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  • git rebse onto remote updates

    - by Blake Chambers
    I work with a small team that uses git for source cod management. Recently, we have been doing topic branches to keep track of features then merging them into master locally then pushing them to a central git repository on a remote server. This works great when no changes have been made in master: I create my topic branch, commit it, merge it into master, then push. Hooray. However, if someone has pushed to origin before i do, my commits are not fast-forward. Thus a merge commit ensues. This also happens when a topic branch needs to merge with master locally to ensure my changes work with the code as of now. So, we end up with merge commits everywhere and a git log rivaling a friendship bracelet. So, rebasing is the obvious choice. What I would like is to: create topic branches holding several commits checkout master and pull (fast-forward because i haven't committed to master) rebase topic branches onto the new head of master rebase topics against master(so the topics start at masters head), bringing master up to my topic head My way of doing this currently is listed below: git checkout master git rebase master topic_1 git rebase topic_1 topic_2 git checkout master git rebase topic_2 git branch -d topic_1 topic_2 Is there a faster way to do this?

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  • git rebase onto remote updates

    - by Blake Chambers
    I work with a small team that uses git for source cod management. Recently, we have been doing topic branches to keep track of features then merging them into master locally then pushing them to a central git repository on a remote server. This works great when no changes have been made in master: I create my topic branch, commit it, merge it into master, then push. Hooray. However, if someone has pushed to origin before i do, my commits are not fast-forward. Thus a merge commit ensues. This also happens when a topic branch needs to merge with master locally to ensure my changes work with the code as of now. So, we end up with merge commits everywhere and a git log rivaling a friendship bracelet. So, rebasing is the obvious choice. What I would like is to: create topic branches holding several commits checkout master and pull (fast-forward because i haven't committed to master) rebase topic branches onto the new head of master rebase topics against master(so the topics start at masters head), bringing master up to my topic head My way of doing this currently is listed below: git checkout master git rebase master topic_1 git rebase topic_1 topic_2 git checkout master git rebase topic_2 git branch -d topic_1 topic_2 Is there a faster way to do this?

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  • WMI to reboot remote machine

    - by Stephen Murby
    I found this code on an old thread to shutdown the local machine: using System.Management; void Shutdown() { ManagementBaseObject mboShutdown = null; ManagementClass mcWin32 = new ManagementClass("Win32_OperatingSystem"); mcWin32.Get(); // You can't shutdown without security privileges mcWin32.Scope.Options.EnablePrivileges = true; ManagementBaseObject mboShutdownParams = mcWin32.GetMethodParameters("Win32Shutdown"); // Flag 1 means we want to shut down the system. Use "2" to reboot. mboShutdownParams["Flags"] = "1"; mboShutdownParams["Reserved"] = "0"; foreach (ManagementObject manObj in mcWin32.GetInstances()) { mboShutdown = manObj.InvokeMethod("Win32Shutdown", mboShutdownParams, null); } } Is it possible to use a similar WMI method to reboot flag"2" a remote machine, for which i only have machine name, not IPaddress. EDIT: I currently have; SearchResultCollection allMachinesCollected = machineSearch.FindAll(); Methods myMethods = new Methods(); string pcName; ArrayList allComputers = new ArrayList(); foreach (SearchResult oneMachine in allMachinesCollected) { //pcName = oneMachine.Properties.PropertyNames.ToString(); pcName = oneMachine.Properties["name"][0].ToString(); allComputers.Add(pcName); MessageBox.Show(pcName + "has been sent the restart command."); Process.Start("shutdown.exe", "-r -f -t 0 -m \" + pcName); } but this doesn't work, and i would prefer WMI going forward.

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  • Online Multiplayer Game Architecture [on hold]

    - by Eric
    I am just starting to research online multiplayer game development and I have a high-level architectural question regarding how online multiple games function. I have server-side and client-side programming experience, and I understand how AJAX-esque transfer protocol operates. What I don't understand yet is how online multiple fits into all of that. For example, an online Tetris multiplayer game. Would both players have the entire Tetris game built out on their client-side and then get pushed "moves" from the other player via some AJAX-esque mechanism, in which case each client would have to be constantly listening via JavaScript for inbound "moves" and update the client appropriately? Or would each client build out the aesthetics and run a virtual server per game to which each client connects and thus pull and push commands in real-time via something like web sockets? I apologize if this question is too high-level and general, but I couldn't find anything online that offered this high-level of a perspective on the topic.

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  • How to update dependency during runtime in my .NET application?

    - by Louis Rhys
    I have a server-client application. Sometimes the server is updated which requires some DLLs in the client to be updated as well (The DLLs are the dependencies of the main executable). For now, we have to close the client, manually deploy the DLLs, and then start the client again. This is kind of an inconvenience because the client is an automated application, so normally it doesn't need any user intervention. Is it possible for this to be done automatically without restart or user intervention? Like, the client would download the latest DLL, and replace the current one?

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  • What is the best workaround for the WCF client `using` block issue?

    - by Eric King
    I like instantiating my WCF service clients within a using block as it's pretty much the standard way to use resources that implement IDisposable: using (var client = new SomeWCFServiceClient()) { //Do something with the client } But, as noted in this MSDN article, wrapping a WCF client in a using block could mask any errors that result in the client being left in a faulted state (like a timeout or communication problem). Long story short, when Dispose() is called, the client's Close() method fires, but throws and error because it's in a faulted state. The original exception is then masked by the second exception. Not good. The suggested workaround in the MSDN article is to completely avoid using a using block, and to instead instantiate your clients and use them something like this: try { ... client.Close(); } catch (CommunicationException e) { ... client.Abort(); } catch (TimeoutException e) { ... client.Abort(); } catch (Exception e) { ... client.Abort(); throw; } Compared to the using block, I think that's ugly. And a lot of code to write each time you need a client. Luckily, I found a few other workarounds, such as this one on IServiceOriented. You start with: public delegate void UseServiceDelegate<T>(T proxy); public static class Service<T> { public static ChannelFactory<T> _channelFactory = new ChannelFactory<T>(""); public static void Use(UseServiceDelegate<T> codeBlock) { IClientChannel proxy = (IClientChannel)_channelFactory.CreateChannel(); bool success = false; try { codeBlock((T)proxy); proxy.Close(); success = true; } finally { if (!success) { proxy.Abort(); } } } } Which then allows: Service<IOrderService>.Use(orderService => { orderService.PlaceOrder(request); } That's not bad, but I don't think it's as expressive and easily understandable as the using block. The workaround I'm currently trying to use I first read about on blog.davidbarret.net. Basically you override the client's Dispose() method wherever you use it. Something like: public partial class SomeWCFServiceClient : IDisposable { void IDisposable.Dispose() { if (this.State == CommunicationState.Faulted) { this.Abort(); } else { this.Close(); } } } This appears to be able to allow the using block again without the danger of masking a faulted state exception. So, are there any other gotchas I have to look out for using these workarounds? Has anybody come up with anything better?

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  • Android remote service doesn't call service methods

    - by tarantel
    Hello, I'm developing a GPS tracking software on android. I need IPC to control the service from different activities. So I decide to develop a remote service with AIDL. This wasn't a big problem but now it's always running into the methods of the interface and not into those of my service class. Maybe someone could help me? Here my ADIL file: package test.de.android.tracker interface ITrackingServiceRemote { void startTracking(in long trackId); void stopTracking(); void pauseTracking(); void resumeTracking(in long trackId); long trackingState(); } And the here a short version of my service class: public class TrackingService extends Service implements LocationListener{ private LocationManager mLocationManager; private TrackDb db; private long trackId; private boolean isTracking = false; @Override public void onCreate() { super.onCreate(); mNotificationManager = (NotificationManager) this .getSystemService(NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); mLocationManager = (LocationManager) getSystemService(LOCATION_SERVICE); db = new TrackDb(this.getApplicationContext()); } @Override public void onStart(Intent intent, int startId) { super.onStart(intent, startId); } @Override public void onDestroy(){ //TODO super.onDestroy(); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent intent){ return this.mBinder; } private IBinder mBinder = new ITrackingServiceRemote.Stub() { public void startTracking(long trackId) throws RemoteException { TrackingService.this.startTracking(trackId); } public void pauseTracking() throws RemoteException { TrackingService.this.pauseTracking(); } public void resumeTracking(long trackId) throws RemoteException { TrackingService.this.resumeTracking(trackId); } public void stopTracking() throws RemoteException { TrackingService.this.stopTracking(); } public long trackingState() throws RemoteException { long state = TrackingService.this.trackingState(); return state; } }; public synchronized void startTracking(long trackId) { // request updates every 250 meters or 0 sec this.trackId = trackId; mLocationManager.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 0, 250, this); isTracking = true; } public synchronized long trackingState() { if(isTracking){ return trackId; } else return -1; } public synchronized void stopTracking() { if(isTracking){ mLocationManager.removeUpdates(this); isTracking = false; } else Log.i(TAG, "Could not stop because service is not tracking at the moment"); } public synchronized void resumeTracking(long trackId) { if(!isTracking){ this.trackId = trackId; mLocationManager.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 0, 250, this); isTracking = true; } else Log.i(TAG, "Could not resume because service is tracking already track " + this.trackId); } public synchronized void pauseTracking() { if(isTracking){ mLocationManager.removeUpdates(this); isTracking = false; } else Log.i(TAG, "Could not pause because service is not tracking at the moment"); } public void onLocationChanged(Location location) { //TODO } For easier access from the client I wrote a ServiceManager class which sets up the ServiceConnection and you can call the service methods. Here my code for this: public class TrackingServiceManager{ private static final String TAG = "TrackingServiceManager"; private ITrackingServiceRemote mService = null; private Context mContext; private Boolean isBound = false; private ServiceConnection mServiceConnection; public TrackingServiceManager(Context ctx){ this.mContext = ctx; } public void start(long trackId) { if (isBound && mService != null) { try { mService.startTracking(trackId); } catch (RemoteException e) { Log.e(TAG, "Could not start tracking!",e); } } else Log.i(TAG, "No Service bound! 1"); } public void stop(){ if (isBound && mService != null) { try { mService.stopTracking(); } catch (RemoteException e) { Log.e(TAG, "Could not stop tracking!",e); } } else Log.i(TAG, "No Service bound!"); } public void pause(){ if (isBound && mService != null) { try { mService.pauseTracking(); } catch (RemoteException e) { Log.e(TAG, "Could not pause tracking!",e); } } else Log.i(TAG, "No Service bound!"); } public void resume(long trackId){ if (isBound && mService != null) { try { mService.resumeTracking(trackId); } catch (RemoteException e) { Log.e(TAG, "Could not resume tracking!",e); } } else Log.i(TAG, "No Service bound!"); } public float state(){ if (isBound && mService != null) { try { return mService.trackingState(); } catch (RemoteException e) { Log.e(TAG, "Could not resume tracking!",e); return -1; } } else Log.i(TAG, "No Service bound!"); return -1; } /** * Method for binding the Service with client */ public boolean connectService(){ mServiceConnection = new ServiceConnection() { @Override public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName name, IBinder service) { TrackingServiceManager.this.mService = ITrackingServiceRemote.Stub.asInterface(service); } } @Override public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName name) { if (mService != null) { mService = null; } } }; Intent mIntent = new Intent("test.de.android.tracker.action.intent.TrackingService"); this.isBound = this.mContext.bindService(mIntent, mServiceConnection, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); return this.isBound; } public void disconnectService(){ this.mContext.unbindService(mServiceConnection); this.isBound = false; } } If i now try to call a method from an activity for example start(trackId) nothing happens. The binding is OK. When debugging it always runs into the startTracking() in the generated ITrackingServiceRemote.java file and not into my TrackingService class. Where is the problem? I can't find anything wrong. Thanks in advance! Tobias

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  • Create a WCF REST Client Proxy Programatically (in C#)

    - by Tawani
    I am trying to create a REST Client proxy programatically in C# using the code below but I keep getting a CommunicationException error. Am I missing something? public static class WebProxyFactory { public static T Create<T>(string url) where T : class { ServicePointManager.Expect100Continue = false; WebHttpBinding binding = new WebHttpBinding(); binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = 1000000; WebChannelFactory<T> factory = new WebChannelFactory<T>(binding, new Uri(url)); T proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); return proxy; } public static T Create<T>(string url, string userName, string password) where T : class { ServicePointManager.Expect100Continue = false; WebHttpBinding binding = new WebHttpBinding(); binding.Security.Mode = WebHttpSecurityMode.TransportCredentialOnly; binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Basic; binding.UseDefaultWebProxy = false; binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = 1000000; WebChannelFactory<T> factory = new WebChannelFactory<T>(binding, new Uri(url)); ClientCredentials credentials = factory.Credentials; credentials.UserName.UserName = userName; credentials.UserName.Password = password; T proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); return proxy; } } So that I can use it as follows: IMyRestService proxy = WebProxyFactory.Create<IMyRestService>(url, usr, pwd); var result = proxy.GetSomthing(); // Fails right here

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  • ASP.NET MVC2: Client-side validation not working with Start.js

    - by Shaggy13spe
    Ok, this is strange. I would hope it's something I'm doing wrong and not that MS has two technologies that simply don't work together. (UPDATE: See bottom of post for Script tag order in HEAD section) I'm trying to use the dataView template and client-side validation. If I include a reference to: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/Start.js" type="text/javascript"></script> by itself, the dataview template works fine. but if I put in the following references: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.7/jquery.validate.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> then I get the following error: > Error: Type._registerScript is not a > function Source File: > http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/MicrosoftAjaxTemplates.js > Line: 1 and: > Error: Sys.get("$listings") is null > Source File: > http://localhost:12370/Listings Line: > 76 Here's the code calling the dataview: $(document).ready(function () { LoadMap(); Sys.require([Sys.components.dataView, Sys.scripts.jQuery], function() { $("#listings").dataView(); Sys.get("$listings").set_data(listings.Data); updateMap(listings.Data); }); }); I would really appreciate any help with this one. Thanks! UPDATE: I've tried moving around the order of the last 4 script tags, but to no avail.

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  • perl: Run remote perl script through SSH and query environment variables on remote machine

    - by kakyo
    I'm running a perl script through SSH, in the perl script I query environment variables using $ENV{MY_VAR_NAME} and it works fine when run locally. But through SSH, all environment variables become unset. I also tried to run system("source ~/.bash_profile"); at the beginning of my script to no avail. Any tips? EDIT: Rephrasing my question. I have machine A and B. I ran my perl on machine B, trying to get the environment variables on B and it worked. Then I ssh from A to B running the same script, i.e., using this code ssh user@B perl myscript.pl This time the environment variables on B are all blank. Any tips? UPDATE: I found that running the above script, ~/.bashrc on Machine B was invoked, but after setting environment variables in ~/.bashrc, run the above command again and still I don't see any environment variables. Also, if my perl script contains only echo $ENV{PATH} Then I get /usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin

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  • Multithreaded IOCP Client Issue

    - by Carl
    I am writing a multithreaded client that uses an IO Completion Port. I create and connect the socket that has the WSA_FLAG_OVERLAPPED attribute set. if ((m_socket = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, IPPROTO_TCP)) == INVALID_SOCKET) { throw std::exception("Failed to create socket."); } if (WSAConnectByName(m_socket, L"server.com", L"80", &localAddressLength, reinterpret_cast<sockaddr*>(&localAddress), &remoteAddressLength, &remoteAddress, NULL, NULL) == FALSE) { throw std::exception("Failed to connect."); } I associate the IO Completion Port with the socket. if ((m_hIOCP = CreateIoCompletionPort(reinterpret_cast<HANDLE>(m_socket), m_hIOCP, NULL, 8)) == NULL) { throw std::exception("Failed to create IOCP object."); } All appears to go well until I try to send some data over the socket. SocketData* socketData = new SocketData; socketData->hEvent = 0; DWORD bytesSent = 0; if (WSASend(m_socket, socketData->SetBuffer(socketData->GenerateLoginRequestHeader()), 1, &bytesSent, NULL, reinterpret_cast<OVERLAPPED*>(socketData), NULL) == SOCKET_ERROR && WSAGetLastError() != WSA_IO_PENDING) { throw std::exception("Failed to send data."); } Instead of returning SOCKET_ERROR with the last error set to WSA_IO_PENDING, WSASend returns immediately. I need the IO to pend and for it's completion to be handled in my thread function which is also my worker thread. unsigned int __stdcall MyClass::WorkerThread(void* lpThis) { } I've done this before but I don't know what is going wrong in this case, I'd greatly appreciate any efforts in helping me fix this problem.

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  • Using Client Application Services in windows forms not working

    - by Nickson
    i am trying to implement asp.net membership, profile and role based security in a windows application by configuring client Application Services for my windows forms application. I have followed both these articles http://www.dotnetbips.com/articles/e863aa3c-0dd6-468d-bd35-120a334c5030.aspx and http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb546195.aspx step-by-step but for some reason i can't get the authentication working. I have a deployed intranet asp.net website which is already using an asp.net membership database for authentication and want to use that same database for authenitcation in my windows forms application. The site URL is http://myServer_Name:My_Port and i am specifying that URL as the both the Authentication service location and Roles service location in the windows application services property tab. But in the windows application login form, when i say Dim msg As String = "Welcome " If Not Membership.ValidateUser(UsernameTextBox.Text), PasswordTextBox.Text)) Then MessageBox.Show("Invalid User ID or Password!") Else msg = msg + UsernameTextBox.Text End If i get my "Invalid User ID or Password!" message even when i supply a valid user name with the corresponding password. i am able to login with the same credentials from the asp.net site. How can i test if the Authentication service location is being reached from the windows application?? Or what other information can i provide here such that one is able to help me get this working??

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  • Connecting Error to Remote Oracle XE database using ASP.NET

    - by imsatasia
    Hello, I have installed Oracle XE on my Development machine and it is working fine. Then I installed Oracle XE client on my Test machine which is also working fine and I can access Development PC database from Browser. Now, I want to create an ASP.Net application which can access that Oracle XE database. I tried it too, but it always shows me an error on my TEST machine to connect database to the Development Machine using ASP.Net. Here is my code for ASP.Net application: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string connectionString = GetConnectionString(); OracleConnection connection = new OracleConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); Label1.Text = "State: " + connection.State; Label1.Text = "ConnectionString: " + connection.ConnectionString; OracleCommand command = connection.CreateCommand(); string sql = "SELECT * FROM Users"; command.CommandText = sql; OracleDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read()) { string myField = (string)reader["nID"]; Console.WriteLine(myField); } } static private string GetConnectionString() { // To avoid storing the connection string in your code, // you can retrieve it from a configuration file. return "User Id=System;Password=admin;Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=" + "(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=myServerAddress)(PORT=1521))" + "(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVICE_NAME=)));"; }

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  • Using Remote Desktop, connect to a Windows 7 domain user account without first logging on locally?

    - by calavera
    I have a dell laptop (henceforth we'll call this the server) running Windows 7 Enterprise. The server is part of my company's domain. My primary user account is a domain account. When I am at home and not connected to the domain, I prefer to connect to the server using Remote Desktop Connection from my MacBook Pro (we'll call this the client). The problem is, that if I do not physically login to the server, I am unable to connect to it using RDC from the client. I have a local administrator account on the server, and connecting to it via RDC works just fine. I had a feeling that the Mac RDC application was not giving me the full story, so I attempted the same procedure from a Windows 7 client. When trying to login, I get this message: So basically, If I logon to the server physically with my domain user and lock the computer, I can then successfully logon from the client. Otherwise, I am unable to connect.

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  • A tale of two user ids: Why does NFS not recognize a new user id?

    - by user76177
    I have two servers running RHEL6. The main server, which I will refer to as server, is a database server. The application server, which I will refer to as client, mounts a directory from server via NFS. There is a user, appuser, on both client and server. However, appuser's id on client is 502. appuser's id on server is 506. Both users need read and write capability on the NFS share. To facilitate this, I made the share owned by appuser on server. Of course, client does not recognize that ownership, since appuser has a different id on client. So I did the following: Changed id of user in /etc/passwd on client to be 506 **Changed ownership of appuser's $HOME on client to be appuser again so that I could log in. Now, when I go to look at the NFS share from the client side, I see that it is owned by 502. 502 is the OLD id for appuser on client. I can't change ownership of the NFS share from client, since that is a volume that physically resides on server. I need to make sure that the NFS share shows ownership of appuser from both server and client. What step have I missed since changing the appuser id on client? NOTE: I have not rebooted client or done anything else yet.

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  • Using Remote Desktop, connect to a Windows 7 domain user account without first logging on locally?

    - by Robert S Ciaccio
    I have a dell laptop (henceforth we'll call this the server) running Windows 7 Enterprise. The server is part of my company's domain. My primary user account is a domain account. When I am at home and not connected to the domain, I prefer to connect to the server using Remote Desktop Connection from my MacBook Pro (we'll call this the client). The problem is, that if I do not physically login to the server, I am unable to connect to it using RDC from the client. I have a local administrator account on the server, and connecting to it via RDC works just fine. I had a feeling that the Mac RDC application was not giving me the full story, so I attempted the same procedure from a Windows 7 client. When trying to login, I get this message: So basically, If I logon to the server physically with my domain user and lock the computer, I can then successfully logon from the client. Otherwise, I am unable to connect.

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  • Ajax doesn't work on remote server .

    - by Nuha
    Hello . when I Implemented chatting Function , I use Ajax to send messages between file to another . so , it is working well on local host . but , when I upload it in to remote server it doesn't work. can U tell me ,why ? is an Ajax need Special configuration ? Ajax code : function Ajax_Send(GP,URL,PARAMETERS,RESPONSEFUNCTION){? var xmlhttp? try{xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP")}? catch(e){? try{xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP")}? catch(e){? try{xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest()}? catch(e){? alert("Your Browser Does Not Support AJAX")}}}? ? err=""? if (GP==undefined) err="GP "? if (URL==undefined) err +="URL "? if (PARAMETERS==undefined) err+="PARAMETERS"? if (err!=""){alert("Missing Identifier(s)\n\n"+err);return false;}? ? xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function(){? if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4){? if (RESPONSEFUNCTION=="") return false;? eval(RESPONSEFUNCTION(xmlhttp.responseText))? }? }? ? if (GP=="GET"){? URL+="?"+PARAMETERS? xmlhttp.open("GET",URL,true)? xmlhttp.send(null)? }? ? if (GP="POST"){? PARAMETERS=encodeURI(PARAMETERS)? xmlhttp.open("POST",URL,true)? xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded")? xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length",PARAMETERS.length)? xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close")? xmlhttp.send(PARAMETERS)? }? }

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  • Can Remote Desktop Services be deployed and administered by PowerShell alone, without a Domain in WIndows Server 2012 and 2012 R2?

    - by Warren P
    Windows Server 2008 R2 allowed deployment of Terminal Server (Remote Desktop Services) without a domain, and without any insistence on domains. This was very useful, especially for standalone virtual or cloud deployments of a server that is managed remotely for a remote client who has no need or desire for any ActiveDirectory or Domain features. This has become steadily more and more difficult as Microsoft restricts its technologies further and further in each Windows release. With Windows Server 2012, configuring licensing for Remote Desktop Services, is more difficult when not on a domain, but possible still. With Windows Server 2012 R2 (at least in the preview) the barriers are now severe: The Add/Remove Roles and Features wizard in Windows Server 2012 R2 has a special RDS deployment mode that has a rule that says if you aren't on a domain you can't deploy. It tells you to create or join a domain first. This of course comes in direct conflict with the fact that an Active Directory domain controller should not be the same machine as a terminal server machine. So Microsoft's technology is not such much a Cloud Operating System as a Cluster of Unwanted Nodes, needed to support the one machine I actually WANT to deploy. This is gross, and so I am trying to find a workaround. However if you skip that wizard and just go check the checkboxes in the main Roles/Features wizard, you can deploy the features, but the UI is not there to configure them, and when you go back to the RDS configuration page on the roles wizard, you get a message saying you can not administer your Remote Desktop Services system when you are logged in as a Local-Computer Administrator, because although you have all admin priveleges you could have (in your workgroup based system), the RDS configuration UI will not accept those credentials and let you continue. My question in brief is, can I still somehow, obtain the following end result: I need to allow 10-20 users per system to have an RDS (TS) session. I do not need any of the fancy pants RDS options, unless Microsoft somehow depends on those features being present. I believe I need the "RDS Session Host" as this is the guts of "Terminal Server". Microsoft says it is "full Windows desktop for Remote Desktop Services client. I need to configure licensing so that the Grace Period does not expire leaving my RDS non functional, so this probably means I need a way to configure TS CALs. If all of the above could technically be done with the judicious use of the PowerShell, I am prepared to even consider developing all the PowerShell scripts I would need to do the above. I'm not asking someone to write that for me. What I'm asking is, does anyone know if there is a technical impediment to what I want to do above, other than the deliberate crippling of the 2012 R2 UI for Workgroup users? Would the underlying technologies all still work if I manipulate and control them from a PowerShell script? Obviously a 1 word Yes or No answer isn't that useful to anyone, so the question is really, yes or no, and why? In the case the answer is Yes, then how.

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  • Why doesn't NFS recognize a new UID?

    - by user76177
    I have two servers running RHEL6. I have root access to both. The main server, which I will refer to as server, is a database server. The application server, which I will refer to as client, mounts a directory from server via NFS. There is a user, appuser, on both client and server. However, appuser's UID on client is 502. appuser's UID on server is 506. Both users need read and write capability on the NFS share. To facilitate this, I made the share owned by appuser on server. Running id appuser on each yields: uid=506(appuser). Of course, client does not recognize that ownership, since appuser has a different id on client. So I did the following: Changed UID of user in /etc/passwd on client to be 506. Changed ownership of appuser's $HOME on client to be appuser again so that I could log in. Now, when I go to look at the NFS share from the client side, I see that it is owned by 502. 502 is the OLD id for appuser on client. I can't change ownership of the NFS share from client, since that is a volume that physically resides on server. I need to make sure that the NFS share shows ownership of appuser from both server and client. What step have I missed since changing the appuser id on client? NOTE: I have not rebooted client (or anything else.)

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  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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  • backuppc - how to backup remote (over the internet) clients?

    - by Scott
    I am testing out backuppc, which works great so far backing up windows clients on a LAN via SMB (no backup client/agent required). However I have quite a few laptops and desktops that are in various remote locations - some of which move around. I need some way to have that remote computer create an outgoing connection for backup purposes (Windows XP/7). I know backuppc supports smb, rsync and 'tar', but I believe these are all connections going from the server TO the client. SO, I either need a way to vpn the client on a timed basis, or it would be a lot better if the client could some how connect to the server (ssh?) and initiate it's own backup somehow (rsync?). Of course this all needs to be pre-installed by me and require no maintenance by the end user, no dialogs on their side. What do you think?

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  • Client validate in MVC 2

    - by khoailang
    Hello, I'm very new in MVC 2, Let say, I have a page with 1 text box and 2 input typed submit, "back" and "next". I'm using client validation like this: "" type="text/javascript"/" " type="text/javascript"/ " type="text/javascript"/ . . . <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); % . . . . . . and validation rule used for that text box is [StringLength(100, ErrorMessage="This field should be no longer than 100")] My wish is that validation rules will be applied only when I click on Next button. And when I click on Back button, no validation error message will be displayed and form will be posted to server. Is it possible to do that? could you please tell me how? My problem now is that when I click Back, validation rules are applied and prevent me from posting back to server.

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  • Client side page call/scrape?

    - by Silvre
    Here is the problem: I have a web application - a frequently changing notification system - that runs on a series of local computers. The application refreshes every couple of seconds to display the new information. The computers only display info, and do not have keyboards or ANY input device. The issue is that if the connection to the server is lost (say updates are installed and a server must be rebooted), a page not found error is displayed). We must then either reboot all computers that are running this app, OR add a keyboard and refresh the browser, OR try to access each computer remotely and refresh the browser. None of these are good options and result in a lot of frustration. I cannot change the actual application OR server environment. So what I need is some way to test the call to the application, and if an error is returned or it times out, continue trying every minute or so until the connection is reestablished. My idea is to create a client-side page scraper, that makes a JS request to the application (which displays basic HTML), and can run locally on the machine, no server required. If the scrape returns the correct content, it displays it. If not it continues to request the page until the actual page content is returned. Is this possible? What is the best way to do it?

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  • Click at specified client area

    - by VixinG
    Click doesn't work - I don't know why and can't find a solution :( ie. Click(150,215) should move mouse to the client area and click there. [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern bool ScreenToClient(IntPtr hWnd, ref Point lpPoint); [DllImport("user32", SetLastError = true)] private static extern int SetCursorPos(int x, int y); static void MouseMove(int x, int y) { Point p = new Point(x * -1, y * -1); ScreenToClient(hWnd, ref p); p = new Point(p.X * -1, p.Y * -1); SetCursorPos(p.X, p.Y); } static void Click(int x, int y) { MouseMove(x, y); SendMessage(hWnd, WM_LBUTTONDOWN, (IntPtr)0x1, new IntPtr(y * 0x10000 + x)); SendMessage(hWnd, WM_LBUTTONUP, (IntPtr)0x1, new IntPtr(y * 0x10000 + x)); } Edit: Of course I can use mouse_event for that, but I would like to see a solution for SendMessage()... [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern void mouse_event(int dwFlags, int dx, int dy, int dwData, int dwExtraInfo); const int LEFTDOWN = 0x00000002; const int LEFTUP = 0x00000004; static void Click(int x, int y) { MouseMove(x, y); mouse_event((int)(LEFTDOWN), 0, 0, 0, 0); mouse_event((int)(LEFTUP), 0, 0, 0, 0); }

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  • Client-side user custom CSS single file for overriding multiple domains

    - by Cawas
    This is for using in Safari, though it could probably be used on Firefox as well. In Chrome you have to add a plugin anyway (which generally allow for custom CSS per domain), and Opera already allows this to be done without needing any CSS. But while it's for customizing on the client-side, it's also a pure CSS question. So I'm using no plugins here. So, again, I got a custom CSS code (easily) working for all domains. Now I want to get specify CSS code for each domain. All with just 1 CSS file that's being loaded by Safari. Over the web and googling, I've found two ways to supposedly do this, but none actually worked. They're both documented on userstyles.com: @-moz-document domain("your-domain.com") { }. This would be perfect, since I can have several tags like that and just choose which style will be loaded for which domain. It just doesn't work. @namespace is quite confusing and I've tried every variation I could think of. None worked.

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