation)

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  • WPF TextBlock Binding to DependencyProperty

    - by Bill Campbell
    Hi, I have what I believe to be about one of the most simple cases of attempting to bind a view to a dependencyproperty in the view model. It seems that the initial changes are reflected in the view but other changes to the DP do not update the view's TextBlock. I'm probably just missing something simple but I just can't see what it is. Please take a look... My XAML has a status bar on the bottom of the window. I want to bind to the DP "VRAStatus". <StatusBar x:Name="sbar" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Background="LightBlue" Opacity="0.4" DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" > <StatusBarItem> <TextBlock x:Name="statusBar" Text="{Binding VRAStatus}" /> </StatusBarItem> <StatusBarItem> <Separator Style="{StaticResource StatusBarSeparatorStyle}"/> </StatusBarItem> </StatusBar> My viewmodel has the DP defined: public string VRAStatus { get { return (string)GetValue(VRAStatusProperty); } set { SetValue(VRAStatusProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for VRAStatus. public static readonly DependencyProperty VRAStatusProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("VRAStatus", typeof(string), typeof(PenskeRouteAssistViewModel),new PropertyMetadata(string.Empty)); Then, in my code I set the DP: VRAStatus = "Test Message..."; Is there something obvious here that I am missing? In my constructor for the viewmodel I set the DP like this: VRAStatus = "Ready"; I never get the Test Message to display. Please Help. thanks in advance! Bill

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  • Should I be relying on WebTests for data validation?

    - by Alexander Kahoun
    I have a suite of web tests created for a web service. I use it for testing a particular input method that updates a SQL Database. The web service doesn't have a way to retrieve the data, that's not its purpose, only to update it. I have a validator that validates the response XML that the web service generates for each request. All that works fine. It was suggested by a teammate that I add data validation so that I check the database to see the data after the initial response validator runs and compare it with what was in the input request. We have a number of services and libraries that are separate from the web service I'm testing that I can use to get the data and compare it. The problem is that when I run the web test the data validation always fails even when the request succeeds. I've tried putting the thread to sleep between the response validation and the data validation but to no avail; It always gets the data from before the response validation. I can set a break point and visually see that the data has been updated in the DB, funny thing is when I step through it in debug with the breakpoint it does validate successfully. Before I get too much more into this issue I have to ask; Is this the purpose of web tests? Should I be able to validate data through service calls in this manner or am I asking too much of a web test and the response validation is as far as I should go?

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  • Creating nodes porgramatically in Drupal 6

    - by John
    Hey, I have been searching for how to create nodes in Drupal 6. I found some entries here on stackoverflow, but the questions seemed to either be for older versions or the solutions did not work for me. Ok, so here is my current process for trying to create $node = new stdClass(); $node->title = "test title"; $node->body = "test body"; $node->type= "story"; $node->created = time(); $node->changed = $node->created; $node->status = 1; $node->promote = 1; $node->sticky = 0; $node->format = 1; $node->uid = 1; node_save( $node ); When I execute this code, the node is created, but when I got the administration page, it throws the following errors: warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. user warning: Duplicate entry '36' for key 1 query: INSERT INTO node_comment_statistics (nid, last_comment_timestamp, last_comment_name, last_comment_uid, comment_count) VALUES (36, 1269980590, NULL, 1, 0) in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\sites\all\modules\nodecomment\nodecomment.module on line 409. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. I've looked at different tutorials, and all seem to follow the same process. I'm not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using Drupal 6.15. When I roll back the database (to right before I made the changes) the errors are gone. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Is a rubber keyboard suitable for heavy use?

    - by Vilx-
    Every keyboard wears out with time, and mine has some age already. The day it fails is coming closer and closer. So I'm slowly starting to look around for a new one. I use the keyboard for gaming and programming, so it gets some pretty solid use. I also tend to eat by the computer, so there's plenty of... uhh... lifeforms down there. Anyway, I was looking at these rubber keyboards. They come pretty cheap (my local computer shop has one for less than $20) and they seem to have some nice properties. They can be easily cleaned, they're quiet, and can be rolled up when needed (plus no worries about spilled drinks). However I'm wondering what their type-ability is. If I can't write on it at a decent speed, the rest of the features don't matter. Not that I'm a fast typer, but being a professional progammer does give a boost to the skill. I couldn't find any reviews on the net so I'm turning to you. Who has used these keyboards and what was your experience? Perhaps there is something else I haven't though of why such a keyboard would not be a good idea?

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  • How to properly combine two files in XAML in Microsoft Blend?

    - by MartyIX
    Hello, I have a test project with the file MainWindow.xaml with the content: <Window x:Class="MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:ad="clr-namespace:AvalonDock;assembly=AvalonDock" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" xmlns:view="clr-namespace:Sokoban.View;assembly=Solvers" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <ad:DockingManager x:Name="dockingManager"> <ad:ResizingPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <view:Solvers x:Name="solvers" diag:PresentationTraceSources.TraceLevel="High" /> <!-- LINE BELOW DEMONSTRATES WORKING CODE INSTEAD OF LINE ABOVE --> <!--<ad:DocumentPane Name="GamesDocumentPane" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <ad:DockableContent x:Name="classesContent" Title="Classes"> <TextBlock>test</TextBlock> </ad:DockableContent> </ad:DocumentPane>--> </ad:ResizingPanel> </ad:DockingManager> </Window> and in another project I have the file Solvers.xaml: <ad:DocumentPane x:Class="Sokoban.View.Solvers" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:ad="clr-namespace:AvalonDock;assembly=AvalonDock" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" Name="GamesDocumentPane" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> </ad:DocumentPane> When I open my Visual Studio solution in Microsoft Blend 4 then I see the error: InvalidOperationException: DocumentPane must be put under a DockingManager! when I open either MainWindow.xaml or Solvers.xaml. It is all right in Solvers.xaml because there really is no DockingManager but MainWindow.xaml should work, shouldn't it? How to solve the problem? Note: It seems to me that the files are processed separately and because the file Solvers.xaml contains the error the MainWindow.xaml file also contains the very same error. Note 2: XAML files use AvalonDock library Is there a way how to say that Solvers.xaml is only an extension of another file? Thank you for any help!

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  • Call Init from XUL after Page Loads (Firefox add-on)

    - by mattyboy123
    Hi all, I've been working on some code in js/html and it works great. I'm now trying to package it into an add-on for Firefox, and having some issues getting the XUL document correct. PLAIN OLD HTML/JS In my html test file between the <head></head> I have: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/MyCode.js"></script> At the end of the test file before the </body> I have: <script type="text/javascript">MyCode.Static.Init();</script> FIREFOX ADD-ON: OVERLAY.XUL In an overlay.xul file in the extension package I have : <?xml version="1.0"?> <overlay id="mycode" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://mycode/content/MyCode.js"></script> <script> window.addEventListener("load", function () { gBrowser.addEventListener("load",MyCode.Static.Init,true); }, false); </script> </overlay> This does not seem to enter the method, but then again I'm not even sure if I've got the listeners firing properly. Would this be the correct way to duplicate what I was doing in plain old html/js ?

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  • In Seam what's the difference between injected EntityManager and getEntityManager from EntityHome

    - by Navi
    I am testing a Seam application using the needle test API. In my code I am using the getEntityManager() method from EntityHome. When I run the unit tests against an in memory database I get the following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No application context active at org.jboss.seam.Component.forName(Component.java:1945) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:2005) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1983) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1977) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1972) at org.jboss.seam.framework.Controller.getComponentInstance(Controller.java:272) at org.jboss.seam.framework.PersistenceController.getPersistenceContext(PersistenceController.java:20) at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.getEntityManager(EntityHome.java:177) etc .. I can resolve some of these errors by injecting the EntityManager with @In EntityManager entityManager; Unfortunately the persist method of EntityHome also calls the getEntityManager. This means a lot of mocks or rewriting the code somehow. Is there any workaround and why is this exception thrown anyway? I am using Seam 2.2.0 GA by the way. There is nothing special about the components. They are generated by seam-gen. The test is performed with in memory database - I followed the examples in http://jbosscc-needle.sourceforge.net/jbosscc-needle/1.0/db-util.html.

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  • Linq to SQL Problem System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager

    - by luckyluke
    I have a really tricky thing going up here. My project has around 100 tables and they are all mapped by LINQ. Everything works fine in a dev and test environment. These enviroments are MS Win 2008 r2 servers with SQL 2008 sp1 databases. IIS and SQL are on a different machines. Now on production enviroment which is MS Win 2003 x64 web farm + geoclustered SQL 2008 IT DOES not work. All I get is the exception System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Index was outside the bounds of the array. at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager3.TryCreateKeyFr>om Values(Object[] values, MultiKey& k) at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.IdentityCache2.Find(Object[] keyValues) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.GetOtherItem(MetaAssociation assoc, Object instance) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.BuildEdgeMaps() at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at System.Data.Linq.DataContext.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at ERS.IIMP.Services.ExposuresSrv.Update(Int32 ExpID, Int32 AssID) Services\ExposuresSrv.cs` My question is What the hell. They have precisely the same DBML, the DB has exactly THE SAME structure (when I get the DB from prod to TEST and mount it eveything works just great), the binaries on the WEB Server are the same. I seriously do not know what to do.... Did anyone found that Linq works on one env and does not on the second?? I mam really lost here. I really hope You can help me:)

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  • Retrieve Flash file post in ASP.NET

    - by Quandary
    Question: In ASP.NET, I retrieve a JPEG-file as Flash post data like this Sub ProcessRequest(ByVal context As HttpContext) Implements IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain" ' Retrieve a bytearray from the post buffer Dim myBuffer As Byte() = context.Request.BinaryRead(Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length)) System.IO.File.WriteAllBytes("c:\temp\test.jpg", myBuffer) End Sub In Flash, I send it to an asp.net handler like this var jpgSource:BitmapData = cPrint.TakeSnapshot(MovieClip(cGlobals.ccPlanZoomView)); var bmpThisBitmap:Bitmap = new Bitmap(jpgSource); var nQuality:Number = 100; var jpgEncoder:JPGEncoder = new JPGEncoder(nQuality); var jpgStream:ByteArray = jpgEncoder.encode(jpgSource); var header:URLRequestHeader = new URLRequestHeader ("Content-type", "application/octet-stream"); // Make sure to use the correct path to jpg_encoder_download.php var strFileName:String="test.jpg"; var jpgURLRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/raumplaner_new/raumplaner_new/cgi-bin/SavePDF.ashx"); //var scriptVars:URLVariables = new URLVariables(); //scriptVars.fn = strFileName; //var myarr:Array= new Array(); //myarr.push(jpgStream); //scriptVars.Files = myarr; jpgURLRequest.requestHeaders.push(header); jpgURLRequest.method = URLRequestMethod.POST; //jpgURLRequest.data = scriptVars; jpgURLRequest.data = jpgStream; var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.BINARY; loader.load(jpgURLRequest); It works but I want to send a few additional variables along, via scriptVars (commented out here). How do I retrieve the JPEG file in that case ? Because if I use parameters, there is no more BinaryRead... Aspecially, how would I read an array of jpeg files (several files) ?

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  • How to limit traffic using multicast over localhost

    - by Shane Holloway
    I'm using multicast UDP over localhost to implement a loose collection of cooperative programs running on a single machine. The following code works well on Mac OSX, Windows and linux. The flaw is that the code will receive UDP packets outside of the localhost network as well. For example, sendSock.sendto(pkt, ('192.168.0.25', 1600)) is received by my test machine when sent from another box on my network. import platform, time, socket, select addr = ("239.255.2.9", 1600) sendSock = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_DGRAM, socket.IPPROTO_UDP) sendSock.setsockopt(socket.IPPROTO_IP, socket.IP_MULTICAST_TTL, 24) sendSock.setsockopt(socket.IPPROTO_IP, socket.IP_MULTICAST_IF, socket.inet_aton("127.0.0.1")) recvSock = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_DGRAM, socket.IPPROTO_UDP) recvSock.setsockopt(socket.SOL_SOCKET, socket.SO_REUSEADDR, True) if hasattr(socket, 'SO_REUSEPORT'): recvSock.setsockopt(socket.SOL_SOCKET, socket.SO_REUSEPORT, True) recvSock.bind(("0.0.0.0", addr[1])) status = recvSock.setsockopt(socket.IPPROTO_IP, socket.IP_ADD_MEMBERSHIP, socket.inet_aton(addr[0]) + socket.inet_aton("127.0.0.1")); while 1: pkt = "Hello host: {1} time: {0}".format(time.ctime(), platform.node()) print "SEND to: {0} data: {1}".format(addr, pkt) r = sendSock.sendto(pkt, addr) while select.select([recvSock], [], [], 0)[0]: data, fromAddr = recvSock.recvfrom(1024) print "RECV from: {0} data: {1}".format(fromAddr, data) time.sleep(2) I've attempted to recvSock.bind(("127.0.0.1", addr[1])), but that prevents the socket from receiving any multicast traffic. Is there a proper way to configure recvSock to only accept multicast packets from the 127/24 network, or do I need to test the address of each received packet?

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  • change custom mapping - sharp architecture/ fluent nhibernate

    - by csetzkorn
    I am using the sharp architecture which also deploys FNH. The db schema sql code is generated during the testing like this: [TestFixture] [Category("DB Tests")] public class MappingIntegrationTests { [SetUp] public virtual void SetUp() { string[] mappingAssemblies = RepositoryTestsHelper.GetMappingAssemblies(); configuration = NHibernateSession.Init( new SimpleSessionStorage(), mappingAssemblies, new AutoPersistenceModelGenerator().Generate(), "../../../../app/XXX.Web/NHibernate.config"); } [TearDown] public virtual void TearDown() { NHibernateSession.CloseAllSessions(); NHibernateSession.Reset(); } [Test] public void CanConfirmDatabaseMatchesMappings() { var allClassMetadata = NHibernateSession.GetDefaultSessionFactory().GetAllClassMetadata(); foreach (var entry in allClassMetadata) { NHibernateSession.Current.CreateCriteria(entry.Value.GetMappedClass(EntityMode.Poco)) .SetMaxResults(0).List(); } } /// <summary> /// Generates and outputs the database schema SQL to the console /// </summary> [Test] public void CanGenerateDatabaseSchema() { System.IO.TextWriter writeFile = new StreamWriter(@"d:/XXXSqlCreate.sql"); var session = NHibernateSession.GetDefaultSessionFactory().OpenSession(); new SchemaExport(configuration).Execute(true, false, false, session.Connection, writeFile); } private Configuration configuration; } I am trying to use: using FluentNHibernate.Automapping; using xxx.Core; using SharpArch.Data.NHibernate.FluentNHibernate; using FluentNHibernate.Automapping.Alterations; namespace xxx.Data.NHibernateMaps { public class x : IAutoMappingOverride<x> { public void Override(AutoMapping<Tx> mapping) { mapping.Map(x => x.text, "text").CustomSqlType("varchar(max)"); mapping.Map(x => x.url, "url").CustomSqlType("varchar(max)"); } } } To change the standard mapping of strings from NVARCHAR(255) to varchar(max). This is not picked up during the sql schema generation. I also tried: mapping.Map(x = x.text, "text").Length(100000); Any ideas? Thanks. Christian

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  • Header Setup in SOAP with ASP.NET 3.5 WCF

    - by Adam
    I'm pretty new to SOAP so go easy on me. I'm trying to setup a SOAP service that accepts the following header format: <soap:Header> <wsse:Security> <wsse:UsernameToken wsu:Id='SecurityToken-securityToken'> <wsse:Username>Username</wsse:Username> <wsse:Password>Password</wsse:Password> <wsu:Created>Timestamp</wsu:Created> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security> </soap:Header> The application I'm incorporating this service into is an ASP.NET 3.5 web application and I've already setup a SOAP endpoint using WCF. I've setup a basic service to make sure the WCF works and it works fine (disregarding the header). I heard that the above format follows WS-Security so I added WSHttpBinding in the web.config: <service name="Nexternal.Service.XMLTools.VNService" behaviorConfiguration="VNServiceBehavior"> <!--The first endpoint would be picked up from the confirg this shows how the config can be overriden with the service host--> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="Nexternal.Service.XMLTools.IVNService"/> </service> I downloaded a test harness (soapUI) and pasted in a test message with the above header and it came back with a 400 Bad Request error. ...for what it's worth, I'm running Visual Studio 2008 using IIS7. I feel like I'm going in circles so any help would be awesome. Thanks in advance.

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  • ASP.NET-MVC Page: image logo is not displaying while sending the email

    - by Rita
    Hi I have a page that sends an email on ASP.NET MVC Page. All the Text is displaying but the image is not displaying. Any workaround. Appreciate your responses. Here is my code: MailMessage mailMsg = new MailMessage(); mailMsg.IsBodyHtml = true; mailMsg.From = new MailAddress(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["Email.Sender"]); mailMsg.To.Add(new MailAddress(email)); mailMsg.Subject = "Test mail to display the Logo in the email"; mailMsg.Body = " Test mail to display the Logo in the email; mailMsg.Body += Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine + "<html><body><img src=cid:companylogo/><br></body></html>"; //Insert Logo string logoPath = Server.MapPath(Links.Content.images.Amgen_MedInfo_Logo_jpg); // logo is placed in images folder LinkedResource logo = new LinkedResource(logoPath); logo.ContentId = "companylogo"; // done HTML formatting in the next line to display logo AlternateView aView = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString(mailMsg.Body, new System.Net.Mime.ContentType("text/html")); aView.LinkedResources.Add(logo); mailMsg.AlternateViews.Add(aView); mailMsg.IsBodyHtml = true; SmtpClient smtpClient = new SmtpClient(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["SMTP"]); smtpClient.Send(mailMsg);

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  • Oracle T4CPreparedStatement memory leaks?

    - by Jay
    A little background on the application that I am gonna talk about in the next few lines: XYZ is a data masking workbench eclipse RCP application: You give it a source table column, and a target table column, it would apply a trasformation (encryption/shuffling/etc) and copy the row data from source table to target table. Now, when I mask n tables at a time, n threads are launched by this app. Here is the issue: I have run into a production issue on first roll out of the above said app. Unfortunately, I don't have any logs to get to the root. However, I tried to run this app in test region and do a stress test. When I collected .hprof files and ran 'em through an analyzer (yourKit), I noticed that objects of oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement was retaining heap. The analysis also tells me that one of my classes is holding a reference to this preparedstatement object and thereby, n threads have n such objects. T4CPreparedStatement seemed to have character arrays: lastBoundChars and bindChars each of size char[300000]. So, I researched a bit (google!), obtained ojdbc6.jar and tried decompiling T4CPreparedStatement. I see that T4CPreparedStatement extends OraclePreparedStatement, which dynamically manages array size of lastBoundChars and bindChars. So, my questions here are: Have you ever run into an issue like this? Do you know the significance of lastBoundChars / bindChars? I am new to profiling, so do you think I am not doing it correct? (I also ran the hprofs through MAT - and this was the main identified issue - so, I don't really think I could be wrong?) I have found something similar on the web here: http://forums.oracle.com/forums/thread.jspa?messageID=2860681 Appreciate your suggestions / advice.

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  • Why wouldn't a flex remoteobject be able to work within a custom component?

    - by Gary
    Please enlighten this flex noob. I have a remoteobject within my main.mxml. I can call a function on the service from an init() function on my main.mxml, and my java debugger triggers a breakpoint. When I move the remoteobject declaration and function call into a custom component (that is declared within main.mxml), the remote function on java-side no longer gets called, no breakpoints triggered, no errors, silence. How could this be? No spelling errors, or anything like that. What can I do to figure it out? mxml code: < mx:RemoteObject id="myService" destination="remoteService" endpoint="$(Application.application.home}/messagebroker/amf" > < /mx:RemoteObject > function call is just 'myService.getlist();' when I move it to a custom component, I import mx.core.Application; so the compiler doesn't yell my child component: child.mxml <mx:Panel xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="init()" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.core.Application; public function init():void { helloWorld.sayHello(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:RemoteObject id="helloWorld" destination="helloService" endpoint="$(Application.application.home}/messagebroker/amf" /> <mx:Label text="{helloWorld.sayHello.lastResult}" /> </mx:Panel> my main.mxml: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="init()" xmlns:test="main.flex.*" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var home:String; [Bindable] public var uName:String; public function init():void { //passed in by wrapper html home = Application.application.parameters.appHome; uName = Application.application.parameters.uName; } ]]> </mx:Script> <test:child /> </mx:Application>

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  • WCF Callback Faulted - what happens to the session?

    - by RemotecUk
    Just trying to get my head around what can happen when things go wrong with WCF. I have an implementation of my service contract declared with an InstanceContextMode of PerSession... [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] The calls happen as follows: My client calls the server and calls GetServerUTC() to return the current UTC time of the server. This is a one way call and the server will call the client back when its ready (trivial in this instance to simply return the current time!) The server calls back to the client and for test purposes in the callback implementation on the client I throw an exception. This goes unhandled in the client (for test purposes) and the client crashes and closes down. On the server I handle the faulted event handler on the ICommunicationObject... obj.Faulted += new EventHandler(EventService_Faulted); Questions... Will this kill off the session for the current connection on the server. I presume I am free to do what I want in this method e.g. logging or something, but should I do anything specific here to terminate the session or will WCF handle this? From a best practise view point what should I do when the callback is faulted? Does it mean "something has happened in your client" and thats the end of that or is there something I a missing here? Additionally, are there any other faulted handlers I should be handling. Ive done a lot of reading on WCF and it seems sort of vague on what to do when something goes wrong. At present I am implementing a State Machine on my client which will manage the connection and determine if a user action can happen dependant on if a connection exists to the server - or is this overkill. Any tips would be really appreciated ;)

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  • CURL & web.py: transfer closed with outstanding read data remaining

    - by Richard J
    Hi Folks, I have written a web.py POST handler, thus: import web urls = ('/my', 'Test') class Test: def POST(self): return "Here is your content" app = web.application(urls, globals()) if __name__ == "__main__": app.run() When I interact with it using Curl from the command line I get different responses depending on whether I post it any data or not: curl -i -X POST http://localhost:8080/my HTTP/1.1 200 OK Transfer-Encoding: chunked Date: Thu, 06 Jan 2011 16:42:41 GMT Server: CherryPy/3.1.2 WSGI Server Here is your content (Posting of no data to the server gives me back the "Here is your content" string) curl -i -X POST --data-binary "@example.zip" http://localhost:8080/my HTTP/1.1 100 Content-Length: 0 Content-Type: text/plain HTTP/1.1 200 OK Transfer-Encoding: chunked Date: Thu, 06 Jan 2011 16:43:47 GMT Server: CherryPy/3.1.2 WSGI Server curl: (18) transfer closed with outstanding read data remaining (Posting example.zip to the server results in this error) I've scoured the web.py documentation (what there is of it), and can't find any hints as to what might be going on here. Possibly something to do with 100 continue? I tried writing a python client which might help clarify: h1 = httplib.HTTPConnection('localhost:8080') h1.request("POST", "http://localhost:8080/my", body, headers) print h1.getresponse() body = the contents of the example.zip, and headers = empty dictionary. This request eventually timed out without printing anything, which I think exonerates curl from being the issue, so I believe something is going on in web.py which isn't quite right (or at least not sufficiently clear) Any web.py experts got some tips? Cheers, Richard

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  • Process Close does not close a process when performed in a SetTimer label

    - by NbdNnm
    The script below creates a child process to perform FileExist() separately from the main script so that it avoids halting the script when an unknown network path is passed. However, the command, Process close, does not close the given process despite its ErrorLevel indicates it succeeded to close. Task Manager shows the child process still exists. FileExistTimeout() ; this checks if the necessary parameters are passed ; this checks if the given path exists by creating a child process with the given timeout PathToCheck := "\\1.2.3.4\test" msgbox, 64, Test Result, % FileExistTimeout(PathToCheck) "`n" ErrorLevel FileExistTimeout(strPath="", nTimeout=1000, strSwitch="/fe") { global strParam1 = %1% strParam2 = %2% ; if the function is used to check the script parameters if (strPath="") { if (strParam2 = strSwitch) && strParam1 ; this means the function is placed at the beginning of the script. ExitApp % (FileExist(strParam1) != "") + 1 ; Return 1 or 2. Return } ; create a child process to check the path tooltip, RunWait is performing.... SetTimer, FileExistTimeout, % -1 * nTimeout RunWait "%A_AhkPath%" "%A_ScriptFullPath%" "%strPath%" "%strSwitch%",,, nPID SetTimer, FileExistTimeout, Off ; Disable the timer (if it hasn't fired already). tooltip ; ErrorLevel contains the exit code of the process (from RunWait). if ErrorLevel = 2 ; found return true else if ErrorLevel = 1 ; not found return return ; timeout FileExistTimeout: Process Close, %nPID% ; Timed out - terminate the process. tooltip, % "Process Closed: " ErrorLevel "`n" "Used Pid: " nPID,,, 2 return }

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  • AS3: Array of objects parsed from XML remains with zero length

    - by Joel Alejandro
    I'm trying to parse an XML file and create an object array from its data. The data is converted to MediaAlbum classes (class of my own). The XML is parsed correctly and the object is loaded, but when I instantiate it, the Albums array is of zero length, even when the data is loaded correctly. I don't really know what the problem could be... any hints? import Nem.Media.*; var mg:MediaGallery = new MediaGallery("test.xml"); trace(mg.Albums.length); MediaGallery class: package Nem.Media { import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.net.URLLoader; import flash.events.*; public class MediaGallery { private var jsonGalleryData:Object; public var Albums:Array = new Array(); public function MediaGallery(xmlSource:String) { var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.load(new URLRequest(xmlSource)); loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, loadGalleries); } public function loadGalleries(e:Event):void { var xmlData:XML = new XML(e.target.data); var album; for each (album in xmlData.albums) { Albums.push(new MediaAlbum(album.attribute("name"), album.photos)); } } } } XML test source: <gallery <albums <album name="Fútbol 9" <photos <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto1.jpg" / <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto2.jpg" / <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto3.jpg" / </photos </album <album name="Fútbol 8" <photos <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto4.jpg" / <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto5.jpg" / <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto6.jpg" / </photos </album </albums </gallery

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  • RDP through TCP Proxy

    - by johng100
    Hi, First time in Stackoverflow and I'm hoping someone can help me. I'm looking at a proof of concept to pass RDP traffic through a TCP Proxy/tunnel which will pass through firewalls using HTTPS. The problem has to do with deploying images to machines and so it can't be assumed that the .NET framework will be present, so C++ is being used at the deployment end of a connection. The basic system I have at present is a program which listens for client connections on a port then passes any data to a WCF service which stores it as a byte array. A deployment machine (using GSoap and C++) polls the WCF service for messages and if it finds them then passes the data onto the target server process via sockets. I know this sounds horrible, but it works for simple test clients and server passing data to and from simple test client and server programs via this WCF/C++/C# proxy layer. But I have to support traffic from RDP, VNC and possibly others, so I need a transparent proxy to do this and am wondering whether the above approach is worth pursuing. I've read up on SSH tunneling and that seems a possibility. My basic question is is it possible to tunnel RDP traffic over HTTPS using custom code. Thanks John

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