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• Recovering data from an external hard drive

  - by CCallaghan

  I have a WD Elements 2GB hard drive (formatted NTFS). I accidentally kicked out the USB cable while writing data to the disk, and now I can't access most of the data. Although this was ostensibly my backup drive, there is a great deal of important material on there which was only on there. I realise how idiotic this makes me. (So, formatting is not an option.) Things I've tried/information I've gathered: Windows Explorer will recognise the drive itself. However, it will not access most directories therein (and will sometimes crash when exploring). I can access all of the directories through the command line, but the dir command will often report that it can't read any files in most of the directories. The situation was similar when I hooked it up to an Ubuntu machine: the file explorer crashed, but I could access directories - but not files in those directories - via terminal commands. Several files I tried to copy out either resulted in an I/O error being reported or resulted in the command line crashing. The Disk Management utility on Windows reports a healthy disk formatted as NTFS and not RAW. It also indicates the correct amount of space used up and its capacity (so it seems that the files are not deleted). I've tried to run chkdsk, but that hangs on Step 2 (checking indexes) at 74%. Step 1 reported no bad sectors. I tried Recuva, but that didn't seem to work (stalled at 0% for half an hour). I should also note that the disk doesn't seem to be spinning smoothly; it seems to be chopping back, like it's reading the same sector over and over again. I noticed this after I kicked out the cable. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Update: It would seem the problem has taken a turn for the worse. The external hard drive now shows up on my computer as a local disk and is not mountable by Linux.

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• Data recovery on working hard drive

  - by emgee

  So I have a 5 bay hot swap SATA enclosure that's connected to a Silicon Image-based SATA adapter in a computer. It's running XP Pro. There are two 1.5TB hard drives in slots 1 and 2 respectively, set up using RAID 1 using the the Silicon Image utility. There are also two 1TB drives in bays 3 and 4, also set to RAID 1 the same way. The partitions for both RAID arrays are Dynamic partitions. A few days back, there was a bare hard drive that needed some files copied off of, so it was popped it in bay 5, that bay to pass-through, and the copied data off of it. Later, I noticed that my 1.5TB drives no longer showed up in windows. In the Silicon Image utility, the drives showed up fine, no error. However, in Device Manager, it shows the RAID 1 array as uninitialized. It shows up as the right size, etc., but nothing else. There's no sign of anything wrong with either drive, so I'm not sure what happened exactly. I'm not the only one who has access to that computer, so it is possible there is something else done to it that I don't know of. There's quite a lot of data on it still, and if at all possible, I'd prefer to not send it to Ontrack. Does anyone know of software that would restore the partitions, keeping in mind that it's a Windows LDM partition? I have access to a variety of Operating Systems, so something that would work on Mac, Windows or Linux would be acceptable. The programs I usually use are not compatible with LDM.

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• Easily Plotting Multiple Data Series in Excel

  - by John

  I really need help figuring out how to speed up graphing multiple series on a graph. I have seperate devices that give monthly readings for several variables like pressure, temperature, and salinity. Each of these variables is going to be its own graph with devices being the series. My x-axis is going to be the dates that these values were taken. The problem is that it takes ages to do this for each spreadsheet since I have monthly dates from 1950 up to the present and I have about 50 devices in each spreadsheet. I also have graphs for calculated values that are in columns next to them. Each of these devices is going to become a data series in the graph. E.g. In one of my graphs I have all the pressures from the devices and each of the data series' names is the name of the device. I want a fast way to do this. Doing this manually is taking a very long time. Please help! Is there any easier way to do this? It is consistent and the dates all line up. I am just repeating the same clicks over and over again Thank you!

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• Core Data Migration - "Can't add source store" error

  - by Tofrizer

  Hi, In my iPhone app I'm using Core Data and I've made changes to my data model that cannot be automatically migrated over (i.e. added new relationships). I added the data model version (Design - Data Model - Add Model Version) and applied my new data model changes to the new version 2. I then created a mapping object model and set the Source and Destination models to their correct data models (old and new respectively). When I run the app and call the persistentStoreCoordinator, my app barfs with the following: 2010-02-27 02:40:30.922 XXXX[73578:20b] Unresolved error Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=134110 UserInfo=0xfc2240 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 134110.)", { NSUnderlyingError = Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=134130 UserInfo=0xfbb3a0 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 134130.)"; reason = "Can't add source store"; } FWIW (not much i think) I've also made the usual code changes in persistentStoreCoordinator to use the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption and NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption (for future data model changes that can be automatically migrated). More relevantly, my managedObjectModel is created by calling initWithContentsOfURL where the file/resource type is "momd". I've tried updating both the source and destination model in the mapping model (Design - Mapping Model - Update XXX Model) as well as deleted the mapping model and recreated it. I've cleaned and re-built but all to no avail. I still get the above error message. Any pointers/thoughts on how I can further debug or resolve this problem please? I haven't posted any code snippets because this feels much more like a build environment issue (and my code is very standard - just the usual core data code to handle migrations using a mapping model but I'm happy to show the code if it helps). Appreciate any help. Thanks

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• What are the responsibilities of the data layer?

  - by alimac83

  I'm working on a project where I had to add a data layer to my application. I've always thought that the data layer is purely responsible for CRUD functions ie. shouldn't really contain any logic but should simply retrieve data for the business layer to manipulate. However I'm a little confused with my project because I'm not sure whether I've structured my app correctly for this scenario. Basically I'm trying to retrieve a list of products from the database that fall within a certain pricing threshold. At the moment I have a function in my data layer that basically returns all products where price min threshold and price < max threshold. But it got me thinking that maybe this is incorrect. Should the data layer simply return a list of ALL products and then the business logic do the filtering? I'm pretty confused over whether the data layer should simply provide methods that allow the business layer to get raw data or whether it should be responsible for getting filtered data too? If anyone has an article or something explaining this in detail it'd be very helpful. Thanks

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• How to store and remove dynamically and automatic variable of generic data type in custum list data

  - by Vineel Kumar Reddy

  Hi I have created a List data structure implementation for generic data type with each node declared as following. struct Node { void *data; .... .... } So each node in my list will have pointer to the actual data(generic could be anything) item that should be stored in the list. I have following signature for adding a node to the list AddNode(struct List *list, void* eledata); the problem is when i want to remove a node i want to free even the data block pointed by *data pointer inside the node structure that is going to be freed. at first freeing of datablock seems to be straight forward free(data) // forget about the syntax..... But if data is pointing to a block created by malloc then the above call is fine....and we can free that block using free function int *x = (int*) malloc(sizeof(int)); *x = 10; AddNode(list,(void*)x); // x can be freed as it was created using malloc what if a node is created as following int x = 10; AddNode(list,(void*)&x); // x cannot be freed as it was not created using malloc Here we cannot call free on variable x!!!! How do i know or implement the functionality for both dynamically allocated variables and static ones....that are passed to my list.... Thanks in advance...

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• Very Strange behavior in custom dataGrid

  - by Markus

  Hi everybody, I asked this question already in a former post, but nobody could answer this question correctly. So I try to post the problem again, to make sure it's not a bug. I have a dataGrid with a custom itemRenderer. Everytime I tab at least two times on the dataGrid, the cell below the one I taped gets selected. This doesn't happen if I uncomment the code in the method saveBackDataGridContent()! The second problem is that if the Line is shorter than the entered text, a horizontalScrollBar will get active, although I set setStyle("horizontalScrollPolicy", "off");... Who can solve that one? CustomRenderer.mxml: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" initialize="dataService.send()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import components.ChoiceRenderer; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; import mx.events.DataGridEvent; private function resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { var doc:XML = event.result as XML; testGrid.dataProvider = doc.Records.BackSide; } private function saveBackDataGridContent(event:DataGridEvent):void{ testGrid.dataProvider[event.rowIndex].TextElement = event.currentTarget.itemEditorInstance.text; } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HTTPService id="dataService" result="resultHandler(event)" url = "data/example.xml" resultFormat="e4x"/> <mx:DataGrid id="testGrid" editable="true" itemEditEnd="saveBackDataGridContent(event)"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn itemRenderer="components.ChoiceRenderer" width="230"/> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> </mx:Application> ChoiceRenderer.as package components { import mx.containers.HBox; import mx.controls.CheckBox; import mx.controls.Label; public class ChoiceRenderer extends HBox { private var correctAnswer:CheckBox; private var choiceLabel:Label; public function ChoiceRenderer() { super(); setStyle("horizontalScrollPolicy", "off"); correctAnswer = new CheckBox; addChild(correctAnswer); choiceLabel = new Label; addChild(choiceLabel); } override public function set data(xmldata:Object):void{ if(xmldata.name() == "BackSide"){ super.data = xmldata.TextElement[0]; choiceLabel.text = xmldata.TextElement[0].toString(); } } } } example.xml <TopContainer> <Records> <BackSide> <TextElement>first</TextElement> </BackSide> <BackSide> <TextElement>second</TextElement> </BackSide> <BackSide> <TextElement>third</TextElement> </BackSide> <BackSide> <TextElement>fourth</TextElement> </BackSide> <BackSide> <TextElement>fifth</TextElement> </BackSide> <BackSide> <TextElement>sixth</TextElement> </BackSide> </Records> Thanks Markus

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• Manually wiring up unobtrusive jquery validation client-side without Model/Data Annotations, MVC3

  - by cmorganmcp

  After searching and experimenting for 2 days I relent. What I'd like to do is manually wire up injected html with jquery validation. I'm getting a simple string array back from the server and creating a select with the strings as options. The static fields on the form are validating fine. I've been trying the following: var dates = $("<select id='ShiftDate' data-val='true' data-val-required='Please select a date'>"); dates.append("<option value=''>-Select a Date-</option>"); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { dates.append("<option value='" + data[i] + "'>" + data[i] + "</option>"); } $("fieldset", addShift).append($("<p>").append("<label for='ShiftDate'>Shift Date</label>\r").append(dates).append("<span class='field-validation-valid' data-valmsg-for='ShiftDate' data-valmsg-replace='true'></span>")); // I tried the code below as well instead of adding the data-val attributes and span manually with no luck dates.rules("add", { required: true, messages: { required: "Please select a date" } }); // Thought this would do it when I came across several posts but it didn't $.validator.unobtrusive.parse(dates.closest("form")); I know I could create a view model ,decorate it with a required attribute, create a SelectList server-side and send that, but it's more of a "how would I do this" situation now. Can anyone shed light on why the above code wouldn't work as I expect? -chad

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• Approach for caching data from data logger

  - by filip-fku

  Greetings, I've been working on a C#.NET app that interacts with a data logger. The user can query and obtain logs for a specified time period, and view plots of the data. Typically a new data log is created every minute and stores a measurement for a few parameters. To get meaningful information out of the logger, a reasonable number of logs need to be acquired - data for at least a few days. The hardware interface is a UART to USB module on the device, which restricts transfers to a maximum of about 30 logs/second. This becomes quite slow when reading in the data acquired over a number of days/weeks. What I would like to do is improve the perceived performance for the user. I realize that with the hardware speed limitation the user will have to wait for the full download cycle at least the first time they acquire a larger set of data. My goal is to cache all data seen by the app, so that it can be obtained faster if ever requested again. The approach I have been considering is to use a light database, like SqlServerCe, that can store the data logs as they are received. I am then hoping to first search the cache prior to querying a device for logs. The cache would be updated with any logs obtained by the request that were not already cached. Finally my question - would you consider this to be a good approach? Are there any better alternatives you can think of? I've tried to search SO and Google for reinforcement of the idea, but I mostly run into discussions of web request/content caching. Thanks for any feedback!

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• Data not transfred from form to mysql table (updating of data is not happening)

  - by Jimson

  Hi all and thanks in advance to all for this I tired and was unable to find the answer i am looking for an answer. my problem is that i am unable to update the values enterd in the form. I have attached all the files i'm using MYSQL database to fetch data. what happens is that i'm able to add and delete records from form using ajax and PHP scripts to MYSQL database, but i am not able to update data which was retrived from database. the file structure is as follows index.php is a file with ajax functions where it displays form for adding new data to MYSQL using save.php file and list of all records are view without refrishing page (calling load-list.php to view all records from index.php works fine, and save.php to save data from form) - *Delete*is an ajax function called from index.php to delete record from mysql database (function calling delete.php works fine) - Update is an ajax function called from index.php to update data using update-form.php by retriving specific record from mysql tabel, (works fine) Problem lies in updating data from update-form.php to update.php (in which update query is wrriten for mysql) i had tried in many ways at last i had figured out that data is not being transfred from update-form.php to update.php there is a small problem in jquery ajax function where it is not transfering data to update.php page. can any one correct this ????? i will be greatfull to them..... please find the link below for all files link to get my form files

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• Retain numerical precision in an R data frame?

  - by David

  When I create a dataframe from numeric vectors, R seems to truncate the value below the precision that I require in my analysis: data.frame(x=0.99999996) returns 1 (see update 1) I am stuck when fitting spline(x,y) and two of the x values are set to 1 due to rounding while y changes. I could hack around this but I would prefer to use a standard solution if available. example Here is an example data set d <- data.frame(x = c(0.668732936336141, 0.95351462456867, 0.994620622127435, 0.999602102672081, 0.999987126195509, 0.999999955814133, 0.999999999999966), y = c(38.3026509783688, 11.5895099585560, 10.0443344234229, 9.86152339768516, 9.84461434575695, 9.81648333804257, 9.83306725758297)) The following solution works, but I would prefer something that is less subjective: plot(d$x, d$y, ylim=c(0,50)) lines(spline(d$x, d$y),col='grey') #bad fit lines(spline(d[-c(4:6),]$x, d[-c(4:6),]$y),col='red') #reasonable fit Update 1 Since posting this question, I realize that this will return 1 even though the data frame still contains the original value, e.g. > dput(data.frame(x=0.99999999996)) returns structure(list(x = 0.99999999996), .Names = "x", row.names = c(NA, -1L), class = "data.frame") Update 2 After using dput to post this example data set, and some pointers from Dirk, I can see that the problem is not in the truncation of the x values but the limits of the numerical errors in the model that I have used to calculate y. This justifies dropping a few of the equivalent data points (as in the example red line).

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• Creation of model in core data on the fly

  - by user1740045

  How can we create a model in core data on the fly? I.e getting the schema of database from somewhere and then creating a Core Data Object graph? *QuesTion:* Yes thats fine, agreed with all the advantages. But, can anybody can tell practically, what is the benefit of integrating Core Data into project instead of using SQL directly. 1.No need to write SQL boiler plate code [but need to learn Core Data Model (steep curve)] 2.WE can undo and redo changes [but practically who needs it] 3.we can migrate to another schema [that can be done by SQLite as well jus need to add another field into table] 4.For say aggregation on some field in table,in Core Data we need to loop through Core Data Objects whereas in SQLite we need to first write SQLite Boiler Plate Code and then the basic aggregation SQL query,which is easy to write,only length of code will increase...But in case of Core Data (need to learn a lot). So apart from reducing the length of Code,does it actually adds value to project? or in terms of Memory Efficiency,Performance,etc.. PS: If anybody has actualy worked on Core Data(Model Creation On the Fly) , if possible share and gve pointers..thanks!

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• Custom Checkbox style for WPF

  - by lorddarq

  I would like to skin a wpf default checkbox to something custom. Since it does not really make sense to start off a entirely new control, i'd like to override the Windows Chrome template binding for the Bulletchrome sub component of the checkbox. However I cannot do this like I can with checkboxes for example. tried using something like this to override the default style, but it seems to not compile like this <Style x:Key="cb_BULLETSTYLE" TargetType="{x:Type BulletDecorator}"> <Setter Property="OverridesDefaultStyle" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type BulletDecorator}"> <Border x:Name="Chrome" SnapsToDevicePixels="true" BorderBrush="{x:Null}" BorderThickness="0"> </Border> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background" TargetName="Chrome" Value="#FF4C4C4C"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter>

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• JQuery Ajax error handling, show custom exception messages

  Hey Folks, I am wondering if there is some way where I can show custom exception messages as an alert in my Jquery ajax error message. For example, say if I want to throw an exception in server side via Struts by "throw new ApplicationException("User name already exists");", I want to catch this message(User name already exists) in Jquery ajax error message. jQuery("#save").click(function(){ if(jQuery('#form').jVal()){ jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "saveuser.do", dataType:"html", data:"userId="+encodeURIComponent(trim(document.forms[0].userId.value)), success:function(response){ jQuery("#usergrid").trigger("reloadGrid"); clear(); alert("Details saved successfully!!!"); }, error:function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError){ alert(xhr.status); alert(thrownError); } }); } } ); On the second alert where I alert thrown error, I am getting undefined and the status code is 500. I am not sure where I am going wrong. Please let me know on this. Thanks, Dukes

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• How to create this MongoMapper custom data type?

  - by Kapslok

  I'm trying to create a custom MongoMapper data type in RoR 2.3.5 called Translatable: class Translatable < String def initialize(translation, culture="en") end def languages end def has_translation(culture)? end def self.to_mongo(value) end def self.from_mongo(value) end end I want to be able to use it like this: class Page include MongoMapper::Document key :title, Translatable, :required => true key :content, String end Then implement like this: p = Page.new p.title = "Hello" p.title(:fr) = "Bonjour" p.title(:es) = "Hola" p.content = "Some content here" p.save p = Page.first p.languages => [:en, :fr, :es] p.has_translation(:fr) => true en = p.title => "Hello" en = p.title(:en) => "Hello" fr = p.title(:fr) => "Bonjour" es = p.title(:es) => "Hola" In mongoDB I imagine the information would be stored like: { "_id" : ObjectId("4b98cd7803bca46ca6000002"), "title" : { "en" : "Hello", "fr" : "Bonjour", "es" : "Hola" }, "content" : "Some content here" } So Page.title is a string that defaults to English (:en) when culture is not specified. I would really appreciate any help.

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• Custom Error Handling

  - by Michael

  Using GoDaddy to host my site (I know that's my first problem)! :-) Trying to setup custom error messages for my site using IIS7. GoDaddy allows you to setup a 404 in their control panel, but I can't override this, or setup any additional error redirects, specifically a 500-server error. Here is my web.config file: <configuration> <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Redirect to WWW" stopProcessing="true"> <match url=".*" /> <conditions> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^mysite.com$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="http://www.mysite.com/{R:0}" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> </system.webServer> <system.web> <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="http://www.mysite.com/oops.php"> <error statusCode="404" redirect="http://www.mysite.com/oops.php?error=404" /> <error statusCode="500" redirect="http://www.mysite.com/oops.php?error=500" /> </customErrors> </system.web> </configuration>

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• How to build a GridView like DataBound Templated Custom ASP.NET Server Control

  - by Deyan

  I am trying to develop a very simple templated custom server control that resembles GridView. Basically, I want the control to be added in the .aspx page like this: <cc:SimpleGrid ID="SimpleGrid1" runat="server"> <TemplatedColumn>ID: <%# Eval("ID") %></ TemplatedColumn> <TemplatedColumn>Name: <%# Eval("Name") %></ TemplatedColumn> <TemplatedColumn>Age: <%# Eval("Age") %></ TemplatedColumn> </cc:SimpleGrid> and when providing the following datasource: DataTable table = new DataTable(); table.Columns.Add("ID", typeof(int)); table.Columns.Add("Name", typeof(string)); table.Columns.Add("Age", typeof(int)); table.Rows.Add(1, "Bob", 35); table.Rows.Add(2, "Sam", 44); table.Rows.Add(3, "Ann", 26); SimpleGrid1.DataSource = table; SimpleGrid1.DataBind(); the result should be a HTML table like this one. ------------------------------- | ID: 1 | Name: Bob | Age: 35 | ------------------------------- | ID: 2 | Name: Sam | Age: 44 | ------------------------------- | ID: 3 | Name: Ann | Age: 26 | ------------------------------- The main problem is that I cannot define the TemplatedColumn. When I tried to do it like this ... private ITemplate _TemplatedColumn; [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [TemplateContainer(typeof(TemplatedColumnItem))] [TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Multiple)] public ITemplate TemplatedColumn { get { return _TemplatedColumn; } set { _TemplatedColumn = value; } } .. and subsequently instantiate the template in the CreateChildControls I got the following result which is not what I want: ----------- | Age: 35 | ----------- | Age: 44 | ----------- | Age: 26 | ----------- I know that what I want to achieve is pointless and that I can use DataGrid to achieve it, but I am giving this very simple example because if I know how to do this I would be able to develop the control that I need. Thank you.

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• Custom title of PreferenceActivity (problem)

  - by Emerald214

  I have the same problem like this question: Custom title bar in PreferenceActivity ?? After extending PreferenceActivity, I write this code in onCreate(), it just shows a blank grey title. I think it is a bug (because this solution works well with Activity). requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE); getWindow().setFeatureInt(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE, R.layout.window_title); super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.main_pref); Edited: window_title.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:background="@color/titleBar" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:paddingLeft="5dip" android:paddingRight="5dip"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/imageView1" android:src="@drawable/megadict_icon" android:layout_height="35dip" android:layout_width="35dip" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical"> </ImageView> <TextView android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/textView1" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:textColor="@color/white" android:textSize="16dip" android:layout_weight="1" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical" android:text="@string/appName" android:paddingLeft="5dip" android:paddingRight="5dip"> </TextView> <ProgressBar style="?android:attr/progressBarStyleSmall" android:id="@+id/progressBar" android:layout_width="28dip" android:layout_height="28dip" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical" android:visibility="invisible"> </ProgressBar> </LinearLayout> main_pref.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <PreferenceScreen xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:title="@string/mainPrefTitle"> <ListPreference android:entries="@array/languageStrings" android:entryValues="@array/languageValues" android:dialogTitle="@string/languagePrefTitle" android:title="@string/mainPrefTitle" android:key="languagePrefKey"> </ListPreference> </PreferenceScreen>

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• Custom UITableViewCell changing indexPath While Scrolling ?

  - by Chris

  I have a custom UITableViewCell which I created in Interface Builder. I am successfully Dequeuing cells, but as I scroll, the cells appear to begin calling different indexPaths. In this example, I am feeding the current indexPath.section and indexPath.row into the customCellLabel. As I scroll the table up and down, some of the cells will change. The numbers can be all over the place, but the cells are not skipping around visually. If I comment out the if(cell==nil), then the problem goes away. If I use a standard cell, the problem goes away. Ideas why this might be happening? // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell *cell = (UITableViewCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"CalendarEventCell"]; if (cell == nil) { NSLog(@"Creating New Cell !!!!!"); NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"CalendarEventCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = (UITableViewCell *)[nib objectAtIndex:0]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; } // Set up the cell... [customCellLabel setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d - %d",indexPath.section, indexPath.row]]; return cell; }

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• Magento- custom attribute causes blank order number.

  - by frank

  Hi- I created a simple custom attribute on the sales/order entity. Now, for new orders, order number is null. I looked at the sales_order table, and sure enough, increment_id is null... can anyone help me out, I am stumped? This is my setup.php: `public function getDefaultEntities() { return array( 'order' => array( 'entity_model' => 'sales/order', //'attribute_model' => 'catalog/resource_eav_attribute', 'table' => 'sales/order', 'attributes' => array( 'pr_email_sent' => array( 'label' => 'prEmailSent', 'type' => 'varchar', 'default' => 'false' ), ) ) ); }` This is my config.xml <fieldsets> <sales_order> <pr_email_sent><create>1</create><update>1</update></pr_email_sent> </sales_order> </fieldsets> Thanks.

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• SerializationException with custom GenericIdentiy?

  - by MunkiPhD

  I'm trying to implement my own GenericIdentity implementation but keep receiving the following error when it attempts to load the views (I'm using asp.net MVC): System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled by user code Message="Type is not resolved for member 'OpenIDExtendedIdentity,Training.Web, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'." Source="WebDev.WebHost" I've ended up with the following class: [Serializable] public class OpenIDExtendedIdentity : GenericIdentity { private string _nickName; private int _userId; public OpenIDExtendedIdentity(String name, string nickName, int userId) : base(name, "OpenID") { _nickName = nickName; _userId = userId; } public string NickName { get { return _nickName; } } public int UserID { get { return _userId; } } } In my Global.asax I read a cookie's serialized value into a memory stream and then use that to create my OpenIDExtendedIdentity object. I ended up with this attempt at a solution after countless tries of various sorts. It works correctly up until the point where it attempts to render the views. What I'm essentially attempting to achieve is the ability to do the following (While using the default Role manager from asp.net): User.Identity.UserID User.Identity.NickName ... etc. I've listed some of the sources I've read in my attempt to get this resolved. Some people have reported a Cassini error, but it seems like others have had success implementing this type of custom functionality - thus a boggling of my mind. http://forums.asp.net/p/32497/161775.aspx http://ondotnet.com/pub/a/dotnet/2004/02/02/effectiveformsauth.html http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/netfxremoting/thread/e6767ae2-dfbf-445b-9139-93735f1a0f72

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• Custom DateTime model binder in Asp.net MVC

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I would like to write my own model binder for DateTime type. First of all I'd like to write a new attribute that I can attach to my model property like: [DateTimeFormat("d.M.yyyy")] public DateTime Birth { get; set,} This is the easy part. But the binder part is a bit more difficult. I would like to add a new model binder for type DateTime. I can either implement IModelBinder interface and write my own BindModel() method inherit from DefaultModelBinder and override BindModel() method My model has a property as seen above (Birth). So when the model tries to bind request data to this property, my model binder's BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext) gets invoked. Everything ok, but. How do I get property attributes from controller/bindingContext, to parse my date correctly? How can I get to the PropertyDesciptor of property Birth? Edit Because of separation of concerns my model class is defined in an assembly that doesn't (and shouldn't) reference System.Web.MVC assembly. Setting custom binding (similar to Scott Hanselman's example) attributes is a no-go here.

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• Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

  - by manu08

  I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

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• How can I programatically create this custom binding?

  - by user277040

  We've got to access a web service that uses soap11... no problem I'll just set the binding as: BasicHttpBinding wsBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(BasicHttpSecurityMode.TransportWithMessageCredential); Nope. No dice. So I asked the host of the service why we're having authentication issues and he said that our config needed to have this custom binding: <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="lbinding"> <security authenticationMode="UserNameOverTransport" messageSecurityVersion="WSSecurity11WSTrustFebruary2005WSSecureConversationFebruary2005WSSecurityPolicy11" securityHeaderLayout="Strict" includeTimestamp="false" requireDerivedKeys="true" keyEntropyMode="ServerEntropy"> </security> <textMessageEncoding messageVersion="Soap11" /> <httpsTransport authenticationScheme ="Negotiate" requireClientCertificate ="false" realm =""/> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> Only problem is we're creating our binding programmatically not via the config. So if someone could point me in the right direction in regards to changing my BasicHttpBinding into a custombinding that conforms to the .config value provided I'll give them a big shiny gold star for the day.

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• Render multiple control collections in ASP.NET custom control

  - by Monty

  I've build a custom WebControl, which has the following structure: <gws:ModalBox ID="ModalBox1" HeaderText="Title" runat="server"> <Contents>(controls...)</Contents> <Footer>(controls...)</Footer> </gws:ModalBox> The control contains two ControlCollection properties, 'Contents' and 'Footer'. Never tried to build a control with multiple control collections, but solved it like this (simplified): [PersistChildren(false), ParseChildren(true)] public class ModalBox : WebControl { private ControlCollection _contents; private ControlCollection _footer; public ModalBox() : base() { this._contents = base.CreateControlCollection(); this._footer = base.CreateControlCollection(); } [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] public ControlCollection Contents { get { return this._contents; } } [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] public ControlCollection Footer { get { return this._footer; } } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { // Render content controls. foreach (Control control in this.Contents) { control.RenderControl(output); } // Render footer controls. foreach (Control control in this.Footer) { control.RenderControl(output); } } } However it seems to render properly, it doesn't work anymore if I add some asp.net labels and input controls inside the property. I'll get the HttpException: Unable to find control with id 'KeywordTextBox' that is associated with the Label 'KeywordLabel'. Somewhat understandable, because the label appears before the textbox in the controlcollection. However, with default asp.net controls it does work, so why doesn't this work? What am I doing wrong? Is it even possible to have two control collections in one control? Should I render it differently? Thanks for replies.

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