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  • The HTTP request was forbidden with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous'

    - by dudia
    I am trying to configure a WCF server\client to work with SSL I get the following exception: The HTTP request was forbidden with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous' I have a self hosted WCF server. I have run hhtpcfg both my client and server certificates are stored under Personal and Trusted People on the Local Machine Here is the server code: binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Certificate; binding.Security.Mode = WebHttpSecurityMode.Transport; _host.Credentials.ClientCertificate.Authentication.CertificateValidationMode = System.ServiceModel.Security.X509CertificateValidationMode.PeerOrChainTrust; _host.Credentials.ClientCertificate.Authentication.RevocationMode = X509RevocationMode.NoCheck; _host.Credentials.ClientCertificate.Authentication.TrustedStoreLocation = StoreLocation.LocalMachine; _host.Credentials.ServiceCertificate.SetCertificate("cn=ServerSide", StoreLocation.LocalMachine, StoreName.My); Client Code: binding.Security.Mode = WebHttpSecurityMode.Transport; binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Certificate; WebChannelFactory<ITestClientForServer> cf = new WebChannelFactory<ITestClientForServer>(binding, url2Bind); cf.Credentials.ClientCertificate.SetCertificate("cn=ClientSide", StoreLocation.LocalMachine, StoreName.My); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback += RemoteCertificateValidate; Looking at web_tracelog.svclog and trace.log reveals that the server cannot autheticate the client certificate My certificate are not signed by an Authorized CA but this is why I added them to the Trusted People.... What Am I missing? What am I missing?

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  • System.Net.WebClient doesn't work with Windows Authentication

    - by Peter Hahndorf
    I am trying to use System.Net.WebClient in a WinForms application to upload a file to an IIS6 server which has Windows Authentication as it only 'Authentication' method. WebClient myWebClient = new WebClient(); myWebClient.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(@"boxname\peter", "mypassword"); byte[] responseArray = myWebClient.UploadFile("http://localhost/upload.aspx", fileName); I get a 'The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized', actually it is a 401.2 Both client and IIS are on the same Windows Server 2003 Dev machine. When I try to open the page in Firefox and enter the same correct credentials as in the code, the page comes up. However when using IE8, I get the same 401.2 error. Tried Chrome and Opera and they both work. I have 'Enable Integrated Windows Authentication' enabled in the IE Internet options. The Security Event Log has a Failure Audit: Logon Failure: Reason: An error occurred during logon User Name: peter Domain: boxname Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: ÈùÄ Authentication Package: NTLM Workstation Name: boxname Status code: 0xC000006D Substatus code: 0x0 Caller User Name: - Caller Domain: - Caller Logon ID: - Caller Process ID: - Transited Services: - Source Network Address: 127.0.0.1 Source Port: 1476 I used Process Monitor and Fiddler to investigate but to no avail. Why would this work for 3rd party browsers but not with IE or System.Net.WebClient?

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  • Can not call web service with basic authentication using WCF

    - by RexM
    I've been given a web service written in Java that I'm not able to make any changes to. It requires the user authenticate with basic authentication to access any of the methods. The suggested way to interact with this service in .NET is by using Visual Studio 2005 with WSE 3.0 installed. This is an issue, since the project is already using Visual Studio 2008 (targeting .NET 2.0). I could do it in VS2005, however I do not want to tie the project to VS2005 or do it by creating an assembly in VS2005 and including that in the VS2008 solution (which basically ties the project to 2005 anyway for any future changes to the assembly). I think that either of these options would make things complicated for new developers by forcing them to install WSE 3.0 and keep the project from being able to use 2008 and features in .NET 3.5 in the future... ie, I truly believe using WCF is the way to go. I've been looking into using WCF for this, however I'm unsure how to get the WCF service to understand that it needs to send the authentication headers along with each request. I'm getting 401 errors when I attempt to do anything with the web service. This is what my code looks like: WebHttpBinding webBinding = new WebHttpBinding(); ChannelFactory<MyService> factory = new ChannelFactory<MyService>(webBinding, new EndpointAddress( "http://127.0.0.1:80/Service/Service/")); factory.Endpoint.Behaviors.Add(new WebHttpBehavior()); factory.Credentials.UserName.UserName = "username"; factory.Credentials.UserName.Password = "password"; MyService proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); proxy.postSubmission(_postSubmission); This will run and throw the following exception: "The HTTP request is unauthorized with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous'. The authentication header received from the server was 'Basic realm=realm'." And this has an inner exception of: "The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized." Any thoughts about what might be causing this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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  • End-to-end kerberos delegated authentication in ASP.NET

    - by Erlend
    I'm trying to setup an internal website that will contact another backend service within the network on behalf of the user using a HttpWebRequest. I have to use Integrated Windows Authentication on the ASP.NET application as the backend system only supports this type of authentication. I'm able to setup IWA on the ASP.NET application, and it's using kerberos as I expect it to. However when the authentication is delegated to the backend system it doesn't work anymore. This is because the backend system only supports kerberos IWA, but the delegation for some reason - even though the incoming request is kerberos authenticated - converts the authentication to NTLM before forwaring to the backend system. Does anybody know what I need to do on the ASP.NET application in order to allow it to forward the identity using kerberos? I've currently tried the followin but it doesn't seem to work CredentialCache credentialCache = new CredentialCache(); credentialCache.Add(request.RequestUri, "Negotiate", CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials.GetCredential(request.RequestUri, "Kerberos")); request.Credentials = credentialCache; I've also tried to set "Kerberos" where it now says "Negotiate", but it doesn't seem to do much.

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  • Facebook Graph API authentication in canvas app and track session

    - by cdpnet
    Short question is: how can i use graph api oauth redirects mechanism to authenticate user and save retrieved access_token and also use javascript SDK when needed (the problem is javascript SDK will have different access_token when initialized). I have initially setup my facebook iframe canvas app, with single sign on. This works well with graph api, as I am able to use access_token saved by facebook's javascript when it detects sessionchange(user logged in). But, I want to rather not do single sign-on. But, use graph api redirect and force user to send to a permissions dialog. But, if he has already given permissions, I shouldn't redirect user. How to handle this? Another question: I have done graph api redirects for authentication and have retrieved access_token also. But then, what if I want to use javascript call FB.ui to do stream.Publish? I think it will use it's own access_token which is set during FB.init and detecting session. So, I am looking for some path here. How to use graph api for authentication and also use facebook's javascript SDK when needed. P.S. I'm using ASP .NET MVC 2. I have an authentication filter developed, which needs to detect the user's authentication state and redirect.(currently it does this to graph api authorize url)

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  • Spring Security 3.0 - Intercept-URL - All pages require authentication but one

    - by gav
    Hi All, I want any user to be able to submit their name to a volunteer form but only administrators to be able to view any other URL. Unfortunately I don't seem to be able to get this correct. My resources.xml are as follows; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/security" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/security http://www.springframework.org/schema/security/spring-security-3.0.xsd"> <http realm = "BumBumTrain Personnel list requires you to login" auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <http-basic/> <intercept-url pattern="/person/volunteer*" access=""/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider> <user-service> <user name="admin" password="admin" authorities="ROLE_ADMIN"/> </user-service> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> </beans:beans> Specifically I am trying to achieve the access settings I described via; <intercept-url pattern="/person/volunteer*" access=""/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> Could someone please describe how to use intercept-url to achieve the outcome I've described? Thanks Gav

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  • Spring Security 3.0- Customise basic http Authentication Dialog

    - by gav
    Rather than reading; A user name and password are being requested by http://localhost:8080. The site says: "Spring Security Application" I want to change the prompt, or at least change what the "site says". Does anyone know how to do this via resources.xml? In my Grails App Spring configuration, my current version is as follows; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/security" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/security http://www.springframework.org/schema/security/spring-security-3.0.xsd"> <http auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <http-basic/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider> <user-service> <user name="admin" password="admin" authorities="ROLE_ADMIN"/> </user-service> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> </beans:beans>

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  • Replacing mysql user authentication with openid

    - by David
    So, I'm working with a really old system which uses a person's mysql database credentials to authenticate to a web site (the database was originally only accessed from the command line, but is now accessed from a php frontend). Because of some internal reasons (and to preserve the user's history), I have to leave the old authentication intact. I've been charged with adding openid authentication to this system. Somehow I need to be able to retrieve a users mysql username and password upon logging into the site through openid (using the Zend framework, by the way). I've thought of simply requiring registration at the first login, where the user must provide their mysql credentials, but I'd rather not store the password plain text. I've also considered blanking everyone's mysql passwords, and just setting the user's mysql username manually (rather than having the user provide this, since they could provide any username). This is turning into a security nightmare. Does anyone have any suggestions for alternatives? This is running on a Linux server, by the way. Also, I can't use mysql pluggable authentication because the mysql version is 5.0 (pluggable authentication requires mysql 5.5), and no, I can't update it.

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  • How do I grant anonymous access to a url using FormsAuthentication?

    - by Brian Bolton
    For the most part, my webapp requires authentication to do anything. There are a few pages, namely the homepage, that I'd like people to be able to access without authenticating. Specifically, I'd like to allow anonymous access to these urls: /home /default.aspx I'm using asp.net MVC and FormsAuthentication. Both urls point to the same view: /home/index.aspx Here is my current configuration in web.config. <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" timeout="2880" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> Reading the documentation for the authorization tag, it says "Configures the authorization for a Web application, controlling client access to URL resources." It seems like I should be able to use the authorization tag to specify a url and allow access. Something like: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" timeout="2880" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> <authorization url="/default.aspx"> <allow users="?" /> </authorization> <authorization url="/home"> <allow users="?" /> </authorization>

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  • Consuming SharePoint Web Services fails when behind Proxy server

    - by Jan Petersen
    Hi All, I've seen a number of post about consuming Web Services from behind a proxy server, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

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  • Authenticate sites with different domain names using the Facebook API

    - by Onema
    We have a CMS that supports multiple sites, one of our features allows our users (The site admin) to connect to the site facebook account to allow status updates, create events and upload pictures to FB from with in the CMS. The authentication needs to occur once since each site may have multiple site admins that do not have access to the site FB user name and password. We use iframe and authenticate using $facebook-require_login() which redirects the user to the FB login and authentication pages. All this works just fine but when the user hits "Allow" the authentication will break as it will only redirect to whatever is in the "Post-Authorize Redirect URL" field making the app obsolete for any other domain except the one in the "Post-Authorize Redirect URL" I know other API's authentication methods like in Vimeo and YouTube will allow you to specify a NEXT parameter which is the equivalent of the "Post-Authorize Redirect URL" and it can be set at run time. How can I make this work for multiple domain names? Any hints on this issue will be of great help

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  • ReturnUrl = Default.aspx for MVC?

    - by Cynthia
    I'm trying to secure my entire MVC site, so before the Home controller, I added an [Authorize] attribute. Now if you run it from Visual Studio or navigate using the root URL (e.g. http://localhost:2897) it does redirect to the login page, as expected. However the URL in the address bar after redirection looks like this: http://localhost:2897/Account/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2fdefault.aspx%3f I haven't tested this out, seeing as I have not implemented my authentication code. However, this looks like a big problem to me, since I do not have a default.aspx in my project! My authentication tag in the web.config looks like this: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" defaultUrl="~/Home/Index" timeout="2880"/> </authentication> Why doesn't it pick up this route as the default ReturnUrl instead of default.aspx?

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  • REST API unauthenticated requests exception based on the User-Agent

    - by Shay Tsadok
    Hi All, I am developing a REST API that supports two kinds of authentication protocols: login form authentication - for browser based clients. Simple Basic authentication - for non-browser clients. I developed a flow in which unauthenticated requests redirected to the "login form", the problem is that this is an undesired behavior for non-borwser clients! I thought to solve it by decide according to the "User-Agent" what to do: browsers will be redirected to the "login form" and non-browser clients will get the standard 401:Basic Authentication. A. What do you think about this solution? B. Is there a standard way in Java to check if the request came from browser, or do i need to develop this kind of mechanism by my own? Thanks in advance!

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  • CSRF protection and cross site form access

    - by fl00r
    Hi. I aw working on cross site authentication (some domains have got common authentication). So I want to send authentication data (login, password) to main domain from others. How should I use protect_from_forgery and how can I check if data received from valid domain? What I am thinking now is to turn off protect_from_forgery for session controller and check domain name of received data. But maybe I can configure CSRF protection for not only one domain?

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  • How do I ensure my C# software can access the internet in a Citrix + ISA environment?

    - by TomFromThePool
    Hi everyone, A client recently informed us that deployment of our software in their environment has failed due to a proxy error when the software attempts to access the internet. The client has a combination of Citrix and Microsoft's ISA server. The software allows the use of a proxy and the ability to manually enter authentication information, or automatically retrieve the current system proxy settings. The error returned is the standard 407 authentication error, but the client assures us that they have entered the authentication information required. They have also shown us the snippet of the ISA error logs which identify the client as Anonymous and the authentication protocol as Basic. I have a few questions I suppose: How should I go about dealing with the ISA server in my code? I have no real experience with this environment and am assuming that the ISA server is treated like any other proxy. If I am mistaken, what should I be doing? Does ISA allow the administrator to disallow specific authentication protocols - and if this is the case and 'Basic' auth is disallowed, would it still return a 407 error? Could the Citrix environment have caused this issue? Is there any particular way to ensure that my software will work in such an environment? Code-samples would be much appreciated. I have neither a Citrix test server or an ISA server at my disposal to carry out testing on this so I am currently trying to identify possible causes before I make the case for investment in a more robust testing environment. Thanks for any help!

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  • CSRF protecting and cross site form access

    - by fl00r
    Hi. I aw working on cross site authentication (some domains have got common authentication). So I want to send authentication data (login, password) to main domain from others. How should I use protect_from_forgery and how can I check if data received from valid domain? What I am thinking now is to turn off protect_from_forgery for session controller and check domain name of received data. But maybe I can configure CSRF protection for not only one domain?

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  • Requirement refinement between two levels of specification

    - by user107149
    I am currently working on the definition of the documentation architecture of a system, from customers needs to software/hardware requirements. I encounter a big problem with the level of refinement of requirements. The classic architecture is : PTS -- SSS -- SSDD -- SRS/HRS with PTS : Purshaser Technical Specification SSS : Supplier System Specification SSDD : System Segment Design Description SRS / HRS : Software / Hardware Requirement Specification. Requirements from PTS are reworked in SSS, this document only expressed the needs (no design requirements are defined at this level). Then, the system design is described in SSDD : we allocate requirements from the SSS to functions from the design and functions are then allocated to component (Software or hardware) (we are still at the SSDD level). Finally, for each component, we write one SRS or one HRS. Requirements in SRS or HRS are refinement of requirements from SSS (and traceability matrix are made between these two levels). My problem is the following one : Our system is a complex one, and some of the requirements in the SSS needs to be refined twice to be at the right level in the SRS (means that software people can understand the requirement to make their coding). But, with this document architecture, I can only refine once the requirements from the SSS. The second problem is that only a part of the requirements from the SSS needs to be refined twice. The other part only need one refinement. On the picture below, the green boxes are requirements at the right level for SRS or HRS. And purple boxes are intermediate requirements which can not be included in SSS since they are design requirements. Where can I put these purple requirements ?? Is there someone who has already encountered this problem ? Should I write two documents at SRS level ? Should I include intermediate requirements in SSDD ? Should I includes the two refinement levels (purple and green) in the same SRS document (not sure that's possible since a SRS is only for one component) ??? Thanks for your help and expertise ;-)

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  • How bad is it to have two methods with the same name but different signatures in two classes?

    - by Super User
    I have a design problem related to a public interface, the names of methods, and the understanding of my API and code. I have two classes like this: class A: ... function collision(self): .... ... class B: .... function _collision(self, another_object, l, r, t, b): .... The first class has one public method named collision, and the second has one private method called _collision. The two methods differs in argument type and number. As an example let's say that _collision checks if the object is colliding with another object with certain conditions l, r, t, b (collide on the left side, right side, etc) and returns true or false. The public collision method, on the other hand, resolves all the collisions of the object with other objects. The two methods have the same name because I think it's better to avoid overloading the design with different names for methods that do almost the same thing, but in distinct contexts and classes. Is this clear enough to the reader or I should change the method's name?

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  • How bad it's have two methods with the same name but differents signatures in two classes?

    - by Super User
    I have a design problem relationated with the public interface, the names of methods and the understanding of my API and my code. I have two classes like this: class A: ... function collision(self): .... ... class B: .... function _collision(self, another_object, l, r, t, b): .... The first class have one public method named collision and the second have one private method called _collision. The two methods differs in arguments type and number. In the API _m method is private. For the example let's say that the _collision method checks if the object is colliding with another_ object with certain conditions l, r, t, b (for example, collide the left side, the right side, etc) and returns true or false according to the case. The collision method, on the other hand, resolves all the collisions of the object with other objects. The two methods have the same name because I think is better avoid overload the design with different names for methods who do almost the same think, but in distinct contexts and classes. This is clear enough to the reader or I should change the method's name?

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  • Conflict resolution for two-way sync

    - by K.Steff
    How do you manage two-way synchronization between a 'main' database server and many 'secondary' servers, in particular conflict resolution, assuming a connection is not always available? For example, I have an mobile app that uses CoreData as the 'database' on the iOS and I'd like to allow users to edit the contents without Internet connection. In the same time, this information is available on a website the devices will connect to. What do I do if/when the data on the two DB servers is in conflict? (I refer to CoreData as a DB server, though I am aware it is something slightly different.) Are there any general strategies for dealing with this sort of issue? These are the options I can think of: 1. Always use the client-side data as higher-priority 2. Same for server-side 3. Try to resolve conflicts by marking each field's edit timestamp and taking the latest edit Though I'm certain the 3rd option will open room for some devastating data corruption. I'm aware that the CAP theorem concerns this, but I only want eventual consistency, so it doesn't rule it out completely, right? Related question: Best practice patterns for two-way data synchronization. The second answer to this question says it probably can't be done.

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  • Algorithm to match timestamped events from two sources

    - by urza.cc
    I have two different physical devices (one is camera, one is other device) that observe the same scene and mark when a specified event occures. (record timestamp) So they each produce a serie of timestamps "when the event was observed". Theoretically the recorded timestamps should be very well aligned: Visualized ideal situation on two time lines "s" and "r" as recorded from the two devices: but more likely they will not be so nicely aligned and there might be missing events from timeline s or r: I am looking for algorithm to match events from "s" and "r" like this: So that the result will be something like: (s1,null); (s2,r1); (s3,null); (s4,r2); (s5,r3); (null,r4); (s6,r5); Or something similar. Maybe with some "confidence" rating. I have some ideas, but I feel that this might be probably a well known problem, that has some good known solutions, but I don't know the right terminology. I am a little bit out of my element here, this is not my primary area of programming.. Any helps, suggestions etc will be appreciated.

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  • Software architecture for two similar classes which require different input parameters for the same method

    - by I Like to Code
    I am writing code to simulate a supply chain. The supply chain can be simulated in either an intermediate stocking or a cross-docking configuration. So, I wrote two simulator objects IstockSimulator and XdockSimulator. Since the two objects share certain behaviors (e.g. making shipments, demand arriving), I wrote an abstract simulator object AbstractSimulator which is a parent class of the two simulator objects. The abstract simulator object has a method runSimulation() which takes an input parameter of class SimulationParameters. Up till now, the simulation parameters only contains fields that are common to both simulator objects, such as randomSeed, simulationStartPeriod and simulationEndPeriod. However, I now want to include fields that are specific to the type of simulation that is being run, i.e. an IstockSimulationParameters class for an intermediate stocking simulation, and a XdockSimulationParameters class for a cross-docking simulation. My current idea is take the method runSimulation() out of the AbstractSimulator class, but to put a runSimulation(IstockSimulationParameters) method in the IstockSimulator class, and a runSimulation(XdockSimulationParameters) method in the IstockSimulator class. I am worried however, that this approach will lead to code duplication. What should I do?

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  • Two components offering the same functionality, required by different dependencies

    - by kander
    I'm building an application in PHP, using Zend Framework 1 and Doctrine2 as the ORM layer. All is going well. Now, I happened to notice that both ZF1 and Doctrine2 come with, and rely on, their own caching implementation. I've evaluated both, and while each has its own pro's and cons, neither of them stand out as superior to the other for my simple needs. Both libraries also seem to be written against their respective interfaces, not their implementations. Reasons why I feel this is an issue is that during the bootstrapping of my application, I have to configure two caching drivers - each with its own syntax. A mismatch is easily created this way, and it feels inefficient to set up two connections to the caching backend because of this. I'm trying to determine what the best way forward is, and would welcome any insights you may be able to offer. What I've thought up so far are four options: Do nothing, accept that two classes offering caching functionality are present. Create a Facade class to stick Zend's interface onto Doctrine's caching implementation. Option 2, the other way around - create a Facade to map Doctrine's interface on a Zend Framework backend. Use multiple-interface-inheritance to create one interface to rule them all, and pray that there aren't any overlaps (ie: if both have a "save" method, they'll need to accept params in the same order due to PHP's lack of proper polymorphism). What option is best, or is there a "None of the above" variant that I'm not aware of?

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  • Am I running out of memory or do I have two logical drives instead of one

    - by user30904
    I did a complete reinstall of Ubuntu 13.04 a couple of months ago. Since then, I have switched out my motherboard with another. I kept the same hard drive. I just did an upgrade to 13.10. Recently, after this install, I keep getting the message that I'm running out of memory. I just checked my system usage and was surprised by what I found. I believed that I installed Ubuntu as a fresh install but when I check the system usage, it seems like there are two logical drives. I just did the basic install, so I was only expecting to see one partition but instead I see two. One is a small 300mb partition, the other is a 300gb partition I was expecting. Can anyone tell me if I have two partitions and/or logical drives and if so how I can fix this? I seem to have been running on the smaller drive and now I'm obviously out of space. I want to be able to use the bigger one at least.

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