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  • Best Practice: Access form elements by HTML id or name attribute?

    - by seth
    As any seasoned JavaScript developer knows, there are many (too many) ways to do the same thing. For example, say you have a text field as follows: <form name="myForm"> <input type="text" name="foo" id="foo" /> There are many way to access this in JavaScript: [1] document.forms[0].elements[0]; [2] document.myForm.foo; [3] document.getElementById('foo'); [4] document.getElementById('myForm').foo; ... and so on ... Methods [1] and [3] are well documented in the Mozilla Gecko documentation, but neither are ideal. [1] is just too general to be useful and [3] requires both an id and a name (assuming you will be posting the data to a server side language). Ideally, it would be best to have only an id attribute or a name attribute (having both is somewhat redundant, especially if the id isn't necessary for any css, and increases the likelihood of typos, etc). [2] seems to be the most intuitive and it seems to be widely used, but I haven't seen it referenced in the Gecko documentation and I'm worried about both forwards compatibility and cross browser compatiblity (and of course I want to be as standards compliant as possible). So what's best practice here? Can anyone point to something in the DOM documentation or W3C specification that could resolve this? Note I am specifically interested in a non-library solution (jQuery/Prototype).

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  • Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

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  • Alternatives to static methods on interfaces for enforcing consistency

    - by jayshao
    In Java, I'd like to be able to define marker interfaces, that forced implementations to provide static methods. For example, for simple text-serialization/deserialization I'd like to be able to define an interface that looked something like this: public interface TextTransformable<T>{ public static T fromText(String text); public String toText(); Since interfaces in Java can't contain static methods though (as noted in a number of other posts/threads: here, here, and here this code doesn't work. What I'm looking for however is some reasonable paradigm to express the same intent, namely symmetric methods, one of which is static, and enforced by the compiler. Right now the best we can come up with is some kind of static factory object or generic factory, neither of which is really satisfactory. Note: in our case our primary use-case is we have many, many "value-object" types - enums, or other objects that have a limited number of values, typically carry no state beyond their value, and which we parse/de-parse thousands of time a second, so actually do care about reusing instances (like Float, Integer, etc.) and its impact on memory consumption/g.c. Any thoughts?

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  • Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

    - by Ralpharama
    I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

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  • SIMPLE PHP MVC Framework [closed]

    - by Allen
    I need a simple and basic MVC example to get me started. I don't want to use any of the available packaged frameworks. I am in need of a simple example of a simple PHP MVC framework that would allow, at most, the basic creation of a simple multi-page site. I am asking for a simple example because I learn best from simple real world examples. Big popular frameworks (such as code igniter) are to much for me to even try to understand and any other "simple" example I have found are not well explained or seem a little sketchy in general. I should add that most examples of simple MVC frameworks I see use mod_rewrite (for URL routing) or some other Apache-only method. I run PHP on IIS. I need to be able to understand a basic MVC framework, so that I could develop my own that would allow me to easily extend functionality with classes. I am at the point where I understand basic design patterns and MVC pretty well. I understand them in theory, but when it comes down to actually building a real world, simple, well designed MVC framework in PHP, I'm stuck. Edit: I just want to note that I am looking for a simple example that an experienced programmer could whip up in under an hour. I mean simple as in bare bones simple. I don't want to use any huge frameworks, I am trying to roll my own. I need a decent SIMPLE example to get me going.

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  • Suggestions on writing a TCP IP messaging system (Client/Server) using Delphi 2010

    - by Shane
    I would like to write a messaging system using TCP IP in Delphi 2010. I would like to hear what my best options are for using the standard delphi 2010 components/indy components for doing this. I would like to write a server which does the listening and forwarding of messages to all machines on the network running a client. 1.) a.) clients can send a message to server to be forwarded to all other clients b.) clients listen for messages from other senders (via server) and displays messages. 2.) a.) Server can send a message to all clients b.) Server forwards any messages from clients to all other clients thanks for any suggestions NOTE: I am not writing a instant messaging or chat program. This is merely a system where users can send alerts/messages to other users - they can not reply to each other! NO commercial, shareware, etc links - please! I would like to hear about how you would go about writing this type of system and what approachs you would take, and possibly the TCP IP messaging architecture you would use. Whether it be straight Winows API, Indy components, etc, etc.

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  • forms problem in django 1.1

    - by alexarsh
    I have the following form: class ModuleItemForm2(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = Module_item fields = ('title', 'media', 'thumb', 'desc', 'default', 'player_option') The model is: class Module_item(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=100) layout = models.CharField(max_length=5, choices=LAYOUTS_CHOICE) media = models.CharField(help_text='Media url', max_length=500, blank=True, null=True) conserv = models.ForeignKey(Conserv, help_text= 'Redirect to Conserv', blank=True, null=True) conserve_section = models.CharField(max_length=100, help_text= 'Section within the redirected Conserv', blank=True, null=True) parent = models.ForeignKey('self', help_text='Upper menu.', blank=True, null=True) module = models.ForeignKey(Module, blank=True, null=True) thumb = models.FileField(upload_to='sms/module_items/thumbs', blank=True, null=True) desc = models.CharField(max_length=500, blank=True, null=True) auto_play = models.IntegerField(help_text='Auto start play (miliseconds)', blank=True, null=True) order = models.IntegerField(help_text='Display order', blank=True, null=True) depth = models.IntegerField(help_text='The layout depth', blank=True, null=True) flow_replace = models.IntegerField(blank=True, null=True) default = models.IntegerField(help_text='The selected sub item (Note: Starting from 0)', blank=True, null=True) player_options = models.CharField(max_length=1000, null=True, blank=True) In my view I build form: module_item_form2 = ModuleItemForm2() print module_item_form2 And I get the following error on the print line: 'NoneType' object has no attribute 'label' It works fine with django 1.0.2. I see the error only in django 1.1. Do you have an idea what am I doing wrong? Regards, Arshavski Alexander.

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  • callbacks via objective-c selectors

    - by codemonkey
    I have a "BSjax" class that I wrote that lets me make async calls to our server to get json result sets, etc using the ASIHTTPRequest class. I set it up so that the BSjax class parses my server's json response, then passes control back to the calling view controller via this call: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(bsRequestFinished:) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "bsRequestFinished" is the callback method in the calling view controller. This all worked fine and well until I realized that some pages are going to need to make different types of requests... i.e. I'll want to do different types of things in that callback function depending on which type of request was made. To me it seems like being able to pass different callback function names to my BSjax class would be the cleanest fix... but I'm having trouble (and am not even sure if it's possible) to pass in a variable that holds the callback function name and then replace the call above with something like this: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(self.variableCallbackFunctionName) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "self.variableCallbackFunctionName" is set by the calling view controller when it calls BSjax to make a new request. Is this even possible? If so, advisable? If not, alternatives? EDIT: Note that whatever fix I arrive at will need to take into account the reality that this class is making async requests... so I need to make sure that the callback function processing is correctly tied to the specific requests... as I can't rely on FIFO processing sequence.

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  • Modifying SQL Database on Shared Hosting

    - by apocalypse9
    I have a live database on a shared hosting server. I am making some major changes to my site's code and I would like to fix some stupid mistakes I made in initially designing the database. These changes involve altering the size of a large number of fields, and enforcing referential integrity between tables properly. I would like to make the changes on both my local test server and the remote server if possible. I should note that while I'm fairly comfortable with writing complex queries to handle data, I have very little experience modifying database structure without a graphical interface. I can access the remote database in the visual studio database explorer but I can not use that for anything other than data manipulation. I installed Sql Management Studio express last night and after 40+ crashes I gave up - I couldn't even patch the damn thing. The remote server is SQL 2005 / The MyLittleAdmin web interface is available. So my question is what is the best way to accomplish these changes. Is there a graphical interface I can use on the remote server? If not is there an easy way to copy the database to my local machine, fix it, and re upload? Finally if none of the above are viable does anyone have links to a decent info on fixing referential integrity via query? Sorry for the somewhat general question - I feel like I am making this far harder than it should be but after searching / trying all night i haven't gotten anywhere. Thanks in advance for the help. I really appreciate it. ...Also does anyone have a time machine I can borrow- I need to go kick my past self's ass for this.

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  • Update table without using cursor and on date

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please copy and run following script DECLARE @Customers TABLE (CustomerId INT) DECLARE @Orders TABLE ( OrderId INT, CustomerId INT, OrderDate DATETIME ) DECLARE @Calls TABLE (CallId INT, CallTime DATETIME, CallToId INT, OrderId INT) ----------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @Customers SELECT 1 INSERT INTO @Customers SELECT 2 ----------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @Orders SELECT 10, 1, DATEADD(d, -20, GETDATE()) INSERT INTO @Orders SELECT 11, 1, DATEADD(d, -10, GETDATE()) ----------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 101, DATEADD(d, -19, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 102, DATEADD(d, -17, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 103, DATEADD(d, -9, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 104, DATEADD(d, -6, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 105, DATEADD(d, -5, GETDATE()), 1, NULL ----------------------------------------------------------------- I want to update @Calls table and need following results. I am using the following query UPDATE @Calls SET OrderId = ( CASE WHEN (s.CallTime > e.OrderDate) THEN e.OrderId END ) FROM @Calls s INNER JOIN @Orders e ON s.CallToId = e.CustomerId and the result of my query is not what I need. Requirement: As you can see there are two orders. One is on 2010-12-12 and one is on 2010-12-22. I want to update @Calls table with relevant OrderId with respect to CallTime. In short If subsequent Orders are added, and there are further calls then we assume that a new call is associated with the most recent Order Note: This is sample data so this is not the case that I always have two Orders. There might be 10+ Orders and 100+ calls. Note2 I could not find good title for this question. Please change it if you think of any better. Thanks.

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  • how do I deconstruct COUNT()?

    - by user151841
    I have a view with some joins in it. I'm doing a select from that view with COUNT(*) as one of the columns of the select. I'm surprised by the number it's returning. Note that there is no GROUP BY nor aggregate column statement in the source view that the query is drawing from. How can I take it apart to see how it arrives at this number? I have three columns in the GROUP BY clause. SELECT column1, column2, column3, COUNT(*) FROM View GROUP BY column1, column2, column3 I get a result like +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | column1 | column2 | column3 | COUNT(*) | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value1 | valueA | value_a | 103 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value2 | valueB | value_b | 56 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ etc. I'd like to see how it arrives at that 103, 26, etc. In other words, I want to run a query that returns 103 rows of something, so that I know that I've expressed the query properly. I'm double-checking my work. I'm not saying that I think COUNT(*) doesn't work ( I know that "SELECT is not broken" ), what I want to double-check is exactly what I'm expressing in my query, because I think I've expressed the wrong thing, which would be why I'm getting unexpected values. I need to see more what I'm actually directing MySQL to count. So should I take them one by one, and try out each value in a WHERE clause? In other words, should I do SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' and see the row count returned matches the COUNT(*) value in the grouped results? Because of confidentiality, I won't be able to post any of the query or database structure. All I'm asking for is a general technique to see what COUNT(*) is actually counting.

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  • Dependent Dropdowns with single class element

    - by AJ
    I am trying to create multiple dependent dropdowns (selects) with a unique way. I want to restrict the use of selectors and want to achieve this by using a single class selectors on all SELECTs; by figuring out the SELECT that was changed by its index. Hence, the SELECT[i] that changed will change the SELECT[i+1] only (and not the previous ones like SELECT[i-1]). For html like this: <select class="someclass"> <option value="volvo">Volvo</option> <option value="saab">Saab</option> <option value="mercedes">Mercedes</option> <option value="audi">Audi</option> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> where the SELECTs other than the first one will get something via AJAX. I see that the following Javascript gives me correct value of the correct SELECT and the value of i also corresponds to the correct SELECT. $(function() { $(".someclass").each(function(i) { $(this).change(function(x) { alert($(this).val() + i); }); }); }); Please note that I really want the minimum selector approach. I just cannot wrap my head around on how to approach this. Should I use Arrays? Like store all the SELECTS in an Array first and then select those? I believe that since the above code already passes the index i, there should be a way without Arrays also. Thanks a bunch. AJ

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  • Is it possible for two VS2008 C# class library projects to share a single namespace?

    - by jeah
    I am trying to share a common namespace between two projects in a single solution. The projects are "Blueprint" and "Repositories". Blueprint contains Interfaces for the entire application and serves as a reference for the application structure. In the Blueprint project, I have an interface with the following declaration: namespace Application.Repositories{ public interface IRepository{ IEntity Get(Guid id); } } In the Repositories project I have a class the following class: namespace Application.Repositories{ public class STDRepository: IRepository { STD Get(Guid id){ return new SkankyExGirlfriendDataContext() .FirstOrDefault<STD>(x=>x.DiseaseId == id); } } } However, this does not work. The Repositories project has a reference to the Blueprint project. I receive a VS error: "The type or namespace name 'IRepository' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) - Normally, this is easy to fix but adding a using statement doesn't make sense since they have the same namespace. I tried it anyway and it didn't work. The reference has been added, and without the line of code referencing that interface, both projects compile successfully. I am lost here. I have searched all over and have found nothing, so I am assuming that there is something fundamentally wrong with what I'm doing ... but I don't know what it is. So, I would appreciate some explanation or guidance as to how to fix this problem. I hope you guys can help. Note: The reason I want to do it this way and keep the interfaces under the same namespace is because I want a solid project to keep all the interfaces in, in order to have a reference for the full architecture of the application. I have considered work arounds, such as putting all of the interfaces in the Blueprint.Application namespace instead of the application namespace. However, that would require me to write the using statement on virtually every page in the application...and my fingers get tired. Thanks again guys...

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  • How to put JFrame into existing JPanel in Java Swing?

    - by suud
    I have an open-source java swing application like this: http://i47.tinypic.com/dff4f7.jpg You can see in the screenshot, there is a JPanel divided into two area, left and right area. The left area has many text links. When I click the SLA Criteria link, it will pop-up the SLA Criteria window. The pop-up window is JFrame object. Now, I'm trying to put the pop-up window into right area of the JPanel, so that means no pop-up window anymore, i.e. when I click the SLA Criteria link, its contents will be displayed at the right area of the JPanel. The existing content of the right area of JPanel will not be used anymore. The example illustration (note: it's made and edited using image editor, this is not the real screenshot of working application) is like this: http://i48.tinypic.com/5vrxaa.jpg So, I would like to know is there a way to put JFrame into JPanel? I'm thinking of using JInternalFrame, is it possible? Or is there another way? UPDATE: Source code: http://pastebin.com/tiqRbWP8 (VTreePanel.java, this is the JPanel) http://pastebin.com/330z3yuT (CPanel.java, this is the super class of VTreePanel) http://pastebin.com/MkNsbtjh (AWindow.java, this is the JFrame, pop-up window) http://pastebin.com/2rsppQeE (CFrame.java, this is the super class of AWindow)

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  • Static Vs Non-Static Method Performance C#

    - by dotnetguts
    Hello All, I have few global methods declared in public class in my asp.net web application. I have habbit of declaring all global methods in public class in following format public static string MethodName(parameters) { } I want to know how it would impact on performance point of view? 1) Which one is Better? Static Method or Non-Static Method? 2) Reason why it is better? Following link shows Non-Static methods are good because, static methods are using locks to be Thread-safe. The always do internally a Monitor.Enter() and Monitor.exit() to ensure Thread-safety. http://bytes.com/topic/c-sharp/answers/231701-static-vs-non-static-function-performance And Following link shows Static Methods are good static methods are normally faster to invoke on the call stack than instance methods. There are several reasons for this in the C# programming language. Instance methods actually use the 'this' instance pointer as the first parameter, so an instance method will always have that overhead. Instance methods are also implemented with the callvirt instruction in the intermediate language, which imposes a slight overhead. Please note that changing your methods to static methods is unlikely to help much on ambitious performance goals, but it can help a tiny bit and possibly lead to further reductions. http://dotnetperls.com/static-method I am little confuse which one to use? Thanks

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  • Run a command as cron would but from the command line.

    - by BCS
    I have a script that I'm trying to run from cron. When I run it from bash, it work just fine. However when I let cron do it's thing, I get a: myscript.sh: line 122: syntax error: unexpected end of file What I want is a way to run a command as if it was a cron job, but do it in my shell. As a side note: does anyone know what would be differnt under cron? (the script already has a #!/bin/sh line) To answer my own question: I added this to my crontab: * * * * * bcs for ((i=1; i <= 55; i++)) ; do find ~/.crontemp/ -name '*.run' -exec "{}" ";" ; sleep 1; done` and created this script: #!/bin/sh tmp=$(mktemp ~/.crontemp/cron.XXXXX) mknod $tmp.pipe p mv $tmp $tmp.pre echo $* '>' $tmp.pipe '1>&2' >> $tmp.pre echo rm $tmp.run >> $tmp.pre chmod 700 $tmp.pre mv $tmp.pre $tmp.run cat $tmp.pipe rm $tmp.pipe With that, I can run an arbitrary command with a delay of not more than one second. (And yes, I know there are all kinds of security issue involved in that)

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  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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  • Database.ExecuteNonQuery does not return

    - by dan-waterbly
    I have a very odd issue. When I execute a specific database stored procedure from C# using SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery, my stored procedure is never executed. Furthermore, SQL Profiler does not register the command at all. I do not receive a command timeout, and no exeception is thrown. The weirdest thing is that this code has worked fine over 1,200,000 times, but for this one particular file I am inserting into the database, it just hangs forever. When I kill the application, I receive this error in the event log of the database server: "A fatal error occurued while reading the input stream from the network. The session will be terminated (input error: 64, output error: 0). Which makes me think that the database server is receiving the command, though SQL Profiler says otherwise. I know that the appropiate permissions are set, and that the connection string is right as this piece of code and stored procedure works fine with other files. Below is the code that calls the stored procedure, it may be important to note that the file I am trying to insert is 33.5MB, but I have added more than 10,000 files larger than 500MB, so I do not think the size is the issue: using (SqlConnection sqlconn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["TheDatabase"].ConnectionString)) using (SqlCommand command = sqlconn.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "Add_File"; command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; command.CommandTimeout = 30 //should timeout in 30 seconds, but doesn't... command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.BigInt; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BinaryData", byteArr).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarBinary; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@FileName", fileName).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; sqlconn.Open(); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } There is no firewall between the server making the call and the database server, and the windows firewalls have been disabled to troubleshoot this issue.

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  • How to retain similar character encoding

    - by Mystere Man
    I have a logfile that contains the half character ½, I need to process this log file and rewrite certain lines to a new file, which contain that character. However, when I write out the file the characters appear in notepad incorrectly. I know this is some kind of encoding issue, and i'm not sure if it's just that the files i'm writing don't contain the correct bom or what. I've tried reading and writing the file with all the available encoding options in the Encoding enumeration. I'm using this code: string line; // Note i've used every version of the Encoding enumeration using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(file, Encoding.Unicode)) using (StreamWRiter sw = new StreamWriter(newfile, false, Encoding.Unicode)) { while ((line = sr.ReadLine()) != null) { // process code, I do not alter the lines, they are copied verbatim // but i do not write every line that i read. sw.WriteLine(line); } } When I view the original log in notepad, the half character displays correctly. When I view the new file, it does not. Can anyone help me to solve this?

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  • edmx - The operation could not be completed - When adding Inheritance

    - by vdh_ant
    Hey guys I have an edmx model which I have draged 2 tables onto - One called 'File' and the other 'ApplicaitonFile'. These two tables have a 1 to 1 relationship in the database. If I stop here everything works fine. But in my model, I want 'ApplicaitonFile' to inherit from 'File'. So I delete the 1 to 1 relationship then configure 'ApplicaitonFile' from 'File' and then remove the FileId from 'ApplicaitonFile' which was the primary key. (Note I am following the instructions from here). If I leave the model open at this point everything is fine, but as soon as I close it, if I try and reopen it again I get the following error "The operation could not be completed". I have been searching for a solution and found this - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/944050/entity-model-does-not-load but as far as I can tell I don't have a duplicate InheritanceConnectors (although I don't know exactly what I'm looking for but I can't see anything out of the ordinary - like 2 connectors with the same name) and the relationship I originally have is a 1 to 1 not a 1 to 0..1 Any ideas??? this is driving me crazy...

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  • Using a CMS with an external database

    - by George Reith
    I am looking at building an external site with a CMS, probably Drupal or ExpressionEngine. The problem is that our company already has a membership database that is designed to work with our existing enterprise software. Migrating data from the database manually is not an option as modifications and new data must be accessible in real-time. Because the design of the external database will differ from the CMS's own I have decided the best way forward is to use two databases and force the CMS to use the external to read user information (cannot write to) and a local for everything else the CMS needs to do (read + write). Is this feasible with these Drupal or ExpressionEngine? Ideally I need to be able to use hooks as I do not wan't to modify core CMS files. Sifting through the docs I am not able to find what I would hook into for ether CMS. (Note: I know it is possible, but I want to know if it's feasible). Finally if there is a better way of handling this situation please also chime in. Perhaps there is something at the database level to reference a field or table in an external database? I'm clutching at straws someone can point me in the right direction I'm sure.

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  • Can I use foreign key restrictions to return meaningful UI errors with PHP

    - by Shane
    I want to start by saying that I am a big fan of using foreign keys and have a tendency to use them even on small projects to keep my database from being filled with orphaned data. On larger projects I end up with gobs of keys which end up covering upwards of 8 - 10 layers of data. I want to know if anyone could suggest a graceful way of handling 'expected errors' from the MySQL database in a way that I can construct meaningful messages for the end user. I will explain 'expected errors' with an example. Lets say I have a set of tables used for basic discussions: discussion questions responses users Hierarchically they would probably look something like this: -users --discussion ---questions ----responses When I attempt to delete a user the FKs will check discussions and if any discussion exist the deletion is restricted, deleting discussion checks questions, deleting questions checks responses. An 'expected error' in this case would be attempting to delete a user--unless they are newly created I can anticipate that one or more foreign keys will fail causing an error. What I WANT to do is to catch that error on deletion and be able to tell the end user something like 'We're sorry, but all discussions must be removed before you can delete this user...'. Now I know I can keep and maintain matching arrays in PHP and map specific errors to messages but that is messy and prone to becoming stagnant, or I could manually run a set of selects prior to attempting the deletion, but then I am doing just as much work as without using FKs. Any help here would be greatly appreciated, or if I am just looking at this completely wrong then please let me know. On a side note I generally use CodeIgniter for my application development, so if that would open up an avenue through that framework please consider that in your answers. Thanks in Advance

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  • History.js not working in Internet Explorer

    - by Wilcoholic
    I am trying to get history.js to work in Internet Explorer because I need history.pushState() to work. I have read over the instructions on GitHub (https://github.com/balupton/History.js/) and have tried implementing it, but havent had any success. Here's what I have <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <!-- jQuery --> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <!-- History.js --> <script defer src="http://balupton.github.com/history.js/scripts/bundled/html4+html5/jquery.history.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function addHistory(){ // Prepare var History = window.History; // Note: We are using a capital H instead of a lower h // Change our States History.pushState(null, null, "?mylink.html"); } </script> </head> <body> <a href="mylink.html">My Link</a> <a href="otherlink.html">Other Link</a> <button onclick="addHistory()" type="button">Add History</button> </body> Not sure what I'm doing wrong, but it's definitely not working in IE. Any help is appreciated

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  • wpf command pattern

    - by evan
    I have a wpf gui which displays a list of information in separate window and in a separate thread from the main application. As the user performs actions in the main window the side window is updated. (For example if you clicked page down in the main window a listbox in the side window would page down). Right now the architecture for this application feels very messy and I'm sure there is a cleaner way to do it. It looks like this: Main Window contains a singleton SideWindowControl which communicates with an instance of the SideWindowDisplay using events - so, for example, the pagedown button would work like: 1) the event handler of the button on the main window calls SideWindowControl.PageDown() 2) in the PageDown() function a event is created and thrown. 3) finally the gui, ShowSideWindowDisplay is subscribing to the SideWindowControl.Actions event handles the event and actually scrolls the listbox down - note because it is in a different thread it has to do that by running the command via Dispatcher.Invoke() This just seems like a very messy way to this and there must be a clearer way (The only part that can't change is that the main window and the side window must be on different threads). Perhaps using WPF commands? I'd really appreciate any suggestions!! Thanks

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  • Best practices for encrypting continuous/small UDP data

    - by temp
    Hello everyone, I am having an application where I have to send several small data per second through the network using UDP. The application need to send the data in real-time (no waiting). I want to encrypt these data and insure that what I am doing is as secure as possible. Since I am using UDP, there is no way to use SSL/TLS, so I have to encrypt each packet alone since the protocol is connectionless/unreliable/unregulated. Right now, I am using a 128-bit key derived from a passphrase from the user, and AES in CBC mode (PBE using AES-CBC). I decided to use a random salt with the passphrase to derive the 128-bit key (prevent dictionary attack on the passphrase), and of course use IVs (to prevent statistical analysis for packets). However I am concerned about few things: Each packet contains small amount of data (like a couple of integer values per packet) which will make the encrypted packets vulnerable to known-plaintext attacks (which will result in making it easier to crack the key). Also, since the encryption key is derived from a passphrase, this will make the key space way less (I know the salt will help, but I have to send the salt through the network once and anyone can get it). Given these two things, anyone can sniff and store the sent data, and try to crack the key. Although this process might take some time, once the key is cracked all the stored data will be decrypted, which will be a real problem for my application. So my question is, what is the best practices for sending/encrypting continuous small data using a connectionless protocol (UDP)? Is my way the best way to do it? ...flowed? ...Overkill? ... Please note that I am not asking for a 100% secure solution, as there is no such thing. Cheers

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