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  • ASMX Web Service online works when all of the code is in one file without code-behind

    - by Ben McCormack
    I have an ASMX Web Service that has its code entirely in a code-behind file, so that the entire contents of the .asmx file is: <%@ WebService Language="C#" CodeBehind="~/App_Code/AddressValidation.cs" Class="AddressValidation" %> On my test machine (Windows XP with IIS 5), I set up a virtual directory just for this ASP.NET 2.0 solution and everything works great. All my code is separated nicely and it just works. However, when we deployed this solution to our Windows Server 2003 development environment, we noticed that the code only compiled when all of the code was dropped directly into the .asmx file, meaning that the solution didn't work with code-behind. We can't figure out why this is happening. One thing that's different about our setup in our development environment is that instead of creating a separate virual directory just for this solution, we dropped it into an existing directory that runs a classic ASP application. So here we have a folder with an ASP.NET 2.0 application within a directory that contains a classic ASP application. Granted, everything in the ASP.NET 2.0 application works if all of the code is within the .asmx file and not in code-behind, but we'd really like to know why it's not recognizing the code-behind files and compiling it correctly.

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  • iPad: Detecting External Keyboard

    - by StuartW
    My app uses a UIAccessoryView to provide additional keyboard functionality (such as forward/backward tabs and arrows keys) for the virtual keyboard, but that causes UIKeyboardDidShowNotification to fire even when a physical keyboard is present (the accessory appears at the bottom of the screen). I'd like to check if a physical keyboard is attached when handling UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, to prevent the accessory view from appearing and to prevent my custom view from scrolling up (to make room for the non-existent virtual keyboard). I've tried examining the UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey key, but it returns a real size for the virtual keyboard, in spite of nothing being displayed. Is there any way to detect the presence of a physical keyboard to prevent this unwanted behaviour? Hmm, the plot thickens. I tried disabling the input accessory by returning nil from the inputAccessoryView property of the Responder object which triggers the keyboard. That suppresses UIKeyboardWillShowNotification and UIKeyboardDidShowNotification when there is a physical keyboard present, but keeps these notifications when there is no such keyboard. All good so far. Then I tried re-enabling inputAccessoryView only after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification had been received. This only fires when a virtual keyboard is needed, so it should allow me to reintroduce the accessory view in those circumstances. Or so I thought. Unfortunately, it seems the OS doesn't check inputAccessoryView after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, so it fails to show the accessory view when it is needed :o( That leaves me with two options: Include the input accessory view, giving extra functionality for virtual keyboard users, but lose the ability to detect a physical keyboard and hence not supporting physical devices; or Exclude the input accessory altogether, preventing most users from accessing the extra keys, but allowing the app to work with a physical keyboard. Not a great choice, so I'm still keen to see if anyone else has addressed this problem!

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  • Export database data to csv from view by date range asp.net mvc3

    - by Benjamin Randal
    I am trying to find a way to export data from my database and save it as a .csv file. Ideally the user will be able to select a date range on a view, which will display the data to be exported, then the user can click an "export to CSV" link. I've done quite a bit of searching and but have not found much specific enough to help me step through the process. Any help would be great. I would like to export data from this database model... { public class InspectionInfo { [Key] public int InspectionId { get; set; } [DisplayName("Date Submitted")] [DataType(DataType.Date)] // [Required] public DateTime Submitted { get; set; } [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [MaxLength(1000)] // [Required] public string Comments { get; set; } // [Required] public Contact Contact { get; set; } [ForeignKey("Contact")] public Int32 ContactId { get; set; } [MaxLength(100)] public String OtherContact { get; set; } I have a service for search also, just having difficulty implementing public SearchResults SearchInspections(SearchRequest request) { using (var db = new InspectionEntities()) { var results = db.InspectionInfos .Where( i=> ( (null == request.StartDate || i.Submitted >= request.StartDate.Value) && (null == request.EndDate || i.Submitted <= request.EndDate.Value) ) ) .OrderBy(i=>i.Submitted) .Skip(request.PageSize*request.PageIndex).Take(request.PageSize); return new SearchResults{ TotalResults=results.Count(), PageIndex=request.PageIndex, Inspections=results.ToList(), SearchRequest=request }; } }

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  • Sanitizing user input that will later be e-mailed - what should I be worried about?

    - by Kevin Burke
    I'm interning for an NGO in India (Seva Mandir, http://sevamandir.org) and trying to fix their broken "subscribe to newsletter" box. Because the staff isn't very sophisticated and our web host isn't great, I decided to send the relevant data to the publications person via mail() instead of storing it in a MySQL database. I know that it's best to treat user input as malicious, and I've searched the SO forums for posts relevant to escaping user data for sending in a mail message. I know the data should be escaped; what should I be worried about and what's the best way to sanitize the input before emailing it? Form flow: 1. User enters email on homepage and clicks Submit 2. User enters name, address, more information on second page (bad usability, I know, but my boss asked me to) and clicks "Submit" 3. Collect the data via $_POST and email it to the publications editor (and possibly send a confirmation to the subscriber). I am going to sanitize the email in step 2 and the other data in step 3. I appreciate your help, Kevin

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  • Need help writing jQuery to loop through table and inject markers into google map?

    - by abemonkey
    I am new to jQuery. I've done some simple things with it but what I am attempting now is a over my head and I need some help. I am building a locator for all the firearms dealers in the US for a client. I am working within Drupal. I have a proximity search by zip code that works great. If you search by zip a list of paginated results shows up in an html table that can by paged through via ajax. I would like a map to be above this list with markers corresponding to the names and addresses being listed. I already have all the lat and long values in the table results. I want the script to update the markers and automatically zoom to fit the markers in the view when a user changes the sort order of the table or pages through the results. Also, I'd like to have a hover highlight effect over the rows of the table that simultaneously highlight the corresponding marker, and have a click on the table row equal a click on a marker that pops up a marker info window to be populated using jQuery to read the name and address fields of the table. Hope this all makes sense. I know I'm putting a lot out there, I'm not asking for someone to write the whole script, just wanted to give as many details as possible. Thanks for any help. I'm just lost when it comes to looping and moving data around. If you want to check out what I have so far on the project please visit: www.axtsweapons.com and login with the username: "test" and the password: "1234" and then visit this direct link: www.axtsweapons.com/ffllocator. For just a simple page that would be easy to manipulate and play with goto: http://www.axtsweapons.com/maptest.html Thanks!

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  • How do I build a JSON object to send to an AJAX WebService?

    - by Ben McCormack
    After trying to format my JSON data by hand in javascript and failing miserably, I realized there's probably a better way. Here's what the code for the web service method and relevant classes looks like in C#: [WebMethod] public Response ValidateAddress(Request request) { return new test_AddressValidation().GenerateResponse( test_AddressValidation.ResponseType.Ambiguous); } ... public class Request { public Address Address; } public class Address { public string Address1; public string Address2; public string City; public string State; public string Zip; public AddressClassification AddressClassification; } public class AddressClassification { public int Code; public string Description; } The web service works great with using SOAP/XML, but I can't seem to get a valid response using javascript and jQuery because the message I get back from the server has a problem with my hand-coded JSON. I can't use the jQuery getJSON function because the request requires HTTP POST, so I'm using the lower-level ajax function instead: $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "http://bmccorm-xp/HBUpsAddressValidation/AddressValidation.asmx/ValidateAddress", data: "{\"Address\":{\"Address1\":\"123 Main Street\",\"Address2\":null,\"City\":\"New York\",\"State\":\"NY\",\"Zip\":\"10000\",\"AddressClassification\":null}}", dataType: "json", success: function(response){ alert(response); } }) The ajax function is submitting everything specified in data:, which is where my problem is. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object in javascript so I can plug it in to my ajax call like so: data: theRequest I'll eventually be pulling data out of text inputs in forms, but for now hard-coded test data is fine. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object to send to the web service?

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  • How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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  • Form Validation - IF field is blank THEN automatically selection option

    - by shovelshed
    Hi I need help to automatically select an option to submit with a form: When the 'form-email' field is blank i want it to select 'option 1' and, When the field is not blank i want it to select 'option 2'. Here's my form code <form method="post" onsubmit="return validate-category(this)" action="tdomf-form-post.php" id='tdomf_form1' name='tdomf_form1' class='tdomf_form'> <textarea title="Post Title" name="content-title-tf" id="form-content" >Say it...</textarea> <input type="text" value="" name="content-text-ta" id="form-email"/> <select name='categories' class='form-category' type="hidden"> <option value="3" type="hidden">Anonymous</option> <option value="4" type="hidden" selected="selected">Competition</option> </select> <input type="submit" value="Say it!" name="tdomf_form1_send" id="form-submit"/> </form> I have an idea that the javascript would go something like this, but can't find what the code is to change the value. <script type="text/javascript"> function validate-category(field) { with (field) { if (value==null||value=="") { select category 1 } else { select category 2 return true; } } } </script> Any help on this would be great. Thanks in advance.

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  • GIT clone repo across local file system

    - by Jon
    Hi all, I am a complete Noob when it comes to GIT. I have been just taking my first steps over the last few days. I setup a repo on my laptop, pulled down the Trunk from an SVN project (had some issues with branches, not got them working), but all seems ok there. I now want to be able to pull or push from the laptop to my main desktop. The reason being the laptop is handy on the train as I spend 2 hours a day travelling and can get some good work done. But my main machine at home is great for development. So I want to be able to push / pull from the laptop to the main computer when I get home. I thought the most simple way of doing this would be to just have the code folder shared out across the LAN and do: git clone file://192.168.10.51/code unfortunately this doesn't seem to be working for me: so I open a git bash cmd and type the above command, I am in C:\code (the shared folder for both machines) this is what I get back: Initialized empty Git repository in C:/code/code/.git/ fatal: 'C:/Program Files (x86)/Git/code' does not appear to be a git repository fatal: The remote end hung up unexpectedly How can I share the repository between the two machines in the most simple of ways. There will be other locations that will be official storage points and places where the other devs and CI server etc will pull from, this is just so that I can work on the same repo across two machines. Thanks

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  • Rails does not display error messages on a form in a custom method

    - by slythic
    Hi all, I've created a custom method called checkout in my app. I create an order (which is done my adding products to my "cart"), assign it to my client, and then I head to my checkout screen where I confirm the items and enter their customer order number and complete the order (submit). Everything works great except that it doesn't display error messages. I'm able to display a flash error notice (seen in complete_order method) when things go wrong but it doesn't specify the details like a normal form would. The error messages should appear if the customer order number is not unique for that client. Below is the custom method (checkout) related code. Order Model: validates_uniqueness_of :customer_order_number, :scope => :client_id Orders_controller: def checkout @order = current_order end def complete_order @order = current_order respond_to do |format| if @order.update_attributes(params[:order]) @order.complete #sets submitted datetime and state to 'complete' flash[:notice] = 'Thank you! Your order is being processed.' format.html { redirect_to( products_path ) } format.xml { head :ok } else flash[:error] = 'Please review your items' #added to confirm an error is present format.html { redirect_to( checkout_path ) } format.xml { render :xml => @order.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end And the form in the checkout view: <% form_for @order, :url => { :controller => "orders", :action => "complete_order" } do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= f.text_field :customer_order_number, :label => "Purchase Order Number" %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Complete Order', :confirm => 'Are you sure?' %> <small> or <%= link_to 'cancel', current_cart_path %></small> </p> <% end %> Any idea how I can display the specific error messages? Thank you in advance! -Tony

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  • Passing a var as an argument

    - by Lienau
    On a site I'm making I need to have a progress bar, I found one that suited my needs. By default it will incrementally change the color when a certain percentage is reached (0-30 red, 30-70 orange, etc). My only problem is changing them, I can set them easily with a static number such as 50, but when I try to do it dynamically (ie: 2000*.3 = 600) it fails. I don't know much js/jquery so this is especially difficult for me, if you could help that would be great. I'm pretty sure it's something really simple I'm missing. The code that Fails: var barmax = 2000; var orangeBound = Math.round(barmax * .3); var greenBound = Math.round(barmax * .7); //alert(orangeBound+":"+greenBound); $("#pb1").progressBar({ max: barmax, textFormat: 'fraction', barImage: { 0: 'images/progressbg_red.gif', orangeBound: 'images/progressbg_orange.gif', greenBound: 'images/progressbg_green.gif'} }); The code that works but I can't use because it has to be dynamic: $("#pb1").progressBar({ max: barmax, textFormat: 'fraction', barImage: { 0: 'images/progressbg_red.gif', 600: 'images/progressbg_orange.gif', 1400: 'images/progressbg_green.gif'} }); If you need to see the source, here. Thanks again!

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  • Powershell invoke-command with PSCredential in line

    - by jaffa
    I need to be able to run a command on another server. This script acts as a bootstrap to another script which is run on the actual server. This works great on servers on the same domain, but if I need to run this script on a remote server, I need to specify credentials. The command is kicked off from a Msbuild targets file like so: <Target Name="PreDeployment" Condition="true" BeforeTargets="MSDeployPublish"> <Exec Command="powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass invoke-command bootstrapScript.ps1 -computername $(MyServer) -argumentlist param1, param2" /> </Target> However, I need to be able to supply the credentials by creating a new PSCredentials object with a secure password for my deployment script to run on a remote server: <Target Name="PreDeployment" Condition="true" BeforeTargets="MSDeployPublish"> <Exec Command="powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass invoke-command bootstrapScript.ps1 -computername $(MyServer) -credential New-Object System.Management.Automation.PSCredential ('admin', (convertto-securestring $(Password) -asplaintext -force)) -argumentlist param1, param2" /> </Target> When I run the build, a dialog pops up with the username set to System.Management.Automation.PSCredential. I need to be able to create the credentials in-line on the executable target. How do I accomplish this?

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  • I need a true mouseOver...

    - by invertedSpear
    Ok, so mouseOver and RollOver, and their respective outs work great as long as your mouse is actually over the item, or one of it's children. My problem is that I may have another UI component "between" my mouse and the item I want to process the mouse/rollover(maybe a button that is on top of a canvas, but is not a child of the canvas). The mouse is still over the component, there's just something else that it's over at the same time. Any tips or help how to deal with this? Let me know if I'm not being clear enough. Here is a simplified code example detailing my question copy/paste that into your flex/flash builder and you'll see what I mean: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" width="500" height="226" creationComplete="ccInit()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function ccInit():void{ myCanv.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER,handleRollOver); } private function handleRollOver(evt:MouseEvent):void{ myCanv.setStyle("backgroundAlpha",1); myCanv.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT,handleRollOut); } private function handleRollOut(evt:MouseEvent):void{ myCanv.setStyle("backgroundAlpha",0); myCanv.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT,handleRollOut); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Canvas id="myCanv" x="10" y="10" width="480" height="200" borderStyle="solid" borderColor="#000000" backgroundColor="#FFFFFF" backgroundAlpha="0"> </mx:Canvas> <mx:Button x="90" y="50" label="Button" width="327" height="100"/> </mx:Application>

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  • Mocking Autofac's "Resolve" extension method with TypeMock

    - by Lockshopr
    I'm trying to mock an Autofac resolve, such as: using System; using Autofac; using TypeMock.ArrangeActAssert; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var inst = Isolate.Fake.Instance<IContainer>(); Isolate.Fake.StaticMethods(typeof(ResolutionExtensions), Members.ReturnNulls); Isolate.WhenCalled(() => inst.Resolve<IRubber>()).WillReturn(new BubbleGum()); Console.Out.WriteLine(inst.Resolve<IRubber>()); } } public interface IRubber {} public class BubbleGum : IRubber {} Coming from Moq, the syntax and exceptions from TypeMock confuse me a great deal. Having initially run this in a TestMethod, I kept getting an exception resembling "WhenCalled cannot be run without a complementing behavior". I tried defining behaviors for everyone and their mothers, but to no avail. Then I debug stepped through the test run, and saw that an actual exception was fired from Autofac: IRubber has not been registered. So it's obvious that the static Resolve function isn't being faked, and I can't get it to be faked, no matter how I go about hooking it up. Isolate.WhenCalled(() => ResolutionExtensions.Resolve<IRubber>(null)).WillReturn(new BubbleGum()); ... throws an exception from Autofac complaining that the IComponentContext cannot be null. Feeding it the presumably faked IContainer (or faking an IComponentContext instead) gets me back to the "IRubber not registered" error.

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  • How do I test database-related code with NUnit?

    - by Michael Haren
    I want to write unit tests with NUnit that hit the database. I'd like to have the database in a consistent state for each test. I thought transactions would allow me to "undo" each test so I searched around and found several articles from 2004-05 on the topic: http://weblogs.asp.net/rosherove/archive/2004/07/12/180189.aspx http://weblogs.asp.net/rosherove/archive/2004/10/05/238201.aspx http://davidhayden.com/blog/dave/archive/2004/07/12/365.aspx http://haacked.com/archive/2005/12/28/11377.aspx These seem to resolve around implementing a custom attribute for NUnit which builds in the ability to rollback DB operations after each test executes. That's great but... Does this functionality exists somewhere in NUnit natively? Has this technique been improved upon in the last 4 years? Is this still the best way to test database-related code? Edit: it's not that I want to test my DAL specifically, it's more that I want to test pieces of my code that interact with the database. For these tests to be "no-touch" and repeatable, it'd be awesome if I could reset the database after each one. Further, I want to ease this into an existing project that has no testing place at the moment. For that reason, I can't practically script up a database and data from scratch for each test.

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  • reddit style voting with django

    - by dotty
    Hay i need to hand implemeneting a voting system into a model. I've had a huge helping hand from Mike DeSimone making this work in the first place, but i need to expand upon his work. Here is my current code View def show_game(request): game = Game.objects.get(pk=1) discussions = game.gamediscussion_set.filter(reply_to=None) d = { 'game':game, 'discussions':discussions } return render_to_response('show_game', d) Template <ul> {% for discussion in discussions %} {{ discussion.html }} {% endfor %} </ul> Model class GameDiscussion(models.Model): game = models.ForeignKey(Game) message = models.TextField() reply_to = models.ForeignKey('self', related_name='replies', null=True, blank=True) created_on = models.DateTimeField(blank=True, auto_now_add=True) userUpVotes = models.ManyToManyField(User, blank=True, related_name='threadUpVotes') userDownVotes = models.ManyToManyField(User, blank=True, related_name='threadDownVotes') def html(self): DiscussionTemplate = loader.get_template("inclusions/discussionTemplate") return DiscussionTemplate.render(Context({ 'discussion': self, 'replies': [reply.html() for reply in self.replies.all()] })) DiscussionTemplate <li> {{ discussion.message }} {% if replies %} <ul> {% for reply in replies %} {{ reply }} {% endfor %} </ul> {% endif %} </li> As you can see we have 2 fields userUpVotes and userDownVotes on the model, these will calculate how to order the discussions and replies. How would i implement these 2 fields to order the replies and discussions based on votes? Any help would be great!

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  • Oracle why does creating trigger fail when there is a field called timestamp?

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I've just wasted the past two hours of my life trying to create a table with an auto incrementing primary key bases on this tutorial, The tutorial is great the issue I've been encountering is that the Create Target fails if I have a column which is a timestamp and a table that is called timestamp in the same table... Why doesn't oracle flag this as being an issue when I create the table? Here is the Sequence of commands I enter: Creating the Table: CREATE TABLE myTable (id NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, field1 TIMESTAMP(6), timeStamp NUMBER, ); Creating the Sequence: CREATE SEQUENCE test_sequence START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; Creating the trigger: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER test_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON myTable REFERENCING NEW AS NEW FOR EACH ROW BEGIN SELECT test_sequence.nextval INTO :NEW.ID FROM dual; END; / Here is the error message I get: ORA-06552: PL/SQL: Compilation unit analysis terminated ORA-06553: PLS-320: the declaration of the type of this expression is incomplete or malformed Any combination that does not have the two lines with a the word "timestamp" in them works fine. I would have thought the syntax would be enough to differentiate between the keyword and a column name. As I've said I don't understand why the table is created fine but oracle falls over when I try to create the trigger... CLARIFICATION I know that the issue is that there is a column called timestamp which may or may not be a keyword. MY issue is why it barfed when I tried to create a trigger and not when I created the table, I would have at least expected a warning. That said having used Oracle for a few hours, it seems a lot less verbose in it's error reporting, Maybe just because I'm using the express version though. If this is a bug in Oracle how would one who doesn't have a support contract go about reporting it? I'm just playing around with the express version because I have to migrate some code from MySQL to Oracle.

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  • PDO Database Connections Problem

    - by Metropolis
    Hey Everyone, Over a year ago I created my own database classes which use PDO, and handle all preparing, executing, and closing connections. These classes have been working great up until now. There are two different database severs I am grabbing from, MySQL, and MS SQL Express. I am retrieving an employee id from the MySQL server and using it to get that employees information from the MS SQL server. There are about 11k records coming from the MySQL server and my program is only making it through 1200 before crashing with an error like the following. Connection failed (odbc:Driver=FreeTDS;Servername=MSSQLExpress;Database=SMDINC) Class (PDOException) SQLSTATE[08001] SQLDriverConnect: 0 [unixODBC][FreeTDS][SQL Server]Unable to connect to data source It seems like the program is not able to connect to the data source, but it is running the exact same query about 30 times before this and having no problem. Also, I have thoroughly checked all of the data coming into the query and it all looks fine. I believe the issue may be that there are to many connections being created, but I have tried to close all connections in many different places, and nothing seems to be fixing the problem. Any debugging help, or suggestions would be appreciated! Craig Metrolis

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  • Trying to write a video file using OpenCV

    - by Ted pottel
    Hi , I’m trying to use OpenCV to write a video file. I have a simple program that loads frames from a video file then accepts to save them At first the cvCreateVideoWrite always return NULL. I got a answer from your group saying it returns separate images and to try to change the file name to test0001.png, this worked. But now the cvWriteFrame function always fails, the code is CString path; path="d:\\mice\\Test_Day26_2.avi"; CvCapture* capture = cvCaptureFromAVI(path); IplImage* img = 0; CvVideoWriter *writer = 0; int isColor = 1; int fps = 25; // or 30 int frameW = 640; // 744 for firewire cameras int frameH = 480; // 480 for firewire cameras writer=cvCreateVideoWriter("d:\\mice\\test0001.png",CV_FOURCC('P','I','M','1'), fps,cvSize(frameW,frameH),isColor); if (writer==0) MessageBox("could not open writter"); int nFrames = 50; for(int i=0;i<nFrames;i++){ if (!cvGrabFrame(capture)) MessageBox("could not grab frame"); img=cvRetrieveFrame(capture); // retrieve the captured frame if (img==0) MessageBox("could not retrive data"); if (!cvWriteFrame(writer,img) ) MessageBox("could not write frame"); } cvReleaseVideoWriter(&writer); Any help would be GREAT - Ted

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  • structure inside structure - c++ Error

    - by gamadeus
    First of all the error I am getting is of the type: Request for member 's' of struct1.struct1::struct2, which is of non class type '__u32' where: struct struct1 { struct x struct2; struct x struct3; struct x struct4; }; The usage is of the form: struct struct1 st1; st1.struct2.s = Value; Now my struct1 is: struct ip_mreq_source { struct in_addr imr_multiaddr; struct in_addr imr_sourceaddr; struct in_addr imr_interface; }; struct 'x' is in_addr Where: typedef uint32_t in_addr_t; struct in_addr { in_addr_t s_addr; }; element 's' is the element s_addr in in_addr. My detailed error coming out of g++ (GCC 4.4.3) from the Android based compiler: arm-linux-androideabi-g++ -MMD -MP -MF groupsock/GroupsockHelper.o.d.org -fpic -ffunction-sections -funwind-tables -fstack-protector -D__ARM_ARCH_5__ -D__ARM_ARCH_5T__ -D__ARM_ARCH_5E__ -D__ARM_ARCH_5TE__ -Wno-psabi -march=armv5te -mtune=xscale -msoft-float -fno-exceptions -fno-rtti -mthumb -Os -fomit-frame-pointer -fno-strict-aliasing -finline- limit=64 -Igroupsock/include -Igroupsock/../UsageEnvironment/include -Iandroid- ndk-r5b/sources/cxx-stl/system/include -Igroupsock -DANDROID -Wa,--noexecstack -DANDROID_NDK -Wall -fexceptions -O2 -DNDEBUG -g -Iandroid-8/arch-arm/usr/include -c groupsock/GroupsockHelper.cpp -o groupsock/GroupsockHelper.o && rm -f groupsock/GroupsockHelper.o.d && mv groupsock/GroupsockHelper.o.d.org groupsock/GroupsockHelper.o.d groupsock/GroupsockHelper.cpp: In function 'Boolean socketJoinGroupSSM(UsageEnvironment&, int, netAddressBits, netAddressBits)': groupsock/GroupsockHelper.cpp:427: error: request for member 's_addr' in 'imr.ip_mreq_source::imr_multiaddr', which is of non-class type '__u32' groupsock/GroupsockHelper.cpp:428: error: request for member 's_addr' in 'imr.ip_mreq_source::imr_sourceaddr', which is of non-class type '__u32' groupsock/GroupsockHelper.cpp:429: error: request for member 's_addr' in 'imr.ip_mreq_source::imr_interface', which is of non-class type '__u32' I am not sure what is causing the error. Any pointers would be great - no pun intended. Thanks

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  • Unable to run .exe application using C# code

    - by bjh Hans
    I have an exe that i need to call from my C# Program with two arguments(PracticeId,ClaimId) for example Suppose if i have an application "test.exe" , whose functionality is to make claim acording to given two argument On cmd i would normally give the following command as: test.exe 1 2 and it works fine and performs its job of conversion. but what if i want to execute the same thing using my c# code. i am using the following sample code: Process compiler = new Process(); compiler.StartInfo.FileName = "test.exe" ; compiler.StartInfo.Arguments = "1 2" ; compiler.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = true; compiler.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; compiler.Start(); when i try to invoke the test.exe using the above code , it fails to perform its operation of making claim txt file what is the issue in this i don' know pls help me regarding this whether the problem of threding or not i don't know. Can anyone tell me if i need to add anything more to the above code It would be great if somebody could provide some help on the above topic.

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  • jquery ui dialog and our dearest friend, ie6

    - by bradjive
    I'm using the jquery ui dialog for a modal popup dialog. It's working great in Firefox/Chrome but terrible in ie6. Problem: When I show the dialog in ie6, the browser window grows and automatically scrolls down to the bottom. The height increase and automatic scroll-down is equal to the height of the jquery dialog. I can scroll up and then use the dialog as normal, but the behavior where it grows the window and drops is maddeningly unacceptable. Here is how I'm launching the window: <div id="dialogWindow"></div> ... $(document).ready(function() { var $dialog = $("#dialogWindow").dialog({ autoOpen: false, modal: true, minWidth: 560, width: 560, resizable: "true", position: "top" }); $('.addButton').click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $('#dialogWindow').load('http://myurl'); $dialog.dialog('open'); }); }); I am already using the bgiframe plugin for jquery which is key for ie6 overlay issues. But this seems unrelated to that. Has anyone seen this before and found a work around?

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  • getting boost::gregorian dates from a string

    - by Chris H
    I asked a related question yesterday http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2612343/basic-boost-date-time-input-format-question It worked great for posix_time ptime objects. I'm have trouble adapting it to get Gregorian date objects. try { stringstream ss; ss << dateNode->GetText(); using boost::local_time::local_time_input_facet; //using boost::gregorian; ss.imbue(locale(locale::classic(), new local_time_input_facet("%a, %d %b %Y "))); ss.exceptions(ios::failbit); ss>>dayTime; } catch (...) { cout<<"Failed to get a date..."<<endl; //cout<<e.what()<<endl; throw; } The dateNode-GetText() function returns a pointer to a string of the form Sat, 10 Apr 2010 19:30:00 The problem is I keep getting an exception. So concretely the question is, how do I go from const char * of the given format, to a boost::gregorian::date object? Thanks again.

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  • Preferred way of application initialization

    - by lisak
    Do you guys have your own little framework for project startups ? I mean, every time one needs to do the same things at the beginning: Context initialization - ideally after arguments are processed. Sometimes without interactive user input, sometimes with input reader. Sometimes we need to load properties, sometimes not. Then we need to get a class out of context and run its method. Programming....programming until writing shell script to place everything on classpath. It's true that it differs according to the actual needs. But it seems to me, that I'm doing always almost the same, again and again from the scratch. Sometimes I realize that I'm postponing my work just because I don't want to do these annoying startups. It would be great if there was some kind of universal Main class doing reflection to specified bean, context initialization, argument parsing, interactive user input reading and have the programmer do the important things...All setup might be done via spring configuration. I think I'll have to do it by myself. I'd appreciate your ideas

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  • Custom view transition in OpenGL ES

    - by melfar
    I'm trying to create a custom transition, to serve as a replacement for a default transition you would get here, for example: [self.navigationController pushViewController:someController animated:YES]; I have prepared an OpenGL-based view that performs an effect on some static texture mapped to a plane (let's say it's a copy of the flip effect in Core Animation). What I don't know how to do is: grab current view content and make a texture out of it (I remember seeing a function that does just that, but can't find it) how to do the same for the view that is currently offscreen and is going to replace current view are there some APIs I can hook to in order to make my transition class as native as possible (make it a kind of Core Animation effect)? Any thoughts or links are greatly appreciated! UPDATE Jeffrey Forbes's answer works great as a solution to capture the content of a view. What I haven't figured out yet is how to capture the content of the view I want to transition to, which should be invisible until the transition is done. Also, which method should I use to present the OpenGL view? For demonstration purposes I used pushViewController. That affects the navbar, though, which I actually want to go one item back, with animation, check this vid for explanation: http://vimeo.com/4649397. Another option would be to go with presentViewController, but that shows fullscreen. Do you think maybe creating another window (or view?) could be useful?

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