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  • Node.js Cron Job Messing with Date Object

    - by PazoozaTest Pazman
    I'm trying to schedule several cron jobs to generate serial numbers for different entities within my web app. However I am running into this problem, when I'm looping each table, it says it has something to do with date.js. I'm not doing anything with a date object ? Not at this stage anyway. A couple of guesses is that the cron object is doing a date thing in its code and is referencing date.js. I'm using date.js to get access to things like ISO date. for (t in config.generatorTables) { console.log("t = " + config.generatorTables[t] + "\n\n"); var ts3 = azure.createTableService(); var jobSerialNumbers = new cronJob({ //cronTime: '*/' + rndNumber + ' * * * * *', cronTime: '*/1 * * * * *', onTick: function () { //console.log(new Date() + " calling topUpSerialNumbers \n\n"); manageSerialNumbers.topUpSerialNumbers(config.generatorTables[t], function () { }); }, start: false, timeZone: "America/Los_Angeles" }); ts3.createTableIfNotExists(config.generatorTables[t], function (error) { if (error === null) { var query = azure.TableQuery .select() .from(config.generatorTables[t]) .where('PartitionKey eq ?', '0') ts3.queryEntities(query, function (error, serialNumberEntities) { if (error === null && serialNumberEntities.length == 0) { manageSerialNumbers.generateNewNumbers(config.maxNumber, config.serialNumberSize, config.generatorTables[t], function () { jobSerialNumbers.start(); }); } else jobSerialNumbers.start(); }); } }); } And this is the error message I'm getting when I examine the server.js.logs\0.txt file: C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56 onsole.log('isDST'); return this.toString().match(/(E|C|M|P)(S|D)T/)[2] == "D" ^ TypeError: Cannot read property '2' of null at Date.isDST (C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56:110) at Date.getTimezone (C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56:228) at Object._getNextDateFrom (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:88:30) at Object.sendAt (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:51:17) at Object.getTimeout (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:58:30) at Object.start (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:279:33) at C:\node\w\WebRole1\server.js:169:46 at Object.generateNewNumbers (C:\node\w\WebRole1\utils\manageSerialNumbers.js:106:5) at C:\node\w\WebRole1\server.js:168:45 at C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\azure\lib\services\table\tableservice.js:485:7 I am using this line in my database.js file: require('../public/javascripts/date'); is that correct that I only have to do this once, because date.js is global? I.e. it has a bunch of prototypes (extensions) for the inbuilt date object. Within manageSerialNumbers.js I am just doing a callback, their is no code executing as I've commented it all out, but still receiving this error. Any help or advice would be appreciated.

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  • Hibernate/Spring: getHibernateTemplate().save(...) Freezes/Hangs

    - by ashes999
    I'm using Hibernate and Spring with the DAO pattern (all Hibernate dependencies in a *DAO.java class). I have nine unit tests (JUnit) which create some business objects, save them, and perform operations on them; the objects are in a hash (so I'm reusing the same objects all the time). My JUnit setup method calls my DAO.deleteAllObjects() method which calls getSession().createSQLQuery("DELETE FROM <tablename>").executeUpdate() for my business object table (just one). One of my unit tests (#8/9) freezes. I presumed it was a database deadlock, because the Hibernate log file shows my delete statement last. However, debugging showed that it's simply HibernateTemplate.save(someObject) that's freezing. (Eclipse shows that it's freezing on HibernateTemplate.save(Object), line 694.) Also interesting to note is that running this test by itself (not in the suite of 9 tests) doesn't cause any problems. How on earth do I troubleshoot and fix this? Also, I'm using @Entity annotations, if that matters. Edit: I removed reuse of my business objects (use unique objects in every method) -- didn't make a difference (still freezes). Edit: This started trickling into other tests, too (can't run more than one test class without getting something freezing) Transaction configuration: <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdvice" transaction-manager="txManager"> <!-- the transactional semantics... --> <tx:attributes> <!-- all methods starting with 'get' are read-only --> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true" /> <tx:method name="find*" read-only="true" /> <!-- other methods use the default transaction settings (see below) --> <tx:method name="*" /> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <!-- my bean which is exhibiting the hanging behavior --> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="beanNameHere" expression="execution(* com.blah.blah.IMyDAO.*(..))" /> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdvice" pointcut-ref="beanNameHere" /> </aop:config>

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  • Dynamic swappable Data Access Layer

    - by Andy
    I'm writing a data driven WPF client. The client will typically pull data from a WCF service, which queries a SQL db, but I'd like the option to pull the data directly from SQL or other arbitrary data sources. I've come up with this design and would like to hear your opinion on whether it is the best design. First, we have some data object we'd like to extract from SQL. // The Data Object with a single property public class Customer { private string m_Name = string.Empty; public string Name { get { return m_Name; } set { m_Name = value;} } } Then I plan on using an interface which all data access layers should implement. Suppose one could also use an abstract class. Thoughts? // The interface with a single method interface ICustomerFacade { List<Customer> GetAll(); } One can create a SQL implementation. // Sql Implementation public class SqlCustomrFacade : ICustomerFacade { public List<Customer> GetAll() { // Query SQL db and return something useful // ... return new List<Customer>(); } } We can also create a WCF implementation. The problem with WCF is is that it doesn't use the same data object. It creates its own local version, so we would have to copy the details over somehow. I suppose one could use reflection to copy the values of similar fields across. Thoughts? // Wcf Implementation public class WcfCustomrFacade : ICustomerFacade { public List<Customer> GetAll() { // Get date from the Wcf Service (not defined here) List<WcfService.Customer> wcfCustomers = wcfService.GetAllCustomers(); // The list we're going to return List<Customer> customers = new List<Customer>(); // This is horrible foreach(WcfService.Customer wcfCustomer in wcfCustomers) { Customer customer = new Customer(); customer.Name = wcfCustomer.Name; customers.Add(customer); } return customers; } } I also plan on using a factory to decide which facade to use. // Factory pattern public class FacadeFactory() { public static ICustomerFacade CreateCustomerFacade() { // Determine the facade to use if (ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["DAL"] == "Sql") return new SqlCustomrFacade(); else return new WcfCustomrFacade(); } } This is how the DAL would typically be used. // Test application public class MyApp { public static void Main() { ICustomerFacade cf = FacadeFactory.CreateCustomerFacade(); cf.GetAll(); } } I appreciate your thoughts and time.

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  • How can I obtain the IPv4 address of the client?

    - by Dr Dork
    Hello! I'm prepping for a simple work project and am trying to familiarize myself with the basics of socket programming in a Unix dev environment. At this point, I have some basic server side code setup to listen for incoming TCP connection requests from clients after the parent socket has been created and is set to listen... int sockfd, newfd; unsigned int len; socklen_t sin_size; char msg[]="Test message sent"; char buf[MAXLEN]; int st, rv; struct addrinfo hints, *serverinfo, *p; struct sockaddr_storage client; char ip[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; . . //parent socket creation and listen code omitted for simplicity . //wait for connection requests from clients while(1) { //Returns the socketID and address of client connecting to socket if( ( newfd = accept(sockfd, (struct sockaddr *)&client, &len) ) == -1 ){ perror("Accept"); exit(-1); } if( (rv = recv(newfd, buf, MAXLEN-1, 0 )) == -1) { perror("Recv"); exit(-1); } struct sockaddr_in *clientAddr = ( struct sockaddr_in *) get_in_addr((struct sockaddr *)&client); inet_ntop(client.ss_family, clientAddr, ip, sizeof ip); printf("Receive from %s: query type is %s\n", ip, buf); if( ( st = send(newfd, msg, strlen(msg), 0)) == -1 ) { perror("Send"); exit(-1); } //ntohs is used to avoid big-endian and little endian compatibility issues printf("Send %d byte to port %d\n", ntohs(clientAddr->sin_port) ); close(newfd); } } I found the get_in_addr function online and placed it at the top of my code and use it to obtain the IP address of the client connecting... // get sockaddr, IPv4 or IPv6: void *get_in_addr(struct sockaddr *sa) { if (sa->sa_family == AF_INET) { return &(((struct sockaddr_in*)sa)->sin_addr); } return &(((struct sockaddr_in6*)sa)->sin6_addr); } but the function always returns the IPv6 IP address since thats what the sa_family property is set as. My question is, is the IPv4 IP address stored anywhere in the data I'm using and, if so, how can I access it? Thanks so much in advance for all your help!

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  • Meshing different systems of keys together in XML Schema

    - by Tom W
    Hello SO, I'd like to ask people's thoughts on an XSD problem I've been pondering. The system I am trying to model is thus: I have a general type that represents some item in a hypothetical model. The type is abstract and will be inherited by all manner of different model objects, so the model is heterogeneous. Furthermore, some types exist only as children of other types. Objects are to be given an identifier, but the scope of uniqueness of this identifier varies. Some objects - we will call them P (for Parent) objects - must have a globally unique identifier. This is straightforward and can use the xs:key schema element. Other objects (we can call them C objects, for Child) are children of a P object and must have an identifier that is unique only in the scope of that parent. For example, object P1 has two children, object C1 and C2, and object P2 has one child, object C3. In this system, the identifiers given could be as follows: P1: 1 (1st P object globally) P2: 2 (2nd P object globally) C1: 1 (1st C object of P1) C2: 2 (2nd C object of P1) C3: 1 (1st C object of P2) I want the identity syntax of every model object to be identical if possible, therefore my first pass at implementing is to define a single type: <xs:complexType name="ModelElement"> <xs:attribute name="IDMode" type="IdentityMode"/> <xs:attribute name="Identifier" type="xs:string"/> </xs:complexType> where the IdentityMode is an enumerated value: <xs:simpleType name="IdentityMode"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="Identified"/> <xs:enumeration value="Indexed"/> <xs:enumeration value="None"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> Here "Identified" signifies a global identifier, and "Indexed" indicates an identifier local only to the parent. My question is, how do I enforce these uniqueness conditions using unique, key or other schema elements based on the IdentityMode property of the given subtype of ModelElement?

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  • Representation of a DateTime as the local to remote user

    - by TwoSecondsBefore
    Hello! I was confused in the problem of time zones. I am writing a web application that will contain some news with dates of publication, and I want the client to see the date of publication of the news in the form of corresponding local time. However, I do not know in which time zone the client is located. I have three questions. I have to ask just in case: does DateTimeOffset.UtcNow always returns the correct UTC date and time, regardless of whether the server is dependent on daylight savings time? For example, if the first time I get the value of this property for two minutes before daylight savings time (or before the transition from daylight saving time back) and the second time in 2 minutes after the transfer, whether the value of properties in all cases differ by only 4 minutes? Or here require any further logic? (Question #1) Please see the following example and tell me what you think. I posted the news on the site. I assume that DateTimeOffset.UtcNow takes into account the time zone of the server and the daylight savings time, and so I immediately get the correct UTC server time when pressing the button "Submit". I write this value to a MS SQL database in the field of type datetime2(0). Then the user opens a page with news and no matter how long after publication. This may occur even after many years. I did not ask him to enter his time zone. Instead, I get the offset of his current local time from UTC using the javascript function following way: function GetUserTimezoneOffset() { var offset = new Date().getTimezoneOffset(); return offset; } Next I make the calculation of the date and time of publication, which will show the user: public static DateTime Get_Publication_Date_In_User_Local_DateTime( DateTime Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, int User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript) { int userTimezoneOffset = User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript; // For // example Javascript returns a value equal to -300, which means the // current user's time differs from UTC to 300 minutes. Ie offset // is UTC +6. In this case, it may be the time zone UTC +5 which // currently operates summer time or UTC +6 which currently operates the // standard time. // Right? (Question #2) DateTimeOffset utcPublicationDateTime = new DateTimeOffset(Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, new TimeSpan(0)); // get an instance of type DateTimeOffset for the // date and time of publication for further calculations DateTimeOffset publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime = utcPublicationDateTime.ToOffset(new TimeSpan(0, - userTimezoneOffset, 0)); return publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime.DateTime;// return to user } Is the value obtained correct? Is this the right approach to solving this problem? (Question #3)

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  • Using PHP5s SOAP Client to send data to an ASP/.NET based SOAP server.

    - by user325143
    I am trying to write a snippet of PHP to connect to a third party's API via SOAP to enter some data into their database. The API requires me to pass several mandatory fields for every call (username, password, companyid, entitytype) in addition to the mandatory data fields. It also requires me to call the "ValidateEntity" funciton before calling the "CreateEntity" function. Documentation can be found here: http://wiki.agemni.com/Getting_Started/APIs/Database_API I have never worked with SOAP before, so I am very new to this. Here is what I have so far: error_reporting(E_ALL); ini_set('display_errors', '1'); $client = new SoapClient("http://agemni.com/AgemniWebservices/service1.asmx?WSDL", array('trace'=> true)); $options = array( 'username' => "myuser", 'password' => "mypassword", 'companyid' => myID, 'entitytype' => 2 ); $params = array( 'fname' => "John", 'lname' => "Doe", 'phone' => "859-333-3333", 'zip' => "40332", 'area id' => "12345", 'lead id' => "28222", 'contactdate' => "4/10/2010" ); $validate = $client->__soapCall("ValidateEntity", array($params), array($options)); $client->__soapCall("CreateEntity", array($params), array($options)); echo "<pre>"; var_dump($client-> __getLastRequestHeaders()); var_dump($client-> __getLastRequest()); var_dump($client-> __getLastResponseHeaders()); var_dump($client-> __getLastResponse()); var_dump($result); echo "</pre>"; Upon executing this code, I get the following error: Fatal error: Uncaught SoapFault exception: [Client] SOAP-ERROR: Encoding: object hasn't 'objecttype' property in /www/tmp/index-soap.php:24 Stack trace: #0 /www/tmp/index-soap.php(24): SoapClient->__soapCall('ValidateEntity', Array) #1 {main} thrown in /www/stealth/tmp/index-soap.php on line 24 I guess my question is.. am I even going about doing this the right way? I know this is a very broad question, but I appreciate any advice you can give me about making this work. Please let me know if you require more detail. Thanks!

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  • jquery animation problem using stop

    - by Flanders
    Hi! When running a Jquery animation like slideDown(), it looks like a number of element-specific css properties is set to be updated at a specific interval and when the animation is complete these properties are unset and the display property is simply set to auto or whatever. At least in firebug you can't see those temporary properties any more. The problem I've encountered is the scenario where we stop the slide down with stop(). The element is then left with the current temporary css values. Which is fine because it has to, but let us say that I stoped the slidedown because I have decided to slide it back up again a bit prematurely. It would look something like this: $(this).slideDown(2000) //The below events is not in queue but will rather start execute almost simultaneously as the above line. (dont remember the exact syntax) $(this).delay(1000).stop().slideUp(2000) The above code might not make much sense, but the point is: After 1 second of sliding down the animation is stopped and it starts to slide back up. Works like a charm. BUT!!! And here is the problem. Once it it has slid back up the elements css properties are reset to the exact values it had 1000ms into the slideDown() animation (when stop() was called). If we now try to run the following: $(this).slideDown(2000) It will slide down to the very point the prior slideDown was aborted and not further at half the speed (since it uses the same time for approximately half the height). This is because the css properties were saved as I see it. But it is not especially wished for. Of course I want it to slide all the way down this time. Due to UI interaction that is hard to predict everything might soon break. The longer animations we use increases the risk of something like this happening. Is this to be considered a bug, or am I doing something wrong? Or maybe it's just a feature that is not supported? I guess I can use a callback function to reset the css properties, but depending on the animation used, different css properties are used to render it, and covering your back would result in quite a not-so-fancy solution.

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  • Crossthread exception and invokerequired solution doesn't change my control value

    - by Pilouk
    EDIT Solution : Here i'm setting my byref value in each object then i'm running a backgroundworker Private Sub TelechargeFichier() Dim DocManquant As Boolean = False Dim docName As String = "" Dim lg As String = "" Dim telechargementFini As Boolean = False lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1478") prgBar.Maximum = m_listeFichiers.Count For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeFichiers.Count - 1 m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefLabel(lblMessage) m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefPrgbar(prgBar) m_listeThreads.Add(New Thread(AddressOf m_listeFichiers(i).DownloadMe)) Next m_bgWorker = New BackgroundWorker m_bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress = True AddHandler m_bgWorker.DoWork, AddressOf DownloadFiles m_bgWorker.RunWorkerAsync() ''Completed 'lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1383") 'Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK End Sub Here is my downloadFiles function : Note that each start will do the downloadMe function see below too Private Sub DownloadFiles(sender As Object, e As DoWorkEventArgs) For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Start() Next For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Join() Next End Sub I have multiple thread that each will download a ftp file. I would like that each file that have been completed will set a value to a progress bar and a label from my UI thread. For some reason invokerequired never change to false. Here is my little function that start all the thread Private Sub TelechargeFichier() Dim DocManquant As Boolean = False Dim docName As String = "" Dim lg As String = "" Dim telechargementFini As Boolean = False lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1478") prgBar.Maximum = m_listeFichiers.Count For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeFichiers.Count - 1 m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefLabel(lblMessage) m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefPrgbar(prgBar) m_listeThreads.Add(New Thread(AddressOf m_listeFichiers(i).DownloadMe)) Next For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Start() Next For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Join() Next 'Completed lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1383") Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK End Sub Here my property that hold the Byref control from the UI thread. This is in my object which content the addressof function that will download the file (DownloadMe) Public Sub Set_ByRefPrgbar(ByRef prgbar As ProgressBar) m_prgBar = prgbar End Sub Public Sub Set_ByRefLabel(ByRef lbl As EasyDeal.Controls.EasyDealLabel3D) m_lblMessage = lbl End Sub Here is the download function : Public Sub DownloadMe() Dim ftpReq As FtpWebRequest Dim ftpResp As FtpWebResponse = Nothing Dim streamInput As Stream Dim fileStreamOutput As FileStream Try ftpReq = CType(WebRequest.Create(EasyDeal.Controls.Common.FTP_CONNECTION & m_downloadFtpPath & m_filename), FtpWebRequest) ftpReq.Credentials = New NetworkCredential(FTP_USER, FTP_PASS) ftpReq.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.DownloadFile ftpResp = ftpReq.GetResponse streamInput = ftpResp.GetResponseStream() fileStreamOutput = New FileStream(m_outputPath, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.ReadWrite) ReadWriteStream(streamInput, fileStreamOutput) Catch ex As Exception 'Au pire la fichier sera pas downloader Finally If ftpResp IsNot Nothing Then ftpResp.Close() End If Dim nomFichier As String = m_displaynameEN If EasyDealChangeLanguage.GetCurrentLanguageTypes = EasyDealChangeLanguage.EnumLanguageType.Francais Then nomFichier = m_displaynameFR End If If m_lblMessage IsNot Nothing Then EasyDealCommon.TH_SetControlText(m_lblMessage, String.Format(EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1479"), nomFichier)) End If If m_prgBar IsNot Nothing Then EasyDealCommon.TH_SetPrgValue(m_prgBar, 1) End If End Try End Sub Here is the crossthread invoke solution function : Public Sub TH_SetControlText(ByVal ctl As Control, ByVal text As String) If ctl.InvokeRequired Then ctl.BeginInvoke(New Action(Of Control, String)(AddressOf TH_SetControlText), ctl, text) Else ctl.Text = text End If End Sub Public Sub TH_SetPrgValue(ByVal prg As ProgressBar, ByVal value As Integer) If prg.InvokeRequired Then prg.BeginInvoke(New Action(Of ProgressBar, Integer)(AddressOf TH_SetPrgValue), prg, value) Else prg.Value += value End If End Sub The problem is the invokerequired never get to false it actually goes in to beginInvoke but never end in the Else section to set the value.

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  • How do I change text color on the selected row inside a ListView/GridView? (using Expression Dark th

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I'm using theExpression Dark WPF Theme(http://wpfthemes.codeplex.com/) with a ListView(view property set to a GridView) to display some user data like the following : <ListView Grid.Row="1" ItemsSource="{Binding RegisteredUsers}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedUser}" > <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Login" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Login}" Width="60"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Full Name" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding FullName}" Width="180"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Last logon" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding LastLogon}" Width="120"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Photo" Width="50"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Image Source="{Binding Photo}" Width="30" Height="35"/> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> The rows have white text with a dark background and white background when selected, however the text color doesnt change when selected and it makes very difficult to read, I would like the text to have a dark color when the row is selected. I have searched for a way to style the text color but with no success, here is the control template for the ListViewItem : <Border SnapsToDevicePixels="true" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" CornerRadius="2" x:Name="border"> <Grid Margin="2,0,2,0"> <Rectangle x:Name="Background" IsHitTestVisible="False" Opacity="0.25" Fill="{StaticResource NormalBrush}" RadiusX="1" RadiusY="1"/> <Rectangle x:Name="HoverRectangle" IsHitTestVisible="False" Opacity="0" Fill="{StaticResource NormalBrush}" RadiusX="1" RadiusY="1"/> <Rectangle x:Name="SelectedRectangle" IsHitTestVisible="False" Opacity="0" Fill="{StaticResource SelectedBackgroundBrush}" RadiusX="1" RadiusY="1"/> <GridViewRowPresenter SnapsToDevicePixels="{TemplateBinding SnapsToDevicePixels}" Margin="0,2,0,2" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" /> </Grid> </Border> The trigger that changes the background color simply applies an animation to change the 'SelectedRectangle' opacity, but I cant change the text color on the same trigger(I tried using a setter for the foreground color on the ListViewItem, but with no success). Does someone have a clue on that?

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  • Improved way to build nested array of unique values in javascript

    - by dualmon
    The setup: I have a nested html table structure that displays hierarchical data, and the individual rows can be hidden or shown by the user. Each row has a dom id that is comprised of the level number plus the primary key for the record type on that level. I have to have both, because each level is from a different database table, so the primary key alone is not unique in the dom. example: id="level-1-row-216" I am storing the levels and rows of the visible elements in a cookie, so that when the page reloads the same rows the user had open are can be shown automatically. I don't store the full map of dom ids, because I'm concerned about it getting too verbose, and I want to keep my cookie under 4Kb. So I convert the dom ids to a compact json object like this, with one property for each level, and a unique array of primary keys under each level: { 1:[231,432,7656], 2:[234,121], 3:[234,2], 4:[222,423], 5:[222] } With this structure stored in a cookie, I feed it to my show function and restore the user's previous disclosure state when the page loads. The area for improvement: I'm looking for better option for reducing my map of id selectors down to this compact format. Here is my function: function getVisibleIds(){ // example dom id: level-1-row-216-sub var ids = $("tr#[id^=level]:visible").map(function() { return this.id; }); var levels = {}; for(var i in ids ) { var id = ids[i]; if (typeof id == 'string'){ if (id.match(/^level/)){ // here we extract the number for level and row var level = id.replace(/.*(level-)(\d*)(.*)/, '$2'); var row = id.replace(/.*(row-)(\d*)(.*)/, '$2'); // *** Improvement here? *** // This works, but it seems klugy. In PHP it's one line (see below): if(levels.hasOwnProperty(level)){ if($.inArray(parseInt(row, 10) ,levels[level]) == -1){ levels[level].push(parseInt(row, 10)); } } else { levels[level] = [parseInt(row, 10)]; } } } } return levels; } If I were doing it in PHP, I'd build the compact array like this, but I can't figure it out in javascript: foreach($ids as $id) { if (/* the criteria */){ $level = /* extract it from $id */; $row = /* extract it from $id */; $levels[$level][$row]; } }

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  • WPF: Can't get to original source from ExecutedRoutedEventArgs

    - by Ikhail
    I have a problem getting to the original source of a command using ExecutedRoutedEventArgs. I'm creating a simple splitbutton, in which a menu will appear below a dedicated button, as another button is pressed. When I click a menuitem in the appearing menu a command is fired. This command is registered on the splitbutton. And the idea is to get to the menuitem beeing clicked, by using the ExecutedRoutedEventsArgs. Ok, now the problem. If I choose to have the popup menu shown by default (IsOpen="True") and I click one of the menuitems I can get to the originalsource (thus the menuitem) from the ExecutedRoutedEventArgs - no problem. However, if I first click the button to show the menu and THEN click on a menuitem, the originalsource of the command will be the button instead of the MenuItem! Here's the controltemplate for the splitbutton: <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type usc:SplitButton}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Button Name="mybutton"> <StackPanel> <Popup usc:SplitButton.IsPopup="True" IsOpen="True" Name="myPopup" PlacementTarget="{Binding ElementName=mybutton}" StaysOpen="False" Placement="Bottom"> <Border BorderBrush="Beige" BorderThickness="1"> <Menu Width="120"> <MenuItem Header="item1" Command="usc:SplitButton.MenuItemClickCommand" /> <MenuItem Header="item2" /> <MenuItem Header="item3" /> </Menu> </Border> </Popup> <TextBlock Text="MySplitbutton" /> </StackPanel> </Button> <Button Content="OK" Command="usc:SplitButton.ShowMenuCommand" /> </StackPanel> </ControlTemplate> The OK button fires a ShowMenuCommand on the SplitButton, which sets the IsOpen property on the Popup to True. Any ideas why the OK button (after having activated the menu) is the OriginalSource when a menuitem is clicked? Thanks.

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  • Not able to select a row in my ListView

    - by Krishna Thota
    I'm not able to select a row in my list Item Here is my code <Grid DockPanel.Dock="Left" MinWidth="250"> <ListView x:Name="ListVendors" ItemsSource="{Binding SourceCollection}"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridView.ColumnHeaderContainerStyle> <Style><Setter Property="FrameworkElement.Visibility" Value="Collapsed"/></Style> </GridView.ColumnHeaderContainerStyle> <GridViewColumn> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding Name}" FontSize="20"/> <TextBlock Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Code}" Foreground="Gray" /> <TextBlock Grid.Row="2" Text="{Binding ContactNo}" Foreground="Gray" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <GridViewColumn> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding Path=Address, Converter={StaticResource addNewLineConv}}" Grid.RowSpan="3" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <GridViewColumn> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Row="2" Text="{Binding Email}"/> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <GridViewColumn DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Email}" Header="Email"/> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> How can I select a row in this ListView?

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  • how to populate the tables within xmlDataDocument.DataSet

    - by alex
    Hi all: I am working on a C# application that involves using XML schema file as databases for message definitions and XML file as databases for message data. I was following the example I found:http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.xml.xmldatadocument.dataset%28v=VS.100%29.aspx I wrote my own xsd and XML file. I used the same approach in the example, read the xsd file and then load the xml file. But I don't have any "Rows" created for my DataTable. I used debugger to step through my codes. When I am get my DataTable use xmlDataDocument.DataSet.Tables["name of the table"], the Rows property of that tables is 0. Does anybody know what might cause the DataSet tables not get populated after I loaded the xmlDataDocument with XML file? Here is a fragment of XSD file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema id="test" targetNamespace="http://tempuri.org/test.xsd" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns="http://tempuri.org/test.xsd" xmlns:mstns="http://tempuri.org/test.xsd" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" > <xs:element name="reboot_msg"> <xs:complexType> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="header_s"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="que_name"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="4"/> <xs:maxLength value="8"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="priority" type="xs:unsignedShort"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> and here is a fragment of the XML file: <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <test xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > <reboot_msg> <message_length>16</message_length> <message_type>7</message_type> <message_sequence>0</message_sequence> <que_name>NONE</que_name> <priority>5</priority> </reboot_msg> It could be the XML and XSD file I created missed something. Please help. Thanks

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  • IList<T> and IReadOnlyList<T>

    - by Safak Gür
    My problem is that I have a method that can take a collection as parameter that, Has a Count property Has an integer indexer (get-only) And I don't know what type should this parameter be. I would choose IList<T> before .NET 4.5 since there is no other indexable collection interface for this and arrays implement it, which is a big plus. But .NET 4.5 introduces the new IReadOnlyList<T> interface and I want my method to support that, too. How can I write this method to support both IList<T> and IReadOnlyList<T> without violating the basic principles like DRY? Can I convert IList<T> to IReadOnlyList<T> somehow in an overload? What is the way to go here? Edit: Daniel's answer gave me some pretty ideas, I guess I'll go with this: public void Do<T>(IList<T> collection) { DoInternal(collection, collection.Count, i => collection[i]); } public void Do<T>(IReadOnlyList<T> collection) { DoInternal(collection, collection.Count, i => collection[i]); } private void DoInternal<T>(IEnumerable<T> collection, int count, Func<int, T> indexer) { // Stuff } Or I could just accept a ReadOnlyList<T> and provide an helper like this: public static class CollectionEx { public static IReadOnlyList<T> AsReadOnly<T>(this IList<T> collection) { if (collection == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("collection"); return new ReadOnlyWrapper<T>(collection); } private sealed class ReadOnlyWrapper<T> : IReadOnlyList<T> { private readonly IList<T> _Source; public int Count { get { return _Source.Count; } } public T this[int index] { get { return _Source[index]; } } public ReadOnlyWrapper(IList<T> source) { _Source = source; } public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { return _Source.GetEnumerator(); } IEnumerator IEnumerable.GetEnumerator() { return GetEnumerator(); } } } Then I could call Do(array.AsReadOnly())

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  • Yii Many_Many Relationship and Form

    - by Thorpe Obazee
    // Post model return array( 'categories' => array(self::HAS_MANY, 'Category', 'posts_categories(post_id, category_id)') ); I already have the setup of tables posts id, title, content categories id, name posts_categories post_id, category_i The problem I have is that I am getting an error when creating this form: <?php $form=$this->beginWidget('CActiveForm', array( 'id'=>'post-form', 'enableAjaxValidation'=>false, )); ?> <p class="note">Fields with <span class="required">*</span> are required.</p> <?php echo $form->errorSummary($model); ?> <div class="row"> <?php echo $form->labelEx($model,'title'); ?> <?php echo $form->textField($model,'title',array('size'=>60,'maxlength'=>255)); ?> <?php echo $form->error($model,'title'); ?> </div> <div class="row"> <?php echo $form->labelEx($model,'uri'); ?> <?php echo $form->textField($model,'uri',array('size'=>60,'maxlength'=>255)); ?> <?php echo $form->error($model,'uri'); ?> </div> <div class="row"> <?php echo $form->labelEx($model,'content'); ?> <?php echo $form->textArea($model,'content',array('rows'=>6, 'cols'=>50)); ?> <?php echo $form->error($model,'content'); ?> </div> <div class="row"> <?php // echo $form->labelEx($model,'content'); ?> <?php echo CHtml::activeDropDownList($model,'category_id', CHtml::listData(Category::model()->findAll(), 'id', 'name')); ?> <?php // echo $form->error($model,'content'); ?> </div> <div class="row buttons"> <?php echo CHtml::submitButton($model->isNewRecord ? 'Create' : 'Save'); ?> </div> <?php $this->endWidget(); ?> The error is: Property "Post.category_id" is not defined. I am quite confused. What should I be doing to correct this?

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  • Disable Dojo validation on certain fields

    - by Eric LaForce
    I would like to disable client side validation on certain fields in my user form. Currently I have two sets of fields that are displayed depending on the value of a previous drop down list. i.e. if the drop down list is set to value "A" 1 new field appears in the form. If the drop down list is set to value "B" 3 new fields appear in the form (mutually exclusive from the new form field when "A" is selected). Currently my Dojo client side validation fails because the fields that are not shown to the user (and thus no data can be inserted into those fields) fails to validate. Currently I determined that I can set the "validate" attribute to return true like so: <input type="text" id="companycity" name="companycity" class="textinput" value="<?php echo set_value('companycity'); ?>" style="<?php if(isset($errorData['companycity'])){echo $errorData['companycity'];} ?>" dojotype="dijit.form.ValidationTextBox" required="true" trim="true" validate='return true'" regexp="([a-zA-Z]{1,25})" invalidMessage="Invalid value. Must be between 1 and 25 alphabetic characters long."> This fixes my issue for hidden fields. However this now means that no validation is performed when this field becomes visible to the user (i.e. the validate attribute is still set to return true). I have tried removing the validate property when a field is displayed to the user like so: dijit.byId('companycode').attr('validate',''); This just set the attribute to nothing. This however gives errors in firebug saying validate method not found, so I take that to mean I did not remove this attribute correctly or removing this attribute is not the appropriate way to do this. I have also looked at overriding the validator method here but this doesnt seem like what I want either. I do not want to have to rewrite all the validation methods in place of dojo's. I just want dojo not to validate if the field is not visible to the user. Thanks for any advice or help.

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  • Why does obj.getBounds().height give a larger height than obj.height?

    - by TC
    I'm new to Flash and ActionScript, but managing quite nicely. One thing that is continuously getting in my way are the width and height properties of DisplayObject(Container)s. I'm finally starting to get my head around them and learned that the width and height of a Sprite are determined solely by their contents for example. I do not understand the following though: I've got a Sprite that I add a bunch of Buttons to. The buttons all have a height of 30 and an y of 0. As such, I'd expect the height of the containing Sprite to be 30. Surprisingly, the height is 100. The Adobe documentation of the height property of a DisplayObject states: Indicates the height of the display object, in pixels. The height is calculated based on the bounds of the content of the display object. Apparently, the 'bounds' of the object are important. So I went ahead and wrote this little test in the Sprite that contains the Buttons: for (var i:int = 0; i < numChildren; ++i) { trace("Y: " + getChildAt(i).y + " H: " + getChildAt(i).height); trace("BOUNDS H: " + getChildAt(i).getBounds(this).height); } trace("SCALEY: " + scaleY + " TOTAL HEIGHT: " + height); This code iterates through all the objects that are added to its display list and shows their y, height and getBounds().height values. Surprisingly, the output is: Y: 0 H: 30 BOUNDS H: 100 ... (5x) SCALEY: 1 TOTAL HEIGHT: 100 This shows that the bounds of the buttons are actually larger than their height (and the height that they appear to be, visually). I have no clue why this is the case however. So my questions are: Why are the bounds of my buttons larger than their height? How can I set the bounds of my buttons so that my Sprite isn't larger than I'd expect it to be based on the position and size of the objects it contains? By the way, the buttons are created as follows: var control:Button = new Button(); control.setSize(90, 30); addChild(control);

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  • WPF/INotifyPropertyChanged, change the value of txtA, the txtB and txtC should change automatically?

    - by user1033098
    I supposed, once i change the value of txtA, the txtB and txtC would change automatically, since i have implemented INotifyPropertyChanged for ValueA. But they were not updated on UI. txtB was always 100, and txtC was always -50. I don't know what's the reason. My Xaml.. <Window x:Class="WpfApplicationReviewDemo.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <StackPanel> <TextBox Name="txtA" Text="{Binding ValueA}" /> <TextBox Name="txtB" Text="{Binding ValueB}" /> <TextBox Name="txtC" Text="{Binding ValueC}" /> </StackPanel> </Window> My code behind... public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = new Model(); } } public class Model : INotifyPropertyChanged { private decimal valueA; public decimal ValueA { get { return valueA; } set { valueA = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueA")); } } private decimal valueB; public decimal ValueB { get { valueB = ValueA + 100; return valueB; } set { valueB = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueB")); } } private decimal valueC; public decimal ValueC { get { valueC = ValueA - 50; return valueC; } set { valueC = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueC")); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } After i add code to the set method of ValueA property, it works. public decimal ValueA { get { return valueA; } set { valueA = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueA")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueB")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueC")); } } But I supposed it should be automatically refresh/updated for txtB and txtC. Please advise.

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  • Can <Setter.Value> have multiple grids inside it

    - by Subhen
    Hi, I want to define the background for my application in App.XAML. The background was previously defined in another xaml page,which have multiple Grids inside it like following: <Grid x:Key="GridGeneric" d:LayoutOverrides="Width, Height"> <Grid.Background> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF00172E" Offset="1"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF004074" Offset="0.433"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF081316"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF001D3F" Offset="0.215"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF002043" Offset="0.818"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF003B6C" Offset="0.642"/> </LinearGradientBrush> </Grid.Background> <Grid> <Grid.Background> <RadialGradientBrush RadiusY="0.973" GradientOrigin="0.497,-0.276" RadiusX="1.003"> <GradientStop Color="#FFB350EE" Offset="0"/> <GradientStop Color="#001D3037" Offset="0.847"/> </RadialGradientBrush> </Grid.Background> </Grid> ------ ----- </Grid> Now I want to place the same in my App.xaml like following: <Style x:Key="backgroundStyle" TargetType="Grid"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <Grid> <Grid.Background> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF00172E" Offset="1"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF004074" Offset="0.433"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF081316"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF001D3F" Offset="0.215"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF002043" Offset="0.818"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF003B6C" Offset="0.642"/> </LinearGradientBrush> </Grid.Background> <Grid> <Grid.Background> <RadialGradientBrush RadiusY="0.973" GradientOrigin="0.497,-0.276" RadiusX="1.003"> <GradientStop Color="#FFB350EE" Offset="0"/> <GradientStop Color="#001D3037" Offset="0.847"/> </RadialGradientBrush> </Grid.Background> </Grid> --------- --------- </Grid> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> But While doing this I am getting the following Exception.

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  • (Strange) C++ linker error in constructor

    - by Microkernel
    I am trying to write a template class in C++ and getting this strange linker error and can't figureout the cause, please let me know whats wrong with this! Here is the error message I am getting in Visula C++ 2010. 1>------ Rebuild All started: Project: FlashEmulatorTemplates, Configuration: Debug Win32 ------ 1> main.cpp 1> emulator.cpp 1> Generating Code... 1>main.obj : error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol "public: __thiscall flash_emulator<char>::flash_emulator<char>(char const *,struct FLASH_PROPERTIES *)" (??0?$flash_emulator@D@@QAE@PBDPAUFLASH_PROPERTIES@@@Z) referenced in function _main 1>C:\Projects\FlashEmulator_templates\VS\FlashEmulatorTemplates\Debug\FlashEmulatorTemplates.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals ========== Rebuild All: 0 succeeded, 1 failed, 0 skipped ========== Error message in g++ main.cpp: In function âint main()â: main.cpp:8: warning: deprecated conversion from string constant to âchar*â /tmp/ccOJ8koe.o: In function `main': main.cpp:(.text+0x21): undefined reference to `flash_emulator<char>::flash_emulator(char*, FLASH_PROPERTIES*)' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status There are 2 .cpp files and 1 header file, and I have given them below. emulator.h #ifndef __EMULATOR_H__ #define __EMULATOR_H__ typedef struct { int property; }FLASH_PROPERTIES ; /* Flash emulation class */ template<class T> class flash_emulator { private: /* Private data */ int key; public: /* Constructor - Opens an existing flash by name flashName or creates one with given FLASH_PROPERTIES if it doesn't exist */ flash_emulator( const char *flashName, FLASH_PROPERTIES *properties ); /* Constructor - Opens an existing flash by name flashName or creates one with given properties given in configFIleName */ flash_emulator<T>( char *flashName, char *configFileName ); /* Destructor for the emulator */ ~flash_emulator(){ } }; #endif /* End of __EMULATOR_H__ */ emulator.cpp #include <Windows.h> #include "emulator.h" using namespace std; template<class T>flash_emulator<T>::flash_emulator( const char *flashName, FLASH_PROPERTIES *properties ) { return; } template<class T>flash_emulator<T>::flash_emulator(char *flashName, char *configFileName) { return; } main.cpp #include <Windows.h> #include "emulator.h" int main() { FLASH_PROPERTIES properties = {0}; flash_emulator<char> myEmulator("C:\newEMu.flash", &properties); return 0; }

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  • program received signal SIGABRT (xcode)

    - by manish1990
    #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface tableview : UIViewController<UITableViewDataSource> { NSArray *listOfItems; } @property(nonatomic,retain) NSArray *listOfItems; @end #import "tableview.h" @implementation tableview @synthesize listOfItems; - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier ]autorelease]; } //NSString *cellValue = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 3; } - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview. [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Release any cached data, images, etc that aren't in use. } #pragma mark - View lifecycle - (void)viewDidLoad { listOfItems = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"first",@"second",@"third", nil]; //listOfItems = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; // [listOfItems addObject:@"first"]; //[listOfItems addObject:@"second"]; [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view from its nib. } -(void)dealloc { [listOfItems release]; [super dealloc]; } @end GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1708) (Mon Aug 15 16:03:10 UTC 2011) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 438. 2012-04-27 13:33:23.276 tableview test[438:207] -[UIView tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x6855500 2012-04-27 13:33:23.362 tableview test[438:207] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '-[UIView tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x6855500' * First throw call stack: (0x13bb052 0x154cd0a 0x13bcced 0x1321f00 0x1321ce2 0x1ecf2b 0x1ef722 0x9f7c7 0x9f2c1 0xa228c 0xa6783 0x51322 0x13bce72 0x1d6592d 0x1d6f827 0x1cf5fa7 0x1cf7ea6 0x1d8330c 0x23530 0x138f9ce 0x1326670 0x12f24f6 0x12f1db4 0x12f1ccb 0x12a4879 0x12a493e 0x12a9b 0x2282 0x21f5) terminate called throwing an exceptionCurrent language: auto; currently objective-c (gdb)

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  • Single entity with single view or two views in mvc3 vs2010?

    - by user2905798
    I have the following entity model public class Employee { public int Employee ID{get;set;} public string employeename{get;set;} public datetime employeeDOb{get;set;} public datetime? employeeDateOfJoin{get;set;} public string empFamilyname{get;set;} public datetime empFamilyDob{get;set;} } here I have to design a view for collecting employee information and employee family information. Since I am working on already available data, where in empFamilyDob was not mandatory. But now it is being made mandatory, the previous data doesn't contain EmpFamilyDob. So naturally I have added this new property EmpFamilyDob to the Model and made it required through DataAnnotations. Now there are two set of views to be developed. 1. A view which simply allows to collect the employee information without employee family information. i.e, empFamilyName and EmpFamilyDob.--This view is used by the Hr section to insert empplyee details Since the empFamilyname and EmpFamilyDob being now made mandatory, some other section will edit the data and update the EmpFamilyName and EmpFamilyDob as and when the information about employee family details are received. I have action controller for CreateNew and Edit Which is being generated by using the default model. There are two user actions being performed. 1.When the user clicks the Create new -- he will be able to update only the Employee information 2.As and when the other section receives the employee family details they update the familyname and family date of birth. i.e, EmployeeFamilyname and EmployeFamilyDob. While creating new record the uses should be able to update employee information only and while editing the information he should be able to update the employeefamily information. Since I have a single view with most of these fields as required and not allowing null , How can I achieve this in a sincle view? I have recorrected the model like this public class Employee { public int Employee ID{get;set;} public string employeename{get;set;} public datetime employeeDOb{get;set;} public datetime? employeeDateOfJoin{get;set;} public string empFamilyname{get;set;} public datetime? empFamilyDob{get;set;} } Now by default I hope the createnew action would insert null value for empFamilyname(string datatype) and empFamilyDob . In the Edit action the user should be made to enter empFamilyname and empFamilyDob(mandatory). As there is every chance that the user might edit other information about the employee(like employeeDob) I don't want to go for partial views. Can you help me out with some illustration. Thanks in advance

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  • How do I overlay text on an image who's size is to be set?

    - by Mike
    I am trying to make a bar chart using tables, which I have almost accomplished to my liking. The last step I want is text over my image which represents the bar. Here is the code I have thus far for building my little bar charts: $height = 50; //build length $width = 450; $multi = $brewAvg / 5; $width = $width * $multi; print " <tr > <td > $count. <a href=\"$breweryURL\"> $brewR</a> </td> <td > <img src=\"blueBar.png\" width=\"$width\" height=\"$height\"> </td> </tr> "; And this produces something like this: You can see in the code how I simply calculate the length of the bar based on a breweries rating. What I want to do next is have the rating number show on top of each breweries on the left hand side. How would I go about accomplishing this? Update: I tried a tutorial I read here: http://www.kavoir.com/2009/02/css-text-over-image.html and I changed my code to this: print "<div class=\"overlay\"> "; print " <tr valign=\"middle\" > <td > $count. <a href=\"$breweryURL\"> $brewR</a> </td> <td > <img src=\"blueBar.png\" width=\"$width\" height=\"$height\"> </td> </tr> "; print" <div class=\"text\"> <p> $brewAvg </p> </div> </div> "; And my css I added was this: <style> .overlay { position:relative; float:left; /* optional */ } .overlay .text { position:absolute; top:10px; /* in conjunction with left property, decides the text position */ left:10px; width:300px; /* optional, though better have one */ } </style> And it did put any of the value son top of my images. All the text is in a list above all the bars like this:

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  • Storing and displaying unicode string (??????) using PHP and MySQL

    - by Anirudh Goel
    I have to store hindi text in a MySQL database, fetch it using a PHP script and display it on a webpage. I did the following: I created a database and set its encoding to UTF-8 and also the collation to utf8_bin. I added a varchar field in the table and set it to accept UTF-8 text in the charset property. Then I set about adding data to it. Here I had to copy data from an existing site. The hindi text looks like this: ????????:05:30 I directly copied this text into my database and used the PHP code echo(utf8_encode($string)) to display the data. Upon doing so the browser showed me "??????". When I inserted the UTF equivalent of the text by going to "view source" in the browser, however, ???????? translates into &#2360;&#2370;&#2352;&#2381;&#2351;&#2379;&#2342;&#2351;. If I enter and store &#2360;&#2370;&#2352;&#2381;&#2351;&#2379;&#2342;&#2351; in the database, it converts perfectly. So what I want to know is how I can directly store ???????? into my database and fetch it and display it in my webpage using PHP. Also, can anyone help me understand if there's a script which when I type in ????????, gives me &#2360;&#2370;&#2352;&#2381;&#2351;&#2379;&#2342;&#2351;? Solution Found I wrote the following sample script which worked for me. Hope it helps someone else too <html> <head> <title>Hindi</title></head> <body> <?php include("connection.php"); //simple connection setting $result = mysql_query("SET NAMES utf8"); //the main trick $cmd = "select * from hindi"; $result = mysql_query($cmd); while ($myrow = mysql_fetch_row($result)) { echo ($myrow[0]); } ?> </body> </html> The dump for my database storing hindi utf strings is CREATE TABLE `hindi` ( `data` varchar(1000) character set utf8 collate utf8_bin default NULL ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; INSERT INTO `hindi` VALUES ('????????'); Now my question is, how did it work without specifying "META" or header info? Thanks!

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