Search Results

Search found 14131 results on 566 pages for 'of note'.

Page 431/566 | < Previous Page | 427 428 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438  | Next Page >

  • how do I deconstruct COUNT()?

    - by user151841
    I have a view with some joins in it. I'm doing a select from that view with COUNT(*) as one of the columns of the select. I'm surprised by the number it's returning. Note that there is no GROUP BY nor aggregate column statement in the source view that the query is drawing from. How can I take it apart to see how it arrives at this number? I have three columns in the GROUP BY clause. SELECT column1, column2, column3, COUNT(*) FROM View GROUP BY column1, column2, column3 I get a result like +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | column1 | column2 | column3 | COUNT(*) | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value1 | valueA | value_a | 103 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value2 | valueB | value_b | 56 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ etc. I'd like to see how it arrives at that 103, 26, etc. In other words, I want to run a query that returns 103 rows of something, so that I know that I've expressed the query properly. I'm double-checking my work. I'm not saying that I think COUNT(*) doesn't work ( I know that "SELECT is not broken" ), what I want to double-check is exactly what I'm expressing in my query, because I think I've expressed the wrong thing, which would be why I'm getting unexpected values. I need to see more what I'm actually directing MySQL to count. So should I take them one by one, and try out each value in a WHERE clause? In other words, should I do SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' and see the row count returned matches the COUNT(*) value in the grouped results? Because of confidentiality, I won't be able to post any of the query or database structure. All I'm asking for is a general technique to see what COUNT(*) is actually counting.

    Read the article

  • Alternatives to static methods on interfaces for enforcing consistency

    - by jayshao
    In Java, I'd like to be able to define marker interfaces, that forced implementations to provide static methods. For example, for simple text-serialization/deserialization I'd like to be able to define an interface that looked something like this: public interface TextTransformable<T>{ public static T fromText(String text); public String toText(); Since interfaces in Java can't contain static methods though (as noted in a number of other posts/threads: here, here, and here this code doesn't work. What I'm looking for however is some reasonable paradigm to express the same intent, namely symmetric methods, one of which is static, and enforced by the compiler. Right now the best we can come up with is some kind of static factory object or generic factory, neither of which is really satisfactory. Note: in our case our primary use-case is we have many, many "value-object" types - enums, or other objects that have a limited number of values, typically carry no state beyond their value, and which we parse/de-parse thousands of time a second, so actually do care about reusing instances (like Float, Integer, etc.) and its impact on memory consumption/g.c. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • forms problem in django 1.1

    - by alexarsh
    I have the following form: class ModuleItemForm2(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = Module_item fields = ('title', 'media', 'thumb', 'desc', 'default', 'player_option') The model is: class Module_item(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=100) layout = models.CharField(max_length=5, choices=LAYOUTS_CHOICE) media = models.CharField(help_text='Media url', max_length=500, blank=True, null=True) conserv = models.ForeignKey(Conserv, help_text= 'Redirect to Conserv', blank=True, null=True) conserve_section = models.CharField(max_length=100, help_text= 'Section within the redirected Conserv', blank=True, null=True) parent = models.ForeignKey('self', help_text='Upper menu.', blank=True, null=True) module = models.ForeignKey(Module, blank=True, null=True) thumb = models.FileField(upload_to='sms/module_items/thumbs', blank=True, null=True) desc = models.CharField(max_length=500, blank=True, null=True) auto_play = models.IntegerField(help_text='Auto start play (miliseconds)', blank=True, null=True) order = models.IntegerField(help_text='Display order', blank=True, null=True) depth = models.IntegerField(help_text='The layout depth', blank=True, null=True) flow_replace = models.IntegerField(blank=True, null=True) default = models.IntegerField(help_text='The selected sub item (Note: Starting from 0)', blank=True, null=True) player_options = models.CharField(max_length=1000, null=True, blank=True) In my view I build form: module_item_form2 = ModuleItemForm2() print module_item_form2 And I get the following error on the print line: 'NoneType' object has no attribute 'label' It works fine with django 1.0.2. I see the error only in django 1.1. Do you have an idea what am I doing wrong? Regards, Arshavski Alexander.

    Read the article

  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

    Read the article

  • Trailing comments after variable assignment subvert comparison

    - by nobar
    In GNU make, trailing comments appended to variable assignments prevent subsequent comparison (via ifeq) from working correctly. Here's the Makefile... A = a B = b ## trailing comment C = c RESULT := ifeq "$(A)" "a" RESULT += a endif ifeq "$(B)" "b" RESULT += b endif ifeq "$(C)" "c" RESULT += c endif rule: @echo RESULT=\"$(RESULT)\" @echo A=\"$(A)\" @echo B=\"$(B)\" @echo C=\"$(C)\" Here's the output... $ make RESULT=" a c" A="a" B="b " C="c" As you can see from the displayed value of RESULT, the ifeq was affected by the presence of the comment in the assignment of B. Echoing the variable B, shows that the problem is not the comment, but the intervening space. The obvious solution is to explicitly strip the whitespace prior to comparison like so... ifeq "$(strip $(B))" "b" RESULT += b endif However this seems error prone. Since the strip operation is not needed unless/until a comment is used, you can leave out the strip and everything will initially work just fine -- so chances are you won't always remember to add the strip. Later, if someone adds a comment when setting the variable, the Makefile no longer works as expected. Note: There is a closely related issue, as demonstrated in this question, that trailing whitespace can break string compares even if there is no comment. Question: Is there a more fool-proof way to deal with this issue?

    Read the article

  • (Oracle) How get total number of results when using a pagination query?

    - by BestPractices
    I am using Oracle 10g and the following paradigm to get a page of 15 results as a time (so that when the user is looking at page 2 of a search result, they see records 16-30). select * from ( select rownum rnum, a.* from (my_query) a where rownum <= 30 ) where rnum > 15; Right now I'm having to run a separate SQL statement to do a "select count" on "my_query" in order to get the total number of results for my_query (so that I can show it to the user and use it to figure out total number of pages, etc). Is there any way to get the total number of results without doing this via a second query, i.e. by getting it from above query? I've tried adding "max(rownum)", but it doesn't seem to work (I get an error [ORA-01747] that seems to indicate it doesnt like me having the keyword rownum in the group by). My rationale for wanting to get this from the original query rather than doing it in a separate SQL statement is that "my_query" is an expensive query so I'd rather not run it twice (once to get the count, and once to get the page of data) if I dont have to; but whatever solution I can come up with to get the number of results from within a single query (and at the same time get the page of data I need) should not add much if any additional overhead, if possible. Please advise. Here is exactly what I'm trying to do for which I receive an ORA-01747 error because I believe it doesnt like me having ROWNUM in the group by. Note, If there is another solution that doesnt use max(ROWNUM), but something else, that is perfectly fine too. This solution was my first thought as to what might work. SELECT * FROM (SELECT r.*, ROWNUM RNUM, max(ROWNUM) FROM (SELECT t0.ABC_SEQ_ID AS c0, t0.FIRST_NAME, t0.LAST_NAME, t1.SCORE FROM ABC t0, XYZ t1 WHERE (t0.XYZ_ID = 751) AND t0.XYZ_ID = t1.XYZ_ID ORDER BY t0.RANK ASC) r WHERE ROWNUM <= 30 GROUP BY r.*, ROWNUM) WHERE RNUM > 15

    Read the article

  • History.js not working in Internet Explorer

    - by Wilcoholic
    I am trying to get history.js to work in Internet Explorer because I need history.pushState() to work. I have read over the instructions on GitHub (https://github.com/balupton/History.js/) and have tried implementing it, but havent had any success. Here's what I have <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <!-- jQuery --> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <!-- History.js --> <script defer src="http://balupton.github.com/history.js/scripts/bundled/html4+html5/jquery.history.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function addHistory(){ // Prepare var History = window.History; // Note: We are using a capital H instead of a lower h // Change our States History.pushState(null, null, "?mylink.html"); } </script> </head> <body> <a href="mylink.html">My Link</a> <a href="otherlink.html">Other Link</a> <button onclick="addHistory()" type="button">Add History</button> </body> Not sure what I'm doing wrong, but it's definitely not working in IE. Any help is appreciated

    Read the article

  • Memory leaks while using array of double

    - by Gacek
    I have a part of code that operates on large arrays of double (containing about 6000 elements at least) and executes several hundred times (usually 800) . When I use standard loop, like that: double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... } The memory usage rises for about 40MB (from 40MB at the beggining of the loop, to the 80MB at the end). When I force to use the garbage collector to execute at every iteration, the memory usage stays at the level of 40MB (the rise is unsignificant). double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... GC.Collect() } But the execution time is 3 times longer! (it is crucial) How can I force the C# to use the same area of memory instead of allocating new ones? Note: I have the access to the code of someObject class, so if it would be needed, I can change it.

    Read the article

  • Insert Stored Procedure does not Create Database Record

    - by SidC
    Hello All, I have the following stored procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE Pro_members_Insert @id int outPut, @LoginName nvarchar(50), @Password nvarchar(15), @FirstName nvarchar(100), @LastName nvarchar(100), @signupDate smalldatetime, @Company nvarchar(100), @Phone nvarchar(50), @Email nvarchar(150), @Address nvarchar(255), @PostalCode nvarchar(10), @State_Province nvarchar(100), @City nvarchar(50), @countryCode nvarchar(4), @active bit, @activationCode nvarchar(50) AS declare @usName as varchar(50) set @usName='' select @usName=isnull(LoginName,'') from members where LoginName=@LoginName if @usName <> '' begin set @ID=-3 RAISERROR('User Already exist.', 16, 1) return end set @usName='' select @usName=isnull(email,'') from members where Email=@Email if @usName <> '' begin set @ID=-4 RAISERROR('Email Already exist.', 16, 1) return end declare @MemID as int select @memID=isnull(max(ID),0)+1 from members INSERT INTO members ( id, LoginName, Password, FirstName, LastName, signupDate, Company, Phone, Email, Address, PostalCode, State_Province, City, countryCode, active,activationCode) VALUES ( @Memid, @LoginName, @Password, @FirstName, @LastName, @signupDate, @Company, @Phone, @Email, @Address, @PostalCode, @State_Province, @City, @countryCode, @active,@activationCode) if @@error <> 0 set @ID=-1 else set @id=@memID Note that I've "inherited" this sproc and the database. I am trying to insert a new record from my signup.aspx page. My SQLDataSource is as follows: <asp:SqlDataSource runat="server" ID="dsAddMember" ConnectionString="rmsdbuser" InsertCommandType="StoredProcedure" InsertCommand="Pro_members_Insert" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient"> The click handler for btnSave is as follows: Protected Sub btnSave_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles btnSave.Click Try dsAddMember.DataBind() Catch ex As Exception End Try End Sub When I run this page, signup.aspx, provide required fields and click submit, the page simply reloads and the database table does not reflect the newly-inserted record. Questions: 1. How do I catch the error messages that might be returned from the sproc? 2. Please advise how to change signup.aspx so that the insert occurs. Thanks, Sid

    Read the article

  • Java Enumeration of Musical Notes

    - by Crupler
    How would you create an enumeration of the musical notes in Java, with each notes having an octave and then a keyed variable? This is what I have so far... public enum Notes { c, cS, d, dS, e, f, fS, g, gS, a, aS, b; int octave; boolean isPlaying; } So when I access the enums in my code I write something like this... Notes.c.octave = 4; Notes.c.isPlaying = true; Now here is my question: How can I have an isPlaying boolean for each note in each octave? Like so: Notes.c.octave.isPlaying = true; Or would I have to go like: public enum Notes { c1, cS1, d1, dS1, e1, f1, fS1, g1, gS1, a1, aS1, b1 c2, cS2, d2, dS2, e2, f2, fS2, g2, gS2, a2, aS2, b2; etc... boolean isPlaying; } Thank you in advance for taking your time to answer this question!

    Read the article

  • bool as object vs string as object testing equality

    - by Ray Pendergraph
    I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

    Read the article

  • Largest triangle from a set of points

    - by Faken
    I have a set of random points from which i want to find the largest triangle by area who's verticies are each on one of those points. So far I have figured out that the largest triangle's verticies will only lie on the outside points of the cloud of points (or the convex hull) so i have programmed a function to do just that (using Graham scan in nlogn time). However that's where I'm stuck. The only way I can figure out how to find the largest triangle from these points is to use brute force at n^3 time which is still acceptable in an average case as the convex hull algorithm usually kicks out the vast majority of points. However in a worst case scenario where points are on a circle, this method would fail miserably. Dose anyone know an algorithm to do this more efficiently? Note: I know that CGAL has this algorithm there but they do not go into any details on how its done. I don't want to use libraries, i want to learn this and program it myself (and also allow me to tweak it to exactly the way i want it to operate, just like the graham scan in which other implementations pick up collinear points that i don't want).

    Read the article

  • Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

    - by Ola Tuvesson
    I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

    Read the article

  • Which web framework or technologies would suit me?

    - by Suraj Chandran
    Hi, I had been working on desktop apps and server side(non web) for some time and now I am diving in to web first time. I plan to write a scalable enterprise level app. I have worked with Java, Javascript, Jquery etc. but I absolutely hate jsp. So is there any framework that focuses on developing enterprise level web apps without jsp. I liked Wicket's approach, but I think there is a little lack of support of dynamic html in it and jquery(yes i looked at wiquery). Also I feel making wicket apps scalable would take some sweat. Can Spring MVC, Struts2 etc. help me make with this with just using say Java, JavaScript, and JQuery. Or are there any other options for me like Wicket. Please do forgive if anything above looks insane, I am still working on my understanding with enterprise web apps. NOTE: If you think that I should take a different direction or approach, please do suggest!

    Read the article

  • How to retain similar character encoding

    - by Mystere Man
    I have a logfile that contains the half character ½, I need to process this log file and rewrite certain lines to a new file, which contain that character. However, when I write out the file the characters appear in notepad incorrectly. I know this is some kind of encoding issue, and i'm not sure if it's just that the files i'm writing don't contain the correct bom or what. I've tried reading and writing the file with all the available encoding options in the Encoding enumeration. I'm using this code: string line; // Note i've used every version of the Encoding enumeration using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(file, Encoding.Unicode)) using (StreamWRiter sw = new StreamWriter(newfile, false, Encoding.Unicode)) { while ((line = sr.ReadLine()) != null) { // process code, I do not alter the lines, they are copied verbatim // but i do not write every line that i read. sw.WriteLine(line); } } When I view the original log in notepad, the half character displays correctly. When I view the new file, it does not. Can anyone help me to solve this?

    Read the article

  • Using a CMS with an external database

    - by George Reith
    I am looking at building an external site with a CMS, probably Drupal or ExpressionEngine. The problem is that our company already has a membership database that is designed to work with our existing enterprise software. Migrating data from the database manually is not an option as modifications and new data must be accessible in real-time. Because the design of the external database will differ from the CMS's own I have decided the best way forward is to use two databases and force the CMS to use the external to read user information (cannot write to) and a local for everything else the CMS needs to do (read + write). Is this feasible with these Drupal or ExpressionEngine? Ideally I need to be able to use hooks as I do not wan't to modify core CMS files. Sifting through the docs I am not able to find what I would hook into for ether CMS. (Note: I know it is possible, but I want to know if it's feasible). Finally if there is a better way of handling this situation please also chime in. Perhaps there is something at the database level to reference a field or table in an external database? I'm clutching at straws someone can point me in the right direction I'm sure.

    Read the article

  • MFC (C++) CDialog DoModal() not working as expected

    - by krebstar
    Hi, I have a plugin that is loaded by this application.. This plugin calls some dialog boxes with DoModal(). I'm expecting these dialog boxes to function like this: If I click on the application window behind the dialog box, the dialog box flashes and does not allow the application to be in focus. However, in one of the other dialog boxes, called with DoModal(), if I click on the application window, it doesn't do the flashing thing, and after a while the application's close/minimize buttons become active (well, just the color). They're not really active and the window turns somewhat white and the title bar says (Not Responding)... What could possibly be wrong and how do I fix it? I've tried setting the dialog box's properties to System Modal: True, and Set Foreground: True but it doesn't seem to work.. :( Thanks.. EDIT: I'd like to note that the in the Windows taskbar, there is only one entry for the application for the correct behavior, but when the dialog box with the incorrect behavior is launched, another "window" is launched.. So it looks like (Application)(Dialog box title).. The effect I'm trying to achieve is just (Application)..

    Read the article

  • Best Practice: Access form elements by HTML id or name attribute?

    - by seth
    As any seasoned JavaScript developer knows, there are many (too many) ways to do the same thing. For example, say you have a text field as follows: <form name="myForm"> <input type="text" name="foo" id="foo" /> There are many way to access this in JavaScript: [1] document.forms[0].elements[0]; [2] document.myForm.foo; [3] document.getElementById('foo'); [4] document.getElementById('myForm').foo; ... and so on ... Methods [1] and [3] are well documented in the Mozilla Gecko documentation, but neither are ideal. [1] is just too general to be useful and [3] requires both an id and a name (assuming you will be posting the data to a server side language). Ideally, it would be best to have only an id attribute or a name attribute (having both is somewhat redundant, especially if the id isn't necessary for any css, and increases the likelihood of typos, etc). [2] seems to be the most intuitive and it seems to be widely used, but I haven't seen it referenced in the Gecko documentation and I'm worried about both forwards compatibility and cross browser compatiblity (and of course I want to be as standards compliant as possible). So what's best practice here? Can anyone point to something in the DOM documentation or W3C specification that could resolve this? Note I am specifically interested in a non-library solution (jQuery/Prototype).

    Read the article

  • Dependent Dropdowns with single class element

    - by AJ
    I am trying to create multiple dependent dropdowns (selects) with a unique way. I want to restrict the use of selectors and want to achieve this by using a single class selectors on all SELECTs; by figuring out the SELECT that was changed by its index. Hence, the SELECT[i] that changed will change the SELECT[i+1] only (and not the previous ones like SELECT[i-1]). For html like this: <select class="someclass"> <option value="volvo">Volvo</option> <option value="saab">Saab</option> <option value="mercedes">Mercedes</option> <option value="audi">Audi</option> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> where the SELECTs other than the first one will get something via AJAX. I see that the following Javascript gives me correct value of the correct SELECT and the value of i also corresponds to the correct SELECT. $(function() { $(".someclass").each(function(i) { $(this).change(function(x) { alert($(this).val() + i); }); }); }); Please note that I really want the minimum selector approach. I just cannot wrap my head around on how to approach this. Should I use Arrays? Like store all the SELECTS in an Array first and then select those? I believe that since the above code already passes the index i, there should be a way without Arrays also. Thanks a bunch. AJ

    Read the article

  • callbacks via objective-c selectors

    - by codemonkey
    I have a "BSjax" class that I wrote that lets me make async calls to our server to get json result sets, etc using the ASIHTTPRequest class. I set it up so that the BSjax class parses my server's json response, then passes control back to the calling view controller via this call: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(bsRequestFinished:) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "bsRequestFinished" is the callback method in the calling view controller. This all worked fine and well until I realized that some pages are going to need to make different types of requests... i.e. I'll want to do different types of things in that callback function depending on which type of request was made. To me it seems like being able to pass different callback function names to my BSjax class would be the cleanest fix... but I'm having trouble (and am not even sure if it's possible) to pass in a variable that holds the callback function name and then replace the call above with something like this: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(self.variableCallbackFunctionName) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "self.variableCallbackFunctionName" is set by the calling view controller when it calls BSjax to make a new request. Is this even possible? If so, advisable? If not, alternatives? EDIT: Note that whatever fix I arrive at will need to take into account the reality that this class is making async requests... so I need to make sure that the callback function processing is correctly tied to the specific requests... as I can't rely on FIFO processing sequence.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible for two VS2008 C# class library projects to share a single namespace?

    - by jeah
    I am trying to share a common namespace between two projects in a single solution. The projects are "Blueprint" and "Repositories". Blueprint contains Interfaces for the entire application and serves as a reference for the application structure. In the Blueprint project, I have an interface with the following declaration: namespace Application.Repositories{ public interface IRepository{ IEntity Get(Guid id); } } In the Repositories project I have a class the following class: namespace Application.Repositories{ public class STDRepository: IRepository { STD Get(Guid id){ return new SkankyExGirlfriendDataContext() .FirstOrDefault<STD>(x=>x.DiseaseId == id); } } } However, this does not work. The Repositories project has a reference to the Blueprint project. I receive a VS error: "The type or namespace name 'IRepository' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) - Normally, this is easy to fix but adding a using statement doesn't make sense since they have the same namespace. I tried it anyway and it didn't work. The reference has been added, and without the line of code referencing that interface, both projects compile successfully. I am lost here. I have searched all over and have found nothing, so I am assuming that there is something fundamentally wrong with what I'm doing ... but I don't know what it is. So, I would appreciate some explanation or guidance as to how to fix this problem. I hope you guys can help. Note: The reason I want to do it this way and keep the interfaces under the same namespace is because I want a solid project to keep all the interfaces in, in order to have a reference for the full architecture of the application. I have considered work arounds, such as putting all of the interfaces in the Blueprint.Application namespace instead of the application namespace. However, that would require me to write the using statement on virtually every page in the application...and my fingers get tired. Thanks again guys...

    Read the article

  • Digitally sign MS Office (Word, Excel, etc..) and PDF files on the server

    - by Sébastien Nussbaumer
    I need to digitally sign MS Office and PDF files that are stored on a server. I really mean a digital signature that is integrated in the document, according to each specific file formats. This is the process I had in mind : Create a hash of the file's content Send the hash to a custom written java applet in the browser The user encrypts the hash with his/her private key (on an usb token via PKCS#11 for example), thus effectively signing the file. The applet then sends the signature to the server On the server I would then incorporate the signature in the file's (MS Office and PDF files can do that without changing the file's content, probably by just setting some metadata field) What is cool is that you never have to download and upload the complete file to the server again. What is even cooler, the customer doesn't need Office or PDF Writer to sign the files. Parts 2, 3 and 4 are OK for me, my company bought all the JAVA technology I need for that for a previous project I worked on. Problem : I can't seem to find any documentation/examples to do parts 1 and 5 for Office files . Are my google skills failing me this time ? Do you have any pointers to documentation or examples for doing that for MS Office files ? The underlying technology isn't that important to me : I can use Java, .Net, COM, any working technology is OK ! Note : I'm 95% sure I can nail points 1 and 5 for PDF files using iText Thanks ** Edit : If I can't do that with hashes and must download the complete file to the client, it's also possible. But then I still need the documentation to be able to sign Office file... in java this time (from an applet)

    Read the article

  • Modifying SQL Database on Shared Hosting

    - by apocalypse9
    I have a live database on a shared hosting server. I am making some major changes to my site's code and I would like to fix some stupid mistakes I made in initially designing the database. These changes involve altering the size of a large number of fields, and enforcing referential integrity between tables properly. I would like to make the changes on both my local test server and the remote server if possible. I should note that while I'm fairly comfortable with writing complex queries to handle data, I have very little experience modifying database structure without a graphical interface. I can access the remote database in the visual studio database explorer but I can not use that for anything other than data manipulation. I installed Sql Management Studio express last night and after 40+ crashes I gave up - I couldn't even patch the damn thing. The remote server is SQL 2005 / The MyLittleAdmin web interface is available. So my question is what is the best way to accomplish these changes. Is there a graphical interface I can use on the remote server? If not is there an easy way to copy the database to my local machine, fix it, and re upload? Finally if none of the above are viable does anyone have links to a decent info on fixing referential integrity via query? Sorry for the somewhat general question - I feel like I am making this far harder than it should be but after searching / trying all night i haven't gotten anywhere. Thanks in advance for the help. I really appreciate it. ...Also does anyone have a time machine I can borrow- I need to go kick my past self's ass for this.

    Read the article

  • Save Xml in an Excel cell value causes ComException

    - by mas_oz2k1
    I am trying to save an object (Class1) as string in a cell value. My issue is that from time to time I have a ComException: HRESULT: 0x8007000E (E_OUTOFMEMORY) (It is kind of random but I have not identified any particular pattern yet) when I write the value into a cell. Any ideas will be welcome For illustration purposes: Let Class1 be the class to be converted to an Xml string. (Notice that I removed the xml declaration at the start of the string to avoid having the preamble present- non printable character) <Class1 xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" <ElementID HL690375</ElementID </Class1" Class1 myClass = new Class1(); this class is converted to a string s. s= ConvertObjectToXmlString(myClass); then s is assigned to a cell Range r = Application.ActiveCell; r.Value2 = s; Note: (1) If the string is too big, I limit it to 32000 chars and split the string in chunks of 32000 chars and save the chunks in multiple cells. (2) I do not to quote the string before adding to a cell. Do I need to? If so how it can be done? (3) All object contents are English. (4) C# code sample will be great but VB.net code is OK.

    Read the article

  • Advise guidance on how to form this jQuery script for show/hide fade element

    - by Rick
    Hey guys.. I basically have several links on the left side of the screen and on the right is a preview window. Below the preview window is another box for the affiliate link code. So what I am trying to do is create an affiliate page where you choose the banner size on the left by clicking on the link and on the right you see it dynamically change to the banner size and the code changes accordingly as well. So far I have the following code and it works but it seems very very cumbersome and bloated. Can you see if I can trim this down? jQuery(".banner-style li").click(function() { jQuery(".banner-style li").removeClass("selected"); jQuery(this).addClass("selected"); var $banner = jQuery(this).attr("class"); $banner = $banner.replace(" selected",""); jQuery(".preview img").fadeOut('fast',function() { jQuery(".preview img").attr("src", "http://localhost/site/banners/"+$banner+".jpg") .fadeIn('slow'); }); jQuery(".code p").removeClass('hide').hide(); jQuery(".code p."+$banner).show(); }); Also to note the funny thing is in FF, when you click for the first to on any link, the original image on the right fades out and in real quick and then it loads the "clicked" image. This does not happen in other browsers...

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 427 428 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438  | Next Page >