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  • Class with property referenced with dll not serializing

    - by djerry
    Hey guys, I got this class TapiCall. It has 4 properties : 2 datetimes, 1 string and an object. The object is a class that's referenced by Atapi3.dll, so i cannot alter it. My class TapiCall looks like this : [DataContract] public class TapiCall { private DateTime start, end; private TCall call; private string status; [DataMember] public string Status { get { return status; } set { status = value; } } [DataMember] public TCall Call { get { return call; } set { call = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime End { get { return end; } set { end = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime Start { get { return start; } set { start = value; } } public TapiCall() { } public TapiCall(DateTime start, DateTime end, TCall call) { this.Start = start; this.End = end; this.Call = call; } } Now when i use my visual studio command line, to generate my proxy class, it generates an error. When i remove TapiCall from the method in my app, i can rebuild my proxy again, so i know [OperationContract] void StuurUpdatedCall(TapiCall tpCall); is causing the problem. My question now is can i Serialize a class that's referenced by a dll? Thanks in advance.

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  • using threads in menu options

    - by vbNewbie
    I have an app that has a console menu with 2/3 selections. One process involves uploading a file and performing a lengthy search process on its contents, whilst another process involves SQL queries and is an interactive process with the user. I wish to use threads to allow one process to run and the menu to offer the option for the second process to run. However you cannot run the first process twice. I have created threads and corrected some compilation errors but the threading options are not working correctly. Any help appreciated. main... Dim tm As Thread = New Thread(AddressOf loadFile) Dim ts As Thread = New Thread(AddressOf reports) .... While Not response.Equals("3") Try Console.Write("Enter choice: ") response = Console.ReadLine() Console.WriteLine() If response.Equals("1") Then Console.WriteLine("Thread 1 doing work") tm.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA) tm.IsBackground = True tm.Start() response = String.Empty ElseIf response.Equals("2") Then Console.WriteLine("Starting a second Thread") ts.Start() response = String.Empty End If ts.Join() tm.Join() Catch ex As Exception errormessage = ex.Message End Try End While I realize that a form based will be easier to implement with perhaps just calling different forms to handle the processes.But I really dont have that option now since the console app will be added to api later. But here are my two processes from the menu functions. Also not sure what to do with the boolean variabel again as suggested below. Private Sub LoadFile() Dim dialog As New OpenFileDialog Dim response1 As String = Nothing Dim filepath As String = Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.MyDocuments) dialog.InitialDirectory = filepath If dialog.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then fileName = dialog.FileName ElseIf DialogResult.Cancel Then Exit Sub End If Console.ResetColor() Console.Write("Begin Search -- Discovery Search, y or n? ") response1 = Console.ReadLine() If response1 = "y" Then Search() ElseIf response1 = "n" Then Console.Clear() main() End If isRunning = False End Sub and the second one Private Shared Sub report() Dim rptGen As New SearchBlogDiscovery.rptGeneration Console.WriteLine("Tread Process started") rptGen.main() Console.WriteLine("Thread Process ended") isRunning = False End Sub

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  • How do I add a where filter using the original Linq-to-SQL object in the following scenario

    - by GenericTypeTea
    I am performing a select query using the following Linq expression: Table<Tbl_Movement> movements = context.Tbl_Movement; var query = from m in movements select new MovementSummary { Id = m.DocketId, Created = m.DateTimeStamp, CreatedBy = m.Tbl_User.FullName, DocketNumber = m.DocketNumber, DocketTypeDescription = m.Ref_DocketType.DocketType, DocketTypeId = m.DocketTypeId, Site = new Site() { Id = m.Tbl_Site.SiteId, FirstLine = m.Tbl_Site.FirstLine, Postcode = m.Tbl_Site.Postcode, SiteName = m.Tbl_Site.SiteName, TownCity = m.Tbl_Site.TownCity, Brewery = new Brewery() { Id = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Brewery.BreweryId, BreweryName = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Brewery.BreweryName }, Region = new Region() { Description = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Region.Description, Id = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Region.RegionId } } }; I am also passing in an IFilter class into the method where this select is performed. public interface IJobFilter { int? PersonId { get; set; } int? RegionId { get; set; } int? SiteId { get; set; } int? AssetId { get; set; } } How do I add these where parameters into my SQL expression? Preferably I'd like this done in another method as the filtering will be re-used across multiple repositories. Unfortunately when I do query.Where it has become an IQueryable<MovementSummary>. I'm assuming it has become this as I'm returning an IEnumerable<MovementSummary>. I've only just started learning LINQ, so be gentle.

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  • How do I make a function in SQL Server that accepts a column of data?

    - by brandon k
    I made the following function in SQL Server 2008 earlier this week that takes two parameters and uses them to select a column of "detail" records and returns them as a single varchar list of comma separated values. Now that I get to thinking about it, I would like to take this table and application-specific function and make it more generic. I am not well-versed in defining SQL functions, as this is my first. How can I change this function to accept a single "column" worth of data, so that I can use it in a more generic way? Instead of calling: SELECT ejc_concatFormDetails(formuid, categoryName) I would like to make it work like: SELECT concatColumnValues(SELECT someColumn FROM SomeTable) Here is my function definition: FUNCTION [DNet].[ejc_concatFormDetails](@formuid AS int, @category as VARCHAR(75)) RETURNS VARCHAR(1000) AS BEGIN DECLARE @returnData VARCHAR(1000) DECLARE @currentData VARCHAR(75) DECLARE dataCursor CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT data FROM DNet.ejc_FormDetails WHERE formuid = @formuid AND category = @category SET @returnData = '' OPEN dataCursor FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS = 0) BEGIN SET @returnData = @returnData + ', ' + @currentData FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData END CLOSE dataCursor DEALLOCATE dataCursor RETURN SUBSTRING(@returnData,3,1000) END As you can see, I am selecting the column data within my function and then looping over the results with a cursor to build my comma separated varchar. How can I alter this to accept a single parameter that is a result set and then access that result set with a cursor?

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  • Iterate Through JSON Data for Specific Element - Similar to XPath

    - by Highroller
    I am working on an embedded system and my theory of the overall process follows this methodology: 1. Send a command to the back end asking for account information in JSON format. 2. The back end writes a JSON file with all accounts and associated information (there could be 0 to 16 accounts). 3. Here's where I get stuck - use JavaScript (we are using the JQuery library) to iterate through the returned information for a specific element (similar to XPath) and build an array based on the number of elements found to populate a drop-down box to select the account you want to view and then do stuff with the account info. So my code looks like this: loadAccounts = function() { $.getJSON('/info?q=voip.accounts[]', function(result) { var sipAcnts = $("#sipacnts"); $(sipAcnts).empty(); // empty the dropdown (if necessarry) // Get the 'label' element and stick it in an array // build the array and append it to the sipAcnts dropdown // use array index to ref the accounts info and do stuff with it } So what I need is the JSON version of XPath to build the array of voip.accounts.label. The first account info looks something like this: { "result_set": { "voip.accounts[0]": { "label": "Dispatch1", "enabled": true, "user": "1234", "name": "Jane Doe", "type": "sip", "sip": { "lots and lots of stuff": }, } } } Am I over complicating the issue? Any wisdom anyone could thrown down would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Does IE completely ignore cache control headers for AJAX requests?

    - by Joshua Hayworth
    Hello there, I've got, what I would consider, a simple test web site. A single page with a single button. Here is a copy of the source I'm working with if you would like to download it and play with it. When that button is clicked, it creates a JavaScript timer that executes once a second. When the timer function is executed, An AJAX call is made to retrieve a text value. That text value is then placed into the DOM. What's my problem? IE Caching. Crack open Task Manager and watch what happens to the iexplorer.exe process (IE 8.0.7600.16385 for me) while the timer in that page is executing. See the memory and handle count getting larger? Why is that happening when, by all accounts, I have caching turned off. I've got the jQuery cache option set to false in $.ajaxSetup. I've got the CacheControl header set to no-cache and no-store. The Expires header is set to DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1). The headers are set in both the page code-behind as well as the HTTP Handler's response. Anybody got any ideas as to how I could prevent IE from caching the results of the AJAX call? Here is what the iexplorer.exe process looks like in ProcessMonitor. I believe that the activity shown in this picture is exactly what I'm attempting to prevent.

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  • Utilizing a Queue

    - by Nathan
    I'm trying to store records of transactions all together and by category for the last 1, 7, 30 or 360 days. I've tried a couple things, but they've brutally failed. I had an idea of using a queue with 360 values, one for each day, but I don't know enough about queue's to figure out how that would work. Input will be an instance of this class: class Transaction { public string TotalEarned { get; set; } public string TotalHST { get; set; } public string TotalCost { get; set; } public string Category { get; set; } } New transactions can occur at any time during the day, and there could be as many as 15 transactions in a day. My program is using a plain text file as external storage, but how I load it depends on how I decide to store this data. What would be the best way to do this?

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  • Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

    - by Jon Artus
    I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

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  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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  • Should I still be using jquery .getJson in 1.4.2?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I was looking at the 14 days of jquery http://jquery14.com/day-01/jquery-14 and I saw this and it got me to wondering is there a point to use getJson anymore? JSON and script types auto-detected by content-type (jQuery.ajax Documentation, Commit 1, Commit 2) If the response to an Ajax request is returned with a JSON mime type (application/json), the dataType defaults to “json” (if no dataType is specified). Additionally, if the response to an Ajax request is returned with a JavaScript mime type (text/javascript or application/x-javascript) , the dataType defaults to “script” (if no dataType is specified), causing the script to automatically execute. First I can see such a huge benefit of this. In jquery 1.3 I came to a situation where in some cases I would return a partial view and some cases I would return a json result (asp.net mvc). It worked in firefox but in no other browser and one of the problems was I basically had to tell jquery to either do json or text/html. With it automatically detecting I could get away with this. Anyways I found a solution around this at that time. So now it just makes me wonder if there is any point to using GetJson. I am also unsure how to set these JavaScript mime types? I am assuming that if you return a JsonResult from asp.net mvc it will set it. but I am not sure if I was just sending a text result if it would be set( I am not sure if ContentResult would set this).

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  • multiple ajax request to action in asp.net mvc

    - by persian Dev
    I am developing an asp.net mvc application and have ajax calls on my page. Here is a form which I load by ajax call to page : The form is located in a partial view <div id="CreateCultureArea"> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("CreateCulture", "Admin", new AjaxOptions() { OnSuccess = "handleCreateCulture" })) { %> ..... <% } %> </div> The following script is located in a view $('.CreateCulture').live('click', function (e) { e.preventDefault(); var idval = this.id; $.ajax({ url: "/Admin/CreateCulture", dataType: 'html', data: { id: idval }, success: function (mydata) { $("#CultureContentArea").empty(); $("#CultureContentArea").empty().hide().append(mydata).fadeIn(2000); $("form").removeData("validator"); $("form").removeData("unobtrusiveValidation"); $.validator.unobtrusive.parse("form"); }, type: "GET" }); return false; }) </script> When users click on a link with CreateCulture class, the form is loaded to page. But as I saw the requests in firebug, it calls the action multiple times. I read similar posts like mine on stackoverflow.com and most of them suggested removing repetitive "jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.min.js" calss in page, but as I saw the output page I only see on link to the "jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.min.js" script.

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  • Confusion in MIPS code

    - by Haya Hallian
    While going through the MIPS code I got some confusion. Code is shown as follows .data key: .ascii "key: " # "key: \n" char: .asciiz " \n" .text .globl main main: jal getchar la $a0, char # $a0 contains address of char variable (" \n") sb $v0, ($a0) # replace " " in char with v0, which is read_character (X) la $a0, key # now a0 will contain, address of "key: " "X\n" What I dont understand is that how load address instruction works. First a0 contained address of char variable. In next line we are storing value of v0 in that location. there is no offset with ($a0), is that assumed to be 0 like in 0($a0)? Why only the " " empty space is replaced with v0, and why not the "\n" get replaced? or It may also have been the case that both the empty space and \n character get replced by v0. Secondly when we load the address of key in a0, the previous address should be overwritten. a0 should have contained the address of key only, but from comment it seems that the two strings are concatenated. How does that happen.

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  • jQuery select by two name roots and perform one of two function depending on which root was selected

    - by RetroCoder
    I'm trying to get this code to work in jQuery and I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration of each root element, its alternate root element for that same iteration doesn't contain anything. Otherwise it sets the .val("") property to an empty string. Looking for a simple solution if possible using search, find, or swap. Each matching number is on the same row level and the same iteration count. I have two input types of input text elements with two different root names like so: 1st Root is "rootA" <input type="text" name="rootA1" /> <input type="text" name="rootA2 /> <input type="text" name="rootA3" /> 2nd Root is "rootB" <input type="text" name="rootB1" /> <input type="text" name="rootB2 /> <input type="text" name="rootB3" /> On blur if any of rootA is called call function fnRootA();. On blur if any of rootB is called call function fnRootB();. Again, I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration like 1 that the alternate root doesn't contain anything, else it sets the .val("") property to an empty string of the root being blurred. My current code works for a single element but wanted to use find or search but not sure how to construct it.. $("input[name='rootA1']").blur(function(e) { fnRootA(1); // this code just removes rootA1's value val("") //if rootB1 has something in it value property // the (1) in parenthesis is the iteration number });

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  • Passing additional data value to strongly typed partial views in ASP.NET MVC

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I have an OrderForm domain class, which has property subclasses, something like: interface IOrderForm { int OrderId { get; } ICustomerDetails CustomerDetails { get; set; } IDeliveryDetails DeliveryDetails{ get; set; } IPaymentsDetails PaymentsDetails { get; set; } IOrderDetails OrderDetails { get; set; } } My "Details" view is strongly typed inheriting from IOrderForm. I then have a strongly type partial for rendering each section: <div id="CustomerDetails"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CustomerDetails", Model.CustomerDetails); %> </div> <div id="DeliveryDetails"> <% Html.RenderPartial("DeliveryDetails", Model.DeliveryDetails); %> </div> ... etc This works ok up to this point, but I'm trying to add some nice ajax bits for updating some parts of the order form, and I've realised that each of my partial views also needs access to the IOrderForm.OrderId. Whats the easiest way to give my partials access to this value?

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  • how to fill missing values from a list

    - by Stephane
    I have an object containing a date and a count. public class Stat { public DateTime Stamp {get; set;} public int Count {get; set ;} } I have a Serie object that holds a list of thoses Stat plus some more info such as name and so on... public class Serie { public string Name { get; set; } public List<Stat> Data { get; set; } ... } Consider that I have a List of Serie but the series don't all contain the same Stamps. I need to fill in the missing stamps in all series with a default value. I thought of an extension method with signature like this (please provide better name if you find one :) ) : public static IEnumerable<Serie> Equalize(this IEnumerable<ChartSerie> series, int defaultCount) this question seems to treat the same problem, but when querying directly the DB. of course I could loop through the dates and create another list. But is there any more elegant way to achieve this? i.e.: Serie A: 01.05.2010 1 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 I should get : Serie A : 01.05.2010 1 02.05.2010 0 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 03.05.2010 0

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  • overridePendingTransition doesn't work

    - by Ixx
    Have found already some people asking the same, but the solutions didn't work for me. I see no animation. Calling it this way: Intent intent = new Intent(this, MyActivity.class); startActivity(intent); overridePendingTransition(R.anim.fadein, R.anim.fadeout); fadein.xml and fadeout.xml are in the anim folder: fadein.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" > <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="0.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="1.0" /> </set> fadeout.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="1.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="0.0" /> </set> Using min. API 7: manifest: <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> API 7 is also in my project.properties file: target=android-7 What am I doing wrong? P.D. Removing the lines with the interpolator doesn't change anything. Already seen / tried: overridePendingTransition doesn't work overridePendingTransition does not work when flag_activity_reorder_to_front is used Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Activity transition in Android

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  • Fluent NHibernate no data being returned

    - by czuroski
    Hello, I have been successfully using NHibernate, but now I am trying to move to Fluent NHibernate. I have created all of my mapping files and set up my session manager to use a Fluent Configuration. I then run my application and it runs successfully, but no data is returned. There are no errors or any indication that there is a problem, but nothing runs. when using NHibernate, if I don't set my hbm xml files as an embedded resource, this same thing happens. This makes me wonder what I have to set my Map classes to. Right now, they are just set to Compile, and they are compiled into the dll, which I can see by disassembling it. Does anyone have any thoughts as to what may be happening here? Thanks private ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database( IfxOdbcConfiguration .Informix1000 .ConnectionString("Provider=Ifxoledbc.2;Password=mypass;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=myuser;Data Source=mysource") .Dialect<InformixDialect1000>() .ProxyFactoryFactory<ProxyFactoryFactory>() .Driver<OleDbDriver>() .ShowSql() ) .Mappings( m => m.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<cmCase>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<attorney>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<creditor>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<party>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<person>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<sardbk>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<schedule>() //x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssembly(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()) //.ExportTo("C:\\mappings") ) .BuildSessionFactory(); }

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  • LINQ2SQL: How to let a column accept null values as zero (0) in Self-Relation table

    - by Remon
    As described in the img, I got a parent-Children relation and since the ParentID not accepting null values (and I can't change to nullabel due to some restriction in the UI I have), how can I remove an existence relation between ReportDataSources in order to change the parent for them (here i want to set the parentId for one of them = 0) how could i do that since i cant change the ParentID directly and setting Parent = null is not valid public void SetReportDataSourceAsMaster(ReportDataSource reportDataSource) { //Some logic - not necessarily for this scenario //Reset Master this.ReportDataSources.ToList().ForEach(rds => rds.IsMaster = false); //Set Master reportDataSource.IsMaster = true; //Set Parent ID for the rest of the Reports data sources this.ReportDataSources.Where(rds => rds.ID != reportDataSource.ID).ToList().ForEach(rds => { //Change Parent ID rds.Parent = reportDataSource; //Remove filttering data rds.FilteringDataMembers.Clear(); //Remove Grouping Data rds.GroupingDataMembers.Clear(); }); //Delete parent HERE THE EXCEPTION THROWN AFTER CALLING SUBMITCHANGES() reportDataSource.Parent = null; //Other logic } Exception thrown after calling submitChanges An attempt was made to remove a relationship between a ReportDataSource and a ReportDataSource. However, one of the relationship's foreign keys (ReportDataSource.ParentID) cannot be set to null.

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  • Adapting pseudocode to java implementation for finding the longest word in a trie

    - by user1766888
    Referring to this question I asked: How to find the longest word in a trie? I'm having trouble implementing the pseudocode given in the answer. findLongest(trie): //first do a BFS and find the "last node" queue <- [] queue.add(trie.root) last <- nil map <- empty map while (not queue.empty()): curr <- queue.pop() for each son of curr: queue.add(son) map.put(son,curr) //marking curr as the parent of son last <- curr //in here, last indicate the leaf of the longest word //Now, go up the trie and find the actual path/string curr <- last str = "" while (curr != nil): str = curr + str //we go from end to start curr = map.get(curr) return str This is what I have for my method public static String longestWord (DTN d) { Queue<DTN> holding = new ArrayQueue<DTN>(); holding.add(d); DTN last = null; Map<DTN,DTN> test = new ArrayMap<DTN,DTN>(); DTN curr; while (!holding.isEmpty()) { curr = holding.remove(); for (Map.Entry<String, DTN> e : curr.children.entries()) { holding.add(curr.children.get(e)); test.put(curr.children.get(e), curr); } last = curr; } curr = last; String str = ""; while (curr != null) { str = curr + str; curr = test.get(curr); } return str; } I'm getting a NullPointerException at: for (Map.Entry<String, DTN> e : curr.children.entries()) How can I find and fix the cause of the NullPointerException of the method so that it returns the longest word in a trie?

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  • Binding the selected value from a combobox to a member of a class.

    - by CM
    I have a combobox that is bound to a an instance of a class. I need to get the user's selection ID of the combobox and set a class property equal to it. For example, here is the class: public class robot { private string _ID; private string _name; private string _configFile; [XmlElement("hardware")] public hardware[] hardware; public string ID { get { return _ID; } set { _ID = value; } } public string name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } public string configFile { get { return _configFile; } set { _configFile = value; } } } Now here is the code to bind the combobox to an instance of that class. This display's the name of each robot in the array in the combobox. private void SetupDevicesComboBox() { robot[] robot = CommConfig.robot; cmbDevices.DataSource = robot; cmbDevices.DisplayMember = "name"; cmbDevices.ValueMember = "ID"; } But now I can't seem to take what the user selects and use it. How do I use the "ID" of what the user select's from the combobox? Settings.selectedRobotID = cmbDevices.ValueMember; //This just generates "ID" regardless of what is selected. I also tried Settings.selectedRobotID = cmbDevices.SelectedItem.ToString(); //This just generates "CommConfig.robot" Thanks

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  • Laravel4: Checking many-to-many relationship attribute even when it does not exist

    - by Simo A.
    This is my first time with Laravel and also Stackoverflow... I am developing a simple course management system. The main objects are User and Course, with a many-to-many relationship between them. The pivot table has an additional attribute, participant_role, which defines whether the user is a student or an instructor within that particular course. class Course extends Eloquent { public function users() { return $this->belongsToMany('User')->withPivot('participant_role')->withTimestamps(); } } However, there is an additional role, system admin, which can be defined on the User object. And this brings me mucho headache. In my blade view I have the following: @if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something here... } This works fine when the user has been assigned to that particular $course and there is an entry for this user-course combination in the pivot table. However, the problem is the system administrator, who also should be able to access course details. The if-clause above gives Trying to get property of non-object error, apparently because there is no entry in the pivot table for system administrator (as the role is defined within the User object). I could probably solve the problem by using some off-the-shelf bundle for handling role-based permissions. Or I could (but don't want to) do something like this with two internal if-clauses: if (!empty($course->pivot)) { if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something... } } Other options (suggested in partially similar entries in Stackoverflow) would include 1) reading all the pivot table entries to an array, and use in_array to check if a role exists, or even 2) SQL left join to do this on database level. However, ultimately I am looking for a compact one-line solution? Can I do anything similar to this, which unfortunately does not seem to work? if (! empty ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') ) { // do something... } The shorter the answer, the better :-). Thanks a lot!

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  • INotifyPropertyChanged event listener within respective class not firing on client side (silverlight)

    - by Rob
    I'm trying to work out if there's a simple way to internalize the handling of a property change event on a Custom Entity as I need to perform some bubbling of the changes to a child collection within the class when the Background Property is changed via a XAML binding: public class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { [Key] public int MyClassId { get; set; } [DataMember] public ObservableCollection<ChildMyClass> MyChildren { get; set; } public string _backgroundColor; [DataMember] public string BackgroundColor { get { return this._backgroundColor; } set { this._backgroundColor = value; if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("BackgroundColor")); } } } public MyClass() { this.BackgroundColor = "#FFFFFFFF"; this.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { //Do something here - fires client side but not server side } } I can listen to the event by externalizing it without any problems but it's an ugly way to handle something that want to set and forget inside my class e.g.: public class SomeOtherClass { public SomeOtherClass() { MyClass mc = new MyClass(); mc.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { MyClass mc = (MyClass)sender; mc.UpdateChildren(); } }

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  • XML Serialization : Has property of type Class1 : Class1 has another property : How to write the property of Class1 into XML?

    - by Wonderlander
    I want to serialize a class. In this class there's a property, type of Class1, while there are other properties in Class1. public abstract class ComponentBase { [ToSerialize]//An attribute defined my me, indicating whether or not to serialize this property. public ComponentArgs Parameters { get; set; } } public class ComponentArgs { public string WorkingPath { get; set; } public IList<Language> Languages { get; set; } public string ComponentOutputPath { get; set; } } The information serialized must be put into a Dictionary, such as ComponentSettings[str_Name]=str_Value. The method used in reading this value is Reflection. pinfo: Property Info got via Type.GetProperties(); componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); The information after serialization is: <Parameters>MS.STBIntl.Pippin.Framework.ComponentArgs</Parameters> instead of the value of ComponentArgs.WorkingPath. The solution I thought of is to append to the following line an if judgement: componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); if(pinfo is ComponentArgs) componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue( (ComponentArgs)this, null).WorkingPath+"\n"+ LanguageList+"\n"+ //Language list is a concatinated string of all elements in the list. (ComponentArgs)this, null).ComponentOutputPath+"\n"+ ); When deserializing, add a judgement of whether the value contains more than 2 "\n", if so, extract each value from the string. But this way seems clumsy and much more like an workaround. I wonder if there's any more professional way of doing it? My reviewer is very particular and he won't accept such a solution. If you know a way, could you please share it with me? Thanks a lot.

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  • Jquery plugin seems to leak memory no matter what I do

    - by ddombrow
    I've recently been tasked with ferreting out some memory leaks in an application for my work. I've narrowed down one of the big leaks to a jquery plugin. It appears we're using a modified version of a popular context menu jquery plugin. It looks like one of the developers before me attempted to add a destroy method. I noticed it wasn't very well written and attempted to rewrite. Here's the meat of my destroy method: if (menu.childMenus) { for (var i = 0; i < menu.childMenus.length; i++) { $(menu.childMenus[i]).destroy(menu.childMenus[i], 'contextmenu'); } } var recursiveUnbind = function(node) { $(node).unbind(); //$(node).empty().remove(); $.each(node, function(obj) { recursiveUnbind(obj); }); }; $.each(menu, function() { recursiveUnbind(menu); }); $(menu).empty().remove(); In my mind this code should blow away all the jquery event binding and remove the dom elements, yet still the plugin leaks gobs of memory in IE7. The modified plugin with a test page can be found here: http://www.olduglyhead.com/jquery/leaks/ Clicking the button repeatedly will cause IE7 to leak a bunch of memory.

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  • C# properties: How are they instantiated?

    - by Pedery
    Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

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