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  • Ordered delivery with NetNamedPipeBinding using oneWay calls

    - by Aseem Bansal
    Is it possible to guarantee ordered delivery with oneWay calls using namedPipe binding? I have a WCF service/client communicating using namedPipe binding. The client is exposing a callback contract in which all the methods in the callback are marked as OneWay. Something like this [ServiceContract(CallbackContract = typeof(IMyServiceCallback))] public interface IMyService { [OperationContract] void MyOperation(); } public interface IMyServiceCallback { [OperationContract(IsOneWay=true)] void MyCallback1(); [OperationContract(IsOneWay=true)] void MyCallback2(); } At the server side, the implementation of MyOperation method always calls MyCallback1 first and then MyCallback2 but I am observing that sometimes the client receives the calls in the incorrect order (MyCallback2 first and then MyCallback1). On searching the internet I found that the order is not guaranteed with oneway operation as mentioned here and also there is something called reliableSession which ensure message ordering. All the examples on the internet for reliable session are with TCP binding (and not a single one with NamedPipeBinding) and the tcpBinding also has a property called ReliableSession which is not present on the NetNamedPipeBinding. So I am not sure whether reliable session is expected to work with NetNamedPipeBinding or not. Question: Does reliable session work with namedPipeBinding? If yes, how? If no, Is there any other approach with which I can guarantee ordered delivery?

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  • Replace in place, parsing & string manipulation.

    - by Mark Tomlin
    I'm trying to replace a set of characters within a string. The string may or may not have any data to change. The string is marked up in a way that allows for it to change it's color from a set of characters. The string can reset it's it's formatting to default by using a defined set of characters. This setup is very much like the ECMA-48 standard used on LINUX consoles for colors and other special effects. Where one string could be ^0Black^1Red^2Green^3Yellow^4Blue^5Purple^6Cyan^7White Producing the following HTML: <span style="color: #000">Black</span><span style="color: #F00">Red</span><span style="color: #0F0">Green</span><span style="color: #FF0">Yellow</span><span style="color: #00F">Blue</span><span style="color: #F0F">Purple</span><span style="color: #0FF">Cyan</span><span style="color: #FFF">White</span> Another string (^1Error^8: ^3User Error) could also produce: <span style="color: #F00">Error</span>: <span style="color: #FF0">User Error</span> You might of noticed the ^8 part of that string resets the color for that part of the string. What's the best way to go about parsing these kinds of strings?

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  • iphone - using NSInvocation: constant value

    - by Mike
    I am dealing with an old iPhone OS 2.x project and I want to keep compatibility, while designing for 3.x. I am using NSInvocation, is a code like this NSInvocation* invoc = [NSInvocation invocationWithMethodSignature: [cell methodSignatureForSelector: @selector(initWithStyle:reuseIdentifier:)]]; [invoc setTarget:cell]; [invoc setSelector:@selector(initWithStyle:reuseIdentifier:)]; int arg2 = UITableViewCellStyleDefault; //???? [invoc setArgument:&arg2 atIndex:2]; [invoc setArgument:&identificadorNormal atIndex:3]; [invoc invoke]; to call 3.0 APIs on 2.0. I am having a problem on the line I marked with question marks. The problem there is that I am trying to assing to arg2, a constant that has not been defined in OS 2.0. As everything with NSInvocation is to do stuff indirectly to avoid compiler errors, how do I set this constant to a variable in an indirect way? Some sort of performSelector "assign value to variable"... is that possible? thanks for any help.

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  • Python minidom and UTF-8 encoded XML with hash references

    - by Jakob Simon-Gaarde
    Hi I am experiencing some difficulty in my home project where I need to parse a SOAP request. The SOAP is generated with gSOAP and involves string parameters with special characters like the danish letters "æøå". gSOAP builds SOAP requests with UTF-8 encoding by default, but instead of sending the special chatacters in raw format (ie. bytes C3A6 for the special character "æ") it sends what I think is called character hash references (ie. &#195;&#166;). I don't completely understand why gSOAP does it this way as I can see that it has marked the incomming payload as being UTF-8 encoded anyway (Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8), but this is besides the question (I think). Anyway I guess gSOAP probably is obeying transport rules, or what? When I parse the request from gSOAP in python with xml.dom.minidom.parseString() I get element values as unicode objects which is fine, but the character hash references are not decoded as UTF-8 character codes. It unescapes the character hash references, but does not decode the string afterwards. In the end I have a unicode string object with UTF-8 encoding: So if the string "æble" is contained in the XML, it comes like this in the request: "&#195;&#166;ble" After parsing the XML the unicode string in the DOM Text Node's data member looks like this: u'\xc3\xa6ble' I would expect it to look like this: u'\xe6ble' What am I doing wrong? Should I unescape the SOAP XML before parsing it, or is it somewhere else I should be looking for the solution, maybe gSOAP? Thanks in advance. Best regards Jakob Simon-Gaarde

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  • Dojo 1.8: Getting dest.appendChild is not a function while rendering a custom template

    - by Jim Pedid
    After adding in the WidgetsInTemplateMixin, I am receiving an error dest.appendChild is not a function In the documentation, it claims that there will be an error if this.containerNode is not able to contain any child objects. However, I have marked the containerNode attachment point for a div with dojo type "dijit/layout/ContentPane". Can anyone explain to me why this isn't working? Here is the Template file <div class="${baseClass}"> <div class="${baseClass}Container" data-dojo-type="dijit/layout/BorderContainer" data-dojo-props="design: 'headline'"> <div data-dojo-type="dijit/layout/ContentPane" data-dojo-props="region: 'top'"> Top </div> <div data-dojo-type="dijit/layout/ContentPane" data-dojo-props="region: 'center'" data-dojo-attach-point="containerNode"> </div> <div data-dojo-type="dijit/layout/ContentPane" data-dojo-props="region: 'leading', splitter: true"> Sidebar </div> </div> </div> Here is the javascript definition define([ "dojo/_base/declare", "dijit/_WidgetBase", "dijit/_OnDijitClickMixin", "dijit/layout/BorderContainer", "dijit/layout/ContentPane", "dijit/layout/TabContainer", "dijit/_TemplatedMixin", "dijit/_WidgetsInTemplateMixin", "dojo/text!./templates/MainContainer.html" ], function (declare, _WidgetBase, _OnDijitClickMixin, BorderContainer, ContentPane, TabContainer, _TemplatedMixin, _WidgetsInTemplateMixin, template) { return declare([_WidgetBase, _OnDijitClickMixin, _TemplatedMixin, _WidgetsInTemplateMixin], { templateString:template, baseClass:"main" }); }); The custom widget defined declaratively <div data-dojo-type="main/ui/MainContainer" data-dojo-props="title: 'Main Application'"> Hello Center! </div>

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  • Azure : The process cannot access the file "" because it is being used by another process.

    - by Shantanu
    Hi all, I am trying to get a matlab-compiled exe running on Azure cloud, and for that purpose need to get a v78.zip onto the local storage of the cloud and unzip it, before I can try to run an exe on the cloud. The program works fine when executed locally, but on deployment gives and error at line marked below in the code. The error is : The process cannot access the file 'C:\Resources\directory\cc0a20f5c1314f299ade4973ff1f4cad.WebRole.LocalStorage1\v78.zip' because it is being used by another process. Exception Details: System.IO.IOException: The process cannot access the file 'C:\Resources\directory\cc0a20f5c1314f299ade4973ff1f4cad.WebRole.LocalStorage1\v78.zip' because it is being used by another process. The code is given below: string localPath = RoleEnvironment.GetLocalResource("LocalStorage1").RootPath; Response.Write(localPath + " \n"); Directory.SetCurrentDirectory(localPath); CloudBlob mblob = GetProgramContainer().GetBlobReference("v78.zip"); CloudBlockBlob mbblob = mblob.ToBlockBlob; CloudBlob zipblob = GetProgramContainer().GetBlobReference("7z.exe"); string zipPath = Path.Combine(localPath, "7z.exe"); string matlabPath = Path.Combine(localPath, "v78.zip"); IEnumerable<ListBlockItem> blocklist = mbblob.DownloadBlockList(); BlobStream stream = mbblob.OpenRead(); FileStream fs = File.Create(matlabPath); (Exception occurs here) It'll be great help if someone could tell me where I'm going wrong. Thanks! Shan

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  • How to configure outgoing connections from an SQL stored procedure?

    - by Peter Vestberg
    I am working on a .NET project which uses Microsoft SQL server. In this project, I need a CLR stored procedure (written in C#) that uses a remote web service. So, when the stored procedure is executed on the SQL server, it makes web service calls and thus sends packets to a remote location. The problem is that when executing the SP I get: "System.Net.WebException: The request failed with HTTP status 403: Forbidden." The database user has full permission, the deployed CLR assembly and SP are even marked "unsafe", I tried signing it etc., so any of that is not causing the problem. When I am executing the very same C# code, but from a simple console application instead of as a SP, it all works fine. So I started to suspect a network related problem and had a packet sniffer running when executing both the SP and the console app version. What I realized was that the packets sent out had different destination IP addresses: the console app sent the packets directly to the web service IP while the SP sent the packets to a proxy server we use in our company. Due to network policies the latter is not allowed and that explains the "403 Forbidden" exception. So my question boils down to this: How can I configure the SP/MS SQL server to NOT use that proxy? I want it to send the packets directly to the web service IP, just like the test console app. (again, the C# code is the same , so it's not a programming matter). I've disabled all proxy settings in Internet Explorer in case the SQL server inherits these settings or something. However, no luck. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Best regards, Peter

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  • Spring 2.5 managed servlets: howto?

    - by EugeneP
    Correct me if anything is wrong. As I understand, all Spring functionality, namely DI works when beans are got thru Spring Context, ie getBean() method. Otherwise, none can work, even if my method is marked @Transactional and I will create the owning class with a new operator, no transaction management will be provided. I use Tomcat 6 as a servlet container. So, my question is: how to make Servlet methods managed by Spring framework. The issue here is that I use a framework, and its servlets extend the functionality of basic java Servlets, so they have more methods. Still, web.xml is present in an app as usual. The thing is that I do not control the servlets creation flow, I can only override a few methods of each servlet, the flow is basically written down in some xml file, but I control this process using a graphical gui. So, basically, I only add some code to a few methods of each Servlet. How to make those methods managed by Spring framework? The basic thing I need to do is making these methods transactional (@Transactional).

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  • Problem mapping HttpHandler --> HTTP Error 404 Not Found

    - by JohnIdol
    I am having problems trying to map an HttpHandler in the web.config. This is the relevant config bit: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.hndlr" type="MyAssembly.MyHandler, MyAssembly" validate="false" /> </httpHandlers> When I navigate to http://localhost/myApp/whatever.hndlr I am getting a server error 404 (not found). It's the 1st time I am hooking up an HttpHandler so I might be missing something - any help appreciated! UPDATE: I managed to get it working using both answers so far - who's able to exaplin why it works gets the answer marked! This is my config (won't work if Don't have both - I am running IIS7 in classic mode) System.web: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*MyHandler.hndlr" type="MyAssembly.MyAssemblyHandler, MyAssembly" validate="false"/> </httpHandlers> System.webserver: <handlers> <add name="MyHandler" verb="*" path="*MyHandler.hndlr" type="MyAssembly.MyAssemblyHandler, MyAssembly" validate="false"/> </handlers>

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  • Why are mercurial subrepos behaving as unversioned files in eclipse AND torotoiseHG

    - by noam
    I am trying to use the subrepo feature of mercurial, using the mercurial eclipse plugin\tortoiseHG. These are the steps I took: Created an empty dir /root cloned all repos that I want to be subrepos inside this folder (/root/sub1, /root/sub2) Created and added the .hgsub file in the root repo /root/.hgsub and put all the mappings of the sub repos in it using tortoiseHG, right clicked on /root and selected create repository here again with tortoise, selected all the files inside /root and added them to to the root repo commited the root repo pushed the local root repo into an empty repo I have set up on kiln Then, I pulled the root repo in eclipse, using import-mercurial. Now I see that all the subrepos appear as though they are unversioned (no "orange cylinder" icon next to their corresponding folders in the eclipse file explorer). Furthermore, when I right click on one of the subrepos, I don't get all the hg commands in the "team" menu as I usually get, with root projects - no "pull", "push" etc. Also, when I made a change to a file in a subrepo, and then "committed" the root project, it told me there were no changes found. I see the same behavior also in tortoiseHG - When I am browsing files under /root, the files belonging directly to the root repo have an small icon (a V sign) on them marking they are version controlled, while the subrepos' folders aren't marked as such. Am I doing something wrong, or is it a bug?

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  • Access generic type parameter at runtime?

    - by Bart van Heukelom
    Event dispatcher interface public interface EventDispatcher { <T> EventListener<T> addEventListener(EventListener<T> l); <T> void removeEventListener(EventListener<T> l); } Implementation public class DefaultEventDispatcher implements EventDispatcher { @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") private Map<Class, Set<EventListener>> listeners = new HashMap<Class, Set<EventListener>>(); public void addSupportedEvent(Class eventType) { listeners.put(eventType, new HashSet<EventListener>()); } @Override public <T> EventListener<T> addEventListener(EventListener<T> l) { Set<EventListener> lsts = listeners.get(T); // ****** error: cannot resolve T if (lsts == null) throw new RuntimeException("Unsupported event type"); if (!lsts.add(l)) throw new RuntimeException("Listener already added"); return l; } @Override public <T> void removeEventListener(EventListener<T> l) { Set<EventListener> lsts = listeners.get(T); // ************* same error if (lsts == null) throw new RuntimeException("Unsupported event type"); if (!lsts.remove(l)) throw new RuntimeException("Listener is not here"); } } Usage EventListener<ShapeAddEvent> l = addEventListener(new EventListener<ShapeAddEvent>() { @Override public void onEvent(ShapeAddEvent event) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } }); removeEventListener(l); I've marked two errors with a comment above (in the implementation). Is there any way to get runtime access to this information?

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  • Inside what the TexBox value is posted back? ViewState or post back data?

    - by burak ozdogan
    In one article I was reading on ViewState, I saw a sentence saying that I should not fall into a mistake to believe that the value of a TextBox is stored in ViewState; it is stored in PostBack data. From here what I understand is when I post back a web form, the input controls values are stored in HTTP Request body. Not in the Viewstate. But as far as I know ViewState values are stored in an hidden field called __VIEWSTATE anyway. Then does it mean that __VIEVSTATE value is not posted in HTTP POST Request body as a postback data? Sounds nonesense to me. In another words, basically if I say the ViewState mechanism for such scenerio works like this, am I seeing it right or skipping something: You enter a value on an empty TextBox and submit the page The value of text box is posted back inside POST HTTP Request body. Nothing inside __VIEWSTATE at this point from the TextBox On the server side, the TextBox is created with the default value on OnInit method of the page The TrackChange property of ViewState is set to true. The posted back data of TextBox is loaded. Because it is different than the TextBox defalut value(because the user entered something), the ViewState of this text box is marked as DIRTY. The new value of the textbox is written into __VIEWSTATE hidden field From now on __VIEWSTATE hiddenfeild contains the last given value of the TextBox The page is sent to the user's browser having the __VIEWSTATE hidden field. But this time containing the last value entered by user which will be ready to be rendered Thanks guys! burak ozdogan

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • Beyond the @Produces annotation, how does Jersey (JAX-RS) know to treat a POJO as a specific mime ty

    - by hal10001
    I see a lot of examples for Jersey that look something like this: public class ItemResource { @GET @Path("/items") @Produces({"text/xml", "application/json"}) public List<Item> getItems() { List<Item> items = new ArrayList<Item>(); Item item = new Item(); item.setItemName("My Item Name!"); items.add(item); return items; } } But then I have trouble dissecting Item, and how Jersey knows how to translate an Item to either XML or JSON. I've seen very basic examples that just return a String of constructed HTML or XML, which makes more sense to me, but I'm missing the next step. I looked at the samples, and one of them stood out (the json-from-jaxb sample), since the object was marked with these types of annotations: @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.FIELD) @XmlType(name = "", propOrder = { "flight" }) @XmlRootElement(name = "flights") I'm looking for tutorials that cover this "translation" step-by-step, or an explanation here of how to translate a POJO to output as a specific mime type. Thanks!

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  • Can a class inherit from LambdaExpression in .NET? Or is this not recommended?

    - by d.
    Consider the following code (C# 4.0): public class Foo : LambdaExpression { } This throws the following design-time error: Foo does not implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) There's absolutely no problem with public class Foo : Expression { } but, out of curiosity and for the sake of learning, I've searched in Google System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) and guess what: zero results returned (when was the last time you saw that?). Needless to say, I haven't found any documentation on this method anywhere else. As I said, one can easily inherit from Expression; on the other hand LambdaExpression, while not marked as sealed (Expression<TDelegate> inherits from it), seems to be designed to prevent inheriting from it. Is this actually the case? Does anyone out there know what this method is about? EDIT (1): More info based on the first answers - If you try to implement Accept, the editor (C# 2010 Express) automatically gives you the following stub: protected override Expression Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor visitor) { return base.Accept(visitor); } But you still get the same error. If you try to use a parameter of type StackSpiller directly, the compiler throws a different error: System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller is inaccessible due to its protection level. EDIT (2): Based on other answers, inheriting from LambdaExpression is not possible so the question as to whether or not it is recommended becomes irrelevant. I wonder if, in cases like this, the error message should be Foo cannot implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) because [reasons go here]; the current error message (as some answers prove) seems to tell me that all I need to do is implement Accept (which I can't do).

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  • Why won't VS2010 RC use my existing types when I add a service reference?

    - by Johan Driessen
    I have a huge problem getting services references in VS2010 RC to use existing assemblies. Even though I have a class library with all the data contracts (classes marked with DataContract and properties with DataMember) that is shared between the service project and the consuming project (which is a class library), when I add a service reference, the data contracts are regenerated withing the service reference instead of using the existing types. When I was using VS2010 beta 2, this worked fine, and I have existing service references using the very same data contracts. But if I add a new service reference, or even update an old one, it won't use the existing types anymore. I have made a mini-test-solution, with one service, one data contract type and one console app as a consumer (all in the same solution), and there it seems to work, but that's no great comfort to me. Is there any way to see why it can't use the existing types? Edit to clearify. It works to generate the proxy classes with svcutil.exe, and point to the data contracts dll, like this: svcutil.exe http://localhost/MyService.svc /reference:[Path To DataContracts]\DataContracts.dll /n:*,MyProject.MyServiceReference /ct:System.Collections.Generic.List`1 The question is, what possible reason could there be for Visual Studio to generate its own datacontracts instead of using the existing ones even though the "reuse" checkbox is checked and the datacontracts assembly is referenced.

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  • Update a PDF to include an encrypted, hidden, unique identifier?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background The idea is this: Person provides contact information for online book purchase Book, as a PDF, is marked with a unique hash Person downloads book PDF passwords are annoying and extremely easy to circumvent. The ideal process would be something like: Generate hash based on contact information Store contact information and hash in database Acquire book lock Update an "include" file with hash text Generate book as PDF (using pdflatex) Apply hash to book Release book lock Send email with book download link Technologies The following technologies can be used (other programming languages are possible, but libraries will likely be limited to those supplied by the host): C, Java, PHP LaTeX files PDF files Linux Question What programming techniques (or open source software) should I investigate to: Embed a unique hash (or other mark) to a PDF Create a collusion-attack resistant mark Develop a non-fragile (e.g., PDF -> EPS -> PDF still contains the mark) solution Research I have looked at the following possibilities: Steganography Natural Language Processing (NLP) Convert blank pages in PDF to images; mark those images; reassemble PDF LaTeX watermark package ImageMagick Steganograhy requires keeping a master copy of the images, and I'm not sure if the watermark would survive PDF -> EPS -> PDF, or other types of conversion. LaTeX creates an image cache, so any steganographic process would have to intercept that process somehow. NLP introduces grammatical errors. Inserting blank pages as images is immediately suspect; it is easy to replace suspicious blank pages. The LaTeX watermark package draws visible marks. ImageMagick draws visible marks. What other solutions are possible? Related Links http://www.tcpdf.org/ invisible watermarks in images Thank you!

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  • TSQL to insert an ascending value

    - by David Neale
    I am running some SQL that identifies records which need to be marked for deletion and to insert a value into those records. This value must be changed to render the record useless and each record must be changed to a unique value because of a database constraint. UPDATE Users SET Username = 'Deleted' + (ISNULL( Cast(SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%') AS INT) ,0) + 1 FROM Users a LEFT OUTER JOIN #ADUSERS b ON a.Username = 'AVSOMPOL\' + b.sAMAccountName WHERE (b.sAMAccountName is NULL AND a.Username LIKE 'AVSOMPOL%') OR b.userAccountControl = 514 This is the important bit: SET Username = 'Deleted' + (ISNULL( Cast(SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%') AS INT) ,0) + 1 What I've tried to do is have deleted records have their Username field set to 'Deletedxxx'. The ISNULL is needed because there may be no records matching the SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%' statement and this will return NULL. I get a syntax error when trying to parse this (Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'SELECT'. Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near ')'. I'm sure there must be a better way to go about this, any ideas?

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  • Spring - Transaction Readonly

    - by AAK
    Hello Gurus! Just wanted your expert opinions on declarative transaction management for Spring. Here is my setup - A. DAO Layer is Plain old JDBC using jdbcTemplete (No hibernate etc) B. Service Layer is POJO with declarative trasnactions as follows - save*, readonly=false, rollback for Throwable Things work fine with above setup. However when I say get*, readonly=true I see errors in my log file saying - Database connection cannot be marked as readonly. This happens for all get* methods in Service Layer. Now my questions - A. Do I have to say get* as readonly? All my get* methods are pure read DB operations. I do not wish to run them in any transaction context. How serious is the above error? B. When I remove the get* confiiguration, I do not see the errors, morever all my simple get* operations are performed without transactions. Is this the way to go? C. Why would anyone want to have transactional methods where readonly = true? Is there any practical significance of this configuration? Thank you! As always your resposes are much appreciated!

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  • How to make an entity out of a join table without primary key

    - by tputkonen
    I'm trying to generate JPA entities out of an existing database having an "interesting" design. Database has a table called UserSet, which can have links to several other UserSets. There is a one to many relation between UserSets and LinkedUserSets. LinkedUserSets also has one to one relation to UserSets. I tried to generate a JPA Entity out of the database structure using Dali JPA Tools. The resulting entity Linkeduserset misses @Id or @EmbeddedId annotation and thus failes to compile. As the resulting entity contains only two @JoinColumns (which cannot be marked as @Id), I have not so far found a way around this issue. Database structure can not be modified in any way. Is there a way to overcome this somehow? Relevant pars of create table statements: CREATE TABLE `LinkedUserSets` ( `UsrSetID` INT(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0' , `ChildID` INT(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0' , CONSTRAINT `fk_LinkedUserSets_UserSet1` FOREIGN KEY (`UsrSetID` ) REFERENCES `UserSet` (`UsrSetID` )); CREATE TABLE `UserSet` ( `UsrSetID` INT(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`UsrSetID`), CONSTRAINT `fk_UserSet_LinkedUserSets1` FOREIGN KEY (`UsrSetID` ) REFERENCES `LinkedUserSets` (`ChildID` )); Generated entities: @Entity @Table(name="linkedusersets") public class Linkeduserset { //bi-directional many-to-one association to Userset @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="UsrSetID") private Userset userset1; //bi-directional one-to-one association to Userset @OneToOne @JoinColumn(name="ChildID") private Userset userset2; } @Entity @Table(name="userset") public class Userset { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Column(name="UsrSetID") private int jngSetID; //bi-directional many-to-one association to Linkeduserset @OneToMany(mappedBy="userset1") private Set<Linkeduserset> linkedusersets; //bi-directional one-to-one association to Linkeduserset @OneToOne(mappedBy="userset2") private Linkeduserset linkeduserset; } Error message: Entity "Linkeduserset" has no Id or EmbeddedId

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  • Multi-level shop, xml or sql. best practice?

    - by danrichardson
    Hello, i have a general "best practice" question regarding building a multi-level shop, which i hope doesn't get marked down/deleted as i personally think it's quite a good "subjective" question. I am a developer in charge (in most part) of maintaining and evolving a cms system and associated front-end functionality. Over the past half year i have developed a multiple level shop system so that an infinite level of categories may exist down into a product level and all works fine. However over the last week or so i have questioned by own methods in front-end development and the best way to show the multi-level data structure. I currently use a sql server database (2000) and pull out all the shop levels and then process them into an enumerable typed list with child enumerable typed lists, so that all levels are sorted. This in my head seems quite process heavy, but we're not talking about thousands of rows, generally only 1-500 rows maybe. I have been toying with the idea recently of storing the structure in an XML document (as well as the database) and then sending last modified headers when serving/requesting the document for, which would then be processed as/when nessecary with an xsl(t) document - which would be processed server side. This is quite a handy, reusable method of storing the data but does it have more overheads in the fact im opening and closing files? And also the xml will require a bit of processing to pull out blocks of xml if for instance i wanted to show two level mid way through the tree for a side menu. I use the above method for sitemap purposes so there is currently already code i have built which does what i require, but unsure what the best process is to go about. Maybe a hybrid method which pulls out the data, sorts it and then makes an xml document/stream (XDocument/XmlDocument) for xsl processing is a good way? - This is the way i currently make the cms work for the shop. So really (and thanks for sticking with me on this), i am just wandering which methods other people use or recommend as being the best/most logical way of doing things. Thanks Dan

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  • How to use a int2 database-field as a boolean in Java using JPA/Hibernate

    - by mg
    Hello... I write an application based on an already existing database (postgreSQL) using JPA and Hibernate. There is a int2-column (activeYN) in a table, which is used as a boolean (0 = false (inactive), not 0 = true (active)). In the Java application i want to use this attribute as a boolean. So i defined the attribute like this: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private boolean active; @Column(name="activeYN") public boolean isActive() { return this.active; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } But there ist an exception because Hibernate expects an boolean database-field and not an int2. Can i do this mapping i any way while using a boolean in java?? I have a possible solution for this, but i don't really like it: My "hacky"-solution is the following: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private short active_USED_BY_JPA; //short because i need int2 /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. Use the method isActive() */ @Column(name="activeYN") public short getActive_USED_BY_JPA() { return this.active_USED_BY_JPA; } /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. * Use the method setActive(boolean active) */ public void setActive_USED_BY_JPA(short active) { this.active_USED_BY_JPA = active; } @Transient //jpa will ignore transient marked methods public boolean isActive() { return getActive_USED_BY_JPA() != 0; } @Transient public void setActive(boolean active) { this.setActive_USED_BY_JPA = active ? -1 : 0; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } Are there any other solutions for this problem? The "hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto"-value in the hibernate configuration is set to "validate". (sorry, my english is not the best, i hope you understand it anyway)..

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  • magento, making a grouped product show on sale based on product children prices

    - by thrice801
    Hi, Question regarding Magento and sale items. So I have to use grouped items to link multiple items which are the same style but different colors, these are the items I have showing on my search results/category pages. - I am trying to figure out how I can make the master sku, show as on sale, when the children items are marked on sale. I am able to make it show up on the product page, but anytime I have tried calling any of the getchildren methods outside of grouped.phtml, I have failed, horribly. I think I worked on that method for probably 36 hours unsuccessfully calling it from any other page. So, I thought I would ask here. Does anyone know how I could call the getchildskus or whatever it is method, from the category page, so that I can do something like, for each child product, compare sale price with active price, if there is a difference, calculate the percentage off, and display the largest difference as "ON SALE, UP TO 30% OFF!", or whatever it may be? Any help would be much appreciated. (oh, and I cant set a price on the main group sku, I sell sunglasses and watches mainly and many times a different color will differ in price quite significantly.)

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  • How to change the view angle and label value of a chart .NET C#

    - by George
    Short Description I am using charts for a specific application where i need to change the view angle of the rendered 3D Pie chart and value of automatic labels from pie label names to corresponding pie values. This how the chart looks: Initialization This is how i initialize it: Dictionary<string, decimal> secondPersonsWithValues = HistoryModel.getSecondPersonWithValues(); decimal[] yValues = new decimal[secondPersonsWithValues.Values.Count]; //VALUES string[] xValues = new string[secondPersonsWithValues.Keys.Count]; //LABELS secondPersonsWithValues.Keys.CopyTo(xValues, 0); secondPersonsWithValues.Values.CopyTo(yValues, 0); incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].ChartType = System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.SeriesChartType.Pie; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].Points.DataBindXY(xValues, yValues); incomeExpenseChart.ChartAreas["Default"].Area3DStyle.Enable3D = true; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].CustomProperties = "PieLabelStyle=Outside"; incomeExpenseChart.Legends["Default"].Enabled = true; incomeExpenseChart.ChartAreas["Default"].Area3DStyle.LightStyle = System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.LightStyle.Realistic; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"]["PieDrawingStyle"] = "SoftEdge"; Basically i am querying data from database using the HistoryModel.getSecondPersonWithValues(); to get pairs as Dictionary<string, decimal> where key is the person and value is ammount. Problem #1 What i need is to be able to change the marked labels from person names to the ammounts or add another label of ammounts with the same colors (See Image). Problem #2 Another problem is that i need to change the view angle of 3D Pie chart. Maybe it's very simple and I just don't know the needed property or maybe i need to override some paint event. Either ways any kind of ways would be appriciated. Thanks in advance George.

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  • Help write regex that will surround certain text with <strong> tags, only if the <strong> tag isn't

    - by sahil
    I have several posts on a website; all these posts are chat conversations of this type: AD: Hey! BC: What's up? AD: Nothing BC: Okay They're marked up as simple paragraphs surrounded by <p> tags. Using the javascript replace function, I want all instances of "AD" in the beginning of a conversation (ie, all instances of "AD" at the starting of a line followed by a ":") to be surrounded by <strong> tags, but only if the instance isn't already surrounded by a <strong> tag. What regex should I use to accomplish this? Am I trying to do what this advises against? The code I'm using is like this: var posts = document.getElementsByClassName('entry-content'); for (var i = 0; i < posts.length; i++) { posts[i].innerHTML = posts[i].innerHTML.replace(/some regex here/, 'replaced content here'); }

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