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  • sum of square of each elements in the vector using for_each

    - by pierr
    Hi, As the function accepted by for_each take only one parameter (the element of the vector), I have to define a static int sum = 0 somewhere so that It can be accessed after calling the for_each . I think this is awkward. Any better way to do this (still use for_each) ? #include <algorithm> #include <vector> #include <iostream> using namespace std; static int sum = 0; void add_f(int i ) { sum += i * i; } void test_using_for_each() { int arr[] = {1,2,3,4}; vector<int> a (arr ,arr + sizeof(arr)/sizeof(arr[0])); for_each( a.begin(),a.end(), add_f); cout << "sum of the square of the element is " << sum << endl; } In Ruby, We can do it this way: sum = 0 [1,2,3,4].each { |i| sum += i*i} #local variable can be used in the callback function puts sum #=> 30 Would you please show more examples how for_each is typically used in practical programming (not just print out each element)? Is it possible use for_each simulate 'programming pattern' like map and inject in Ruby (or map /fold in Haskell). #map in ruby >> [1,2,3,4].map {|i| i*i} => [1, 4, 9, 16] #inject in ruby [1, 4, 9, 16].inject(0) {|aac ,i| aac +=i} #=> 30 EDIT: Thank you all. I have learned so much from your replies. We have so many ways to do the same single thing in C++ , which makes it a little bit difficult to learn. But it's interesting :)

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  • confirm alert not working ....

    - by user318068
    I want the work of the Control Panel in my site for members ... I designed the page is displayed all the registered members on my site And i but it checkbox front each member name ,becuase it allowed to select multiple name then click delete button The following code works but now i want confirm alert before delete code working even , if clicked on ok the deletion is working , and if clicked on cancel the is not working .. how i can work it ?? while($row = mysql_fetch_array($sql1)) { ?> <tr> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><input name="checkbox[]" type="checkbox" id="checkbox[]" value="<?php echo $row['MemberID']; ?>"></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><?php echo $row['MemberName']; ; ?></td></tr> <?php } ?> <tr> <td colspan="5" align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><input name="delete" type="submit" id="delete" value="delete" onclick="javascript:return confirm('are you sure to delete this record???? ')"/></td> </tr> <?php $delete = $_REQUEST['delete']; $checkbox = $_REQUEST['checkbox']; $count = count($_REQUEST['checkbox']); // Check if delete button active, start this if($delete){ echo "<script language=\"Javascript\">\n"; for($i=0;$i<$count;$i++){ $del_id = $checkbox[$i]; $sql = "Delete FROM members where MemberID ='$del_id'"; $sq2 = "Delete FROM joinroom where MemberID ='$del_id'"; $result1 = mysql_query($sql); $result2 = mysql_query($sq2); echo "else {\n"; echo "alert ('Nothing deleted');\n }"; echo "</script>"; } } Thanks a lot.........

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  • Database contents setting themselves to 0

    - by Luis Armando
    I have a Database that contains 4 tables, however I'm using 1 of them which is separated from the others. In this table I have 4 fields which are varchar and the rest are ints (11 other fields), when the users fill up the DB everything gets saved correctly, however it has happened 3 times so far that the database values for the int's reset to 0 without any apparent reason. At first, I thought, it was because those fields (where the numbers should go) were varchars not ints. However since I changed it, it happened again. I've already double checked my code and I have nothing that even updates or inserts a 0 value. Also I'm using codeigniter and active records which protect against SQL injections AND have XSS filtering enabled, could anyone point out something I might be missing or a reason for this to be happening? Also, I'm pretty sure about the answer of this but, is there ANY way to recover some data?? Other than having to ask everyone to fill in everything again.. =/ ** EDIT ** The Storage Engine is MyISAM and Collation is latin1_swedish_ci, Pack Keys are default, for all intents and purposes it's a normal DB

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  • Efficient database access when dealing with multiple abstracted repositories

    - by Nathan Ridley
    I want to know how most people are dealing with the repository pattern when it involves hitting the same database multiple times (sometimes transactionally) and trying to do so efficiently while maintaining database agnosticism and using multiple repositories together. Let's say we have repositories for three different entities; Widget, Thing and Whatsit. Each repository is abstracted via a base interface as per normal decoupling design processes. The base interfaces would then be IWidgetRepository, IThingRepository and IWhatsitRepository. Now we have our business layer or equivalent (whatever you want to call it). In this layer we have classes that access the various repositories. Often the methods in these classes need to do batch/combined operations where multiple repositories are involved. Sometimes one method may make use of another method internally, while that method can still be called independently. What about, in this scenario, when the operation needs to be transactional? Example: class Bob { private IWidgetRepository _widgetRepo; private IThingRepository _thingRepo; private IWhatsitRepository _whatsitRepo; public Bob(IWidgetRepository widgetRepo, IThingRepository thingRepo, IWhatsitRepository whatsitRepo) { _widgetRepo = widgetRepo; _thingRepo= thingRepo; _whatsitRepo= whatsitRepo; } public void DoStuff() { _widgetRepo.StoreSomeStuff(); _thingRepo.ReadSomeStuff(); _whatsitRepo.SaveSomething(); } public void DoOtherThing() { _widgetRepo.UpdateSomething(); DoStuff(); } } How do I keep my access to that database efficient and not have a constant stream of open-close-open-close on connections and inadvertent invocation of MSDTS and whatnot? If my database is something like SQLite, standard mechanisms like creating nested transactions are going to inherently fail, yet the business layer should not have to be concerning itself with such things. How do you handle such issues? Does ADO.Net provide simple mechanisms to handle this or do most people end up wrapping their own custom bits of code around ADO.Net to solve these types of problems?

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  • Is locking on the requested object a bad idea?

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    Most advice on thread safety involves some variation of the following pattern: public class Thing { private static readonly object padlock = new object(); private string stuff, andNonsense; public string Stuff { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Threadsafe!"; } return this.stuff; } } public string AndNonsense { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.andNonsense == null) this.andNonsense = "Also threadsafe!"; } return this.andNonsense; } } // Rest of class... } In cases where the get operations are expensive and unrelated, a single locking object is unsuitable because a call to Stuff would block all calls to AndNonsense, degrading performance. And rather than create a lock object for each call, wouldn't it be better to acquire the lock on the member itself (assuming it is not something that implements SyncRoot or somesuch for that purpose? For example: public string Stuff { get { lock (this.stuff) { // Pretend that this is a very expensive operation. if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Still threadsafe and good?"; } return this.stuff; } } Strangely, I have never seen this approach recommended or warned against. Am I missing something obvious?

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  • re.sub emptying list

    - by jmau5
    def process_dialect_translation_rules(): # Read in lines from the text file specified in sys.argv[1], stripping away # excess whitespace and discarding comments (lines that start with '##'). f_lines = [line.strip() for line in open(sys.argv[1], 'r').readlines()] f_lines = filter(lambda line: not re.match(r'##', line), f_lines) # Remove any occurances of the pattern '\s*<=>\s*'. This leaves us with a # list of lists. Each 2nd level list has two elements: the value to be # translated from and the value to be translated to. Use the sub function # from the re module to get rid of those pesky asterisks. f_lines = [re.split(r'\s*<=>\s*', line) for line in f_lines] f_lines = [re.sub(r'"', '', elem) for elem in line for line in f_lines] This function should take the lines from a file and perform some operations on the lines, such as removing any lines that begin with ##. Another operation that I wish to perform is to remove the quotation marks around the words in the line. However, when the final line of this script runs, f_lines becomes an empty lines. What happened? Requested lines of original file: ## English-Geek Reversible Translation File #1 ## (Moderate Geek) ## Created by Todd WAreham, October 2009 "TV show" <=> "STAR TREK" "food" <=> "pizza" "drink" <=> "Red Bull" "computer" <=> "TRS 80" "girlfriend" <=> "significant other"

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  • Creating sublines on Joomla menu items

    - by ploughansen
    In my toplevel menu items, I would like to make a subline for each item. I don't think it's possible to do by default, byt YooTheme has done it in many of their templates. The menu output look like this <div class="moduletable_menu"> <ul id="mainmenu" class="menu"> <li class="active item1" id="current"> <a href="URL_HIDDEN"> <span>Services</span> </a> </li> </ul> This basically outputs a one line menu item like so: Services What I would like to do is have a menu item like this: Services Service x, Service y, Service z For reference, have a look at the main menu on the YooTheme demo page. The way YooTheme does this, is using two pipes (||) as a linebreak, so in the Joomla backend you type "Services||Service x, Service y, Service z" as the menu title, and then there must be some fancy javascript that breaks this title into two spans, ready to be styled using css. Does anyone know of an easy way to code this? Please note that I am looking to build this feature into a custom template (ie. non-yootheme). Also note that I am not using MooTools, but Jquery instead.

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  • Do I need to write a trigger for such a simple constraint?

    - by Paul Hanbury
    I really had a hard time knowing what words to put into the title of my question, as I am not especially sure if there is a database pattern related to my problem. I will try to simplify matters as much as possible to get directly to the heart of the issue. Suppose I have some tables. The first one is a list of widget types: create table widget_types ( widget_type_id number(7,0) primary key, description varchar2(50) ); The next one contains icons: create table icons ( icon_id number(7,0) primary key, picture blob ); Even though the users get to select their preferred widget, there is a predefined subset of widgets that they can choose from for each widget type. create table icon_associations ( widget_type_id number(7,0) references widget_types, icon_id number(7,0) references icons, primary key (widget_type_id, icon_id) ); create table icon_prefs ( user_id number(7,0) references users, widget_type_id number(7,0), icon_id number(7,0), primary key (user_id, widget_type_id), foreign key (widget_type_id, icon_id) references icon_associations ); Pretty simple so far. Let us now assume that if we are displaying an icon to a user who has not set up his preferences, we choose one of the appropriate images associated with the current widget. I'd like to specify the preferred icon to display in such a case, and here's where I run into my problem: alter table icon_associations add ( is_preferred char(1) check( is_preferred in ('y','n') ) ) ; I do not see how I can enforce that for each widget_type there is one, and only one, row having is_preferred set to 'y'. I know that in MySQL, I am able to write a subquery in my check constraint to quickly resolve this issue. This is not possible with Oracle. Is my mistake that this column has no business being in the icon_associations table? If not where should it go? Is this a case where, in Oracle, the constraint can only be handled with a trigger? I ask only because I'd like to go the constraint route if at all possible. Thanks so much for your help, Paul

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  • Exclude subdirectory from rewrite rule in web.config

    - by Clog
    This question comes up often, but I can only find solutions for PHP, Apache, htaccess etc but not for web.config I would like my pages to return in HTTP not HTTPS, except for forms within certain subdirectories. I have created the following web.config file, but how do I exclude a subdirectory called forms. <configuration> <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Force all to HTTP" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions> <add input="{HTTPS}" pattern="on" ignoreCase="true" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="Found" url="http://www.mysite.com/{R:1}" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> </system.webServer> </configuration> Many thanks all you clever clogs.

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  • Should frontend and backend be handled by different controllers?

    - by DR
    In my previous learning projects I always used a single controller, but now I wonder if that is good practice or even always possible. In all RESTful Rails tutorials the controllers have a show, an edit and an index view. If an authorized user is logged on, the edit view becomes available and the index view shows additional data manipulation controls, like a delete button or a link to the edit view. Now I have a Rails application which falls exactly into this pattern, but the index view is not reusable: The normal user sees a flashy index page with lots of pictures, complex layout, no Javascript requirement, ... The Admin user index has a completly different minimalistic design, jQuery table and lots of additional data, ... Now I'm not sure how to handle this case. I can think of the following: Single controller, single view: The view is split into two large blocks/partials using an if statement. Single controller, two views: index and index_admin. Two different controllers: BookController and BookAdminController None of these solutions seems perfect, but for now I'm inclined to use the 3rd option. What's the preferred way to do this?

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  • How do I resize table view after resizing it's footer?

    - by Pedro
    I have a UITableView with header & footer added with code following the pattern shown in Apple's recipes example so the code for the footer is... if (tableFooterView == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"DetailFooterView" owner:self options:nil]; self.tableView.tableFooterView = tableFooterView; } The footer NIB contains nothing more than a UITextView & I set text & resize with... CGSize size = [footerText sizeWithFont:[footerTextView font] constrainedToSize:CGSizeMake(304.0, 500.0)]; CGRect frame = CGRectMake(8.0, 0.0, size.width, size.height + 24.0); footerTextView.frame = frame; footerTextView.text = footerText; [tableFooterView sizeToFit]; That all works however I can't get the UITableView to resize around the resized footer. If I set the original size of the footer for any possible text I have a big whitespace in most cases. If I set it smaller then I can push the view up to see the whole text but it bounces back on release. I've tried [[self view] sizeToFit]; but that doesn't work. Can anyone fill me in? Cheers & TIA, Pedro :)

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  • Regular Expression with Names and Emails

    - by Nina
    I am having a problem with regular expressions at the moment. What I'm trying to do is that for each line through the iteration, it checks for this type of pattern: Lastname, Firstname If it finds the name, then it will take the first letter of the first name, and the first six letters of the lastname and form it as an email. I have the following: $checklast = "[A-z],"; $checkfirst = "[A-z]"; if (ereg($checklast, $parts[1])||ereg($checkfirst, $parts[2])){ $first = preg_replace($checkfirst, $checkfirst{1,1}, $parts[2]); print "<a href='mailto:[email protected];'> $parts[$i] </a>"; } This one obviously broke the code. But I was initially attempting to find only the first letter of the firstname and then after that the first six letters of the lastname followed by the @email.com This didn't work out too well. I'm not sure what to do at this point. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • Mocking non-virtual methods in C++ without editing production code?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, I am a fairly new software developer currently working adding unit tests to an existing C++ project that started years ago. Due to a non-technical reason, I'm not allowed to modify any existing code. The base class of all my modules has a bunch of methods for Setting/Getting data and communicating with other modules. Since I just want to unit testing each individual module, I want to be able to use canned values for all my inter-module communication methods. I.e. for a method Ping() which checks if another module is active, I want to have it return true or false based on what kind of test I'm doing. I've been looking into Google Test and Google Mock, and it does support mocking non-virtual methods. However the approach described (http://code.google.com/p/googlemock/wiki/CookBook#Mocking_Nonvirtual_Methods) requires me to "templatize" the original methods to take in either real or mock objects. I can't go and templatize my methods in the base class due to the requirement mentioned earlier, so I need some other way of mocking these virtual methods Basically, the methods I want to mock are in some base class, the modules I want to unit test and create mocks of are derived classes of that base class. There are intermediate modules in between my base Module class and the modules that I want to test. I would appreciate any advise! Thanks, JW EDIT: A more concrete examples My base class is lets say rootModule, the module I want to test is leafModule. There is an intermediate module which inherits from rootModule, leafModule inherits from this intermediate module. In my leafModule, I want to test the doStuff() method, which calls the non virtual GetStatus(moduleName) defined in the rootModule class. I need to somehow make GetStatus() to return a chosen canned value. Mocking is new to me, so is using mock objects even the right approach?

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  • What's the use of writing tests matching configuration-like code line by line?

    - by Pascal Van Hecke
    Hi, I have been wondering about the usefulness of writing tests that match code one-by-one. Just an example: in Rails, you can define 7 restful routes in one line in routes.rb using: resources :products BDD/TDD proscribes you test first and then write code. In order to test the full effect of this line, devs come up with macros e.g. for shoulda: http://kconrails.com/2010/01/27/route-testing-with-shoulda-in-ruby-on-rails/ class RoutingTest < ActionController::TestCase # simple should_map_resources :products end I'm not trying to pick on the guy that wrote the macros, this is just an example of a pattern that I see all over Rails. I'm just wondering what the use of it is... in the end you're just duplicating code and the only thing you test is that Rails works. You could as well write a tool that transforms your test macros into actual code... When I ask around, people answer me that: "the tests should document your code, so yes it makes sense to write them, even if it's just one line corresponding to one line" What are your thoughts?

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  • Standard term for a thread I/O reorder buffer?

    - by Crashworks
    I have a case where many threads all concurrently generate data that is ultimately written to one long, serial file. I need to somehow serialize these writes so that the file gets written in the right order. ie, I have an input queue of 2048 jobs j0..jn, each of which produces a chunk of data oi. The jobs run in parallel on, say, eight threads, but the output blocks have to appear in the file in the same order as the corresponding input blocks — the output file has to be in the order o0o1o2... The solution to this is pretty self evident: I need some kind of buffer that accumulates and writes the output blocks in the correct order, similar to a CPU reorder buffer in Tomasulo's algorithm, or to the way that TCP reassembles out-of-order packets before passing them to the application layer. Before I go code it, I'd like to do a quick literature search to see if there are any papers that have solved this problem in a particularly clever or efficient way, since I have severe realtime and memory constraints. I can't seem to find any papers describing this though; a Scholar search on every permutation of [threads, concurrent, reorder buffer, reassembly, io, serialize] hasn't yielded anything useful. I feel like I must just not be searching the right terms. Is there a common academic name or keyword for this kind of pattern that I can search on?

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  • Can FFT length affect filtering accuracy?

    - by Charles
    Hi, I am designing a fractional delay filter, and my lagrange coefficient of order 5 h(n) have 6 taps in time domain. I have tested to convolute the h(n) with x(n) which is 5000 sampled signal using matlab, and the result seems ok. When I tried to use FFT and IFFT method, the output is totally wrong. Actually my FFT is computed with 8192 data in frequency domain, which is the nearest power of 2 for 5000 signal sample. For the IFFT portion, I convert back the 8192 frequency domain data back to 5000 length data in time domain. So, the problem is, why this thing works in convolution, but not in FFT multiplication. Does converting my 6 taps h(n) to 8192 taps in frequency domain causes this problem? Actually I have tried using overlap-save method, which perform the FFT and multiplication with smaller chunks of x(n) and doing it 5 times separately. The result seems slight better than the previous, and at least I can see the waveform pattern, but still slightly distorted. So, any idea where goes wrong, and what is the solution. Thank you.

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • Error when creating an image from a UIView

    - by Raphael Pinto
    Hi, I'm creating an image from a view whith the folowing code : UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(myView.bounds.size); [myView.layer renderInContext:UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext()]; UIImage *viewImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); UIImageWriteToSavedPhotosAlbum(viewImage, nil, nil, nil); The image is created in the user album but in the consol I get this : 2010-05-11 10:17:17.974 myApp[3875:1807] sqlite error 8 [attempt to write a readonly database] 2010-05-11 10:17:18.014 myApp[3875:1807] Backtrace for sqlite error: (0x34e3a909 0x34e3d87f 0x34e3b029 0x34e3b22b 0x34e2f48b 0x34e2dccb 0x34e2d2f7 0x34e2d3bb 0x34e4dcd3 0x34e50515 0x34e51351 0x34e51681 0x34e513f5 0x34e511e3 0x303af57c 0x34e51163 0x303b06e8 0x303ac8e0 0x303ac6d8 0x303ac8c8 0x303aca80 0x30350d55 0x3034a12c) 2010-05-11 10:17:18.077 myApp[3875:1807] sqlite error 8 [attempt to write a readonly database] 2010-05-11 10:17:18.087 myApp[3875:1807] Backtrace for sqlite error: (0x34e3a909 0x34e3b053 0x34e3b22b 0x34e2f48b 0x34e2dccb 0x34e2d2f7 0x34e2d3bb 0x34e4dcd3 0x34e50515 0x34e51351 0x34e51681 0x34e513f5 0x34e511e3 0x303af57c 0x34e51163 0x303b06e8 0x303ac8e0 0x303ac6d8 0x303ac8c8 0x303aca80 0x30350d55 0x3034a12c) 2010-05-11 10:17:18.091 myApp[3875:1807] sqlite error 8 [attempt to write a readonly database] 2010-05-11 10:17:18.095 myApp[3875:1807] Backtrace for sqlite error: (0x34e3a909 0x34e3b085 0x34e3b22b 0x34e2f48b 0x34e2dccb 0x34e2d2f7 0x34e2d3bb 0x34e4dcd3 0x34e50515 0x34e51351 0x34e51681 0x34e513f5 0x34e511e3 0x303af57c 0x34e51163 0x303b06e8 0x303ac8e0 0x303ac6d8 0x303ac8c8 0x303aca80 0x30350d55 0x3034a12c) 2010-05-11 10:17:18.111 myApp[3875:1807] sqlite error 1 [SQL logic error or missing database] 2010-05-11 10:17:18.115 myApp[3875:1807] Backtrace for sqlite error: (0x34e3a909 0x34e3d87f 0x34e3b029 0x34e3b4dd 0x34e2f48b 0x34e2dccb 0x34e2d2f7 0x34e2d3bb 0x34e4dcd3 0x34e50515 0x34e51351 0x34e51681 0x34e513f5 0x34e511e3 0x303af57c 0x34e51163 0x303b06e8 0x303ac8e0 0x303ac6d8 0x303ac8c8 0x303aca80 0x30350d55 0x3034a12c) 2010-05-11 10:17:18.120 myApp[3875:1807] sqlite error 1 [SQL logic error or missing database] 2010-05-11 10:17:18.124 myApp[3875:1807] Backtrace for sqlite error: (0x34e3a909 0x34e3b053 0x34e3b4dd 0x34e2f48b 0x34e2dccb 0x34e2d2f7 0x34e2d3bb 0x34e4dcd3 0x34e50515 0x34e51351 0x34e51681 0x34e513f5 0x34e511e3 0x303af57c 0x34e51163 0x303b06e8 0x303ac8e0 0x303ac6d8 0x303ac8c8 0x303aca80 0x30350d55 0x3034a12c) 2010-05-11 10:17:18.129 myApp[3875:1807] sqlite error 1 [cannot commit - no transaction is active] 2010-05-11 10:17:18.133 myApp[3875:1807] Backtrace for sqlite error: (0x34e3a909 0x34e3b085 0x34e3b4dd 0x34e2f48b 0x34e2dccb 0x34e2d2f7 0x34e2d3bb 0x34e4dcd3 0x34e50515 0x34e51351 0x34e51681 0x34e513f5 0x34e511e3 0x303af57c 0x34e51163 0x303b06e8 0x303ac8e0 0x303ac6d8 0x303ac8c8 0x303aca80 0x30350d55 I don't know where the problem come from. Can you help me?

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  • How to get around LazyInitializationException in scheduled jobs?

    - by Shreerang
    I am working on a J2EE server application which is deployed on Tomcat. I use Spring source as MVC framework and Hibernate as ORM provider. My object model has lot of Lazy relationships (dependent objects are fetched on request). The high level design is like Service level methods call a few DAO methods to perform database operation. The service method is called either from the Flex UI or as a scheduled job. When it is called from Flex UI, the service method works fine i.e. it fetches some objects using DAO methods and even Lazy loading works. This is possible by the use of OpenSessionInViewFilter configured with the UI servlet. But when the same service method is called as scheduled Job, it gives LazyInitializationException. I can not configure OpenSessionInViewFilter because there is no servlet or UI request associated with that. I tried configuring Transaction around the scheduled job method so that service method starts a transaction and all the DAO methods participate in that same transaction, hoping that the transaction will remain active and hibernate session will be available. But it does not work. Please suggest if anyone has ever been able to get such a configuration working. If needed, I can post the Hibernate configuration and log messages. Thanks a lot for help! Shreerang

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  • VisualSVN How to roll back the revision number ?

    - by Ita
    The company I work in has suffered a major server failure. During this failure the SVN Repository was lost. But there is still hope ! We have an old backup of the repository which I've managed to successfully restore using VisualSVN. The problem I'm facing now is that I can't update / commit pre-failure checkedout folders. The reason for this problem is that for instance: a local folder has a revision number of 2361, while the repository itself holds a revision number of 2290, which is older. Is there a way to deal with this issue ? Can I some how change the revision numbers on either the local copy or the server copy? A few points: I'm using TortoiseSVN 1.6.6. I can checkout folders from the repo and the connection is active. I've picked one of my folders and used the Relocate option on it. This helped me see that there is something wrong with the revision number I've experimented a bit with the merge option but this lead me now where special. (I'm open for suggestions ) Thank you for your time, Ita

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  • What Test Environment Setup do Top Project Committers Use in the Ruby Community?

    - by viatropos
    Today I am going to get as far as I can setting up my testing environment and workflow. I'm looking for practical advice on how to setup the test environment from you guys who are very passionate and versed in Ruby Testing. By the end of the day (6am PST?) I would like to be able to: Type one 1-command to run test suites for ANY project I find on Github. Run autotest for ANY Github project so I can fork and make TESTABLE contributions. Build gems from the ground up with Autotest and Shoulda. For one reason or another, I hardly ever run tests for projects I clone from Github. The major reason is because unless they're using RSpec and have a Rake task to run the tests, I don't see the common pattern behind it all. I have built 3 or 4 gems writing tests with RSpec, and while I find the DSL fun, it's less than ideal because it just adds another layer/language of methods I have to learn and remember. So I'm going with Shoulda. But this isn't a question about which testing framework to choose. So the questions are: What is your, the SO reader and Github project committer, test environment setup using autotest so that whenever you git clone a gem, you can run the tests and autotest-develop them if desired? What are the guys who are writing the Paperclip Tests and Authlogic Tests doing? What is their setup? Thanks for the insight. Looking for answers that will make me a more effective tester.

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  • When is a try catch not a try catch?

    - by Dearmash
    I have a fun issue where during application shutdown, try / catch blocks are being seemingly ignored in the stack. I don't have a working test project (yet due to deadline, otherwise I'd totally try to repro this), but consider the following code snippet. public static string RunAndPossiblyThrow(int index, bool doThrow) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { if(doThrow) throw; } return ""; } public static string Run(int index) { if(_store.Contains(index)) return _store[index]; throw new ApplicationException("index not found"); } public static string RunAndIgnoreThrow(int index) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { } return ""; } During runtime this pattern works famously. We get legacy support for code that relies on exceptions for program control (bad) and we get to move forward and slowly remove exceptions used for program control. However, when shutting down our UI, we see an exception thrown from "Run" even though "doThrow" is false for ALL current uses of "RunAndPossiblyThrow". I've even gone so far as to verify this by modifying code to look like "RunAndIgnoreThrow" and I'll still get a crash post UI shutdown. Mr. Eric Lippert, I read your blog daily, I'd sure love to hear it's some known bug and I'm not going crazy. EDIT This is multi-threaded, and I've verified all objects are not modified while being accessed

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  • Starting an STA thread, but with parameters to the final function

    - by DRapp
    I'm a bit weak on how some delegates behave, such as passing a method as the parameter to be invoked. While trying to do some NUnit test scripts, I have something that I need to run many test with. Each of these tests requires a GUI created and thus the need for an STA thread. So, I have something like public class MyTest { // the Delegate "ThreadStart" is part of the System.Threading namespace and is defined as // public delegate void ThreadStart(); protected void Start_STA_Thread(ThreadStart whichMethod) { Thread thread = new Thread(whichMethod); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); //Set the thread to STA thread.Start(); thread.Join(); } [Test] public void Test101() { // Since the thread issues an INVOKE of a method, I'm having it call the // corresponding "FromSTAThread" method, such as Start_STA_Thread( Test101FromSTAThread ); } protected void Test101FromSTAThread() { MySTA_RequiredClass oTmp = new MySTA_RequiredClass(); Assert.IsTrue( oTmp.DoSomething() ); } } This part all works fine... Now the next step. I now have a different set of tests that ALSO require an STA thread. However, each "thing" I need to do requires two parameters... both strings (for this case). How do I go about declaring proper delegate so I can pass in the method I need to invoke, AND the two string parameters in one shot... I may have 20+ tests to run with in this pattern and may have future of other similar tests with different parameter counts and types of parameters too. Thanks.

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  • Ability to switch Persistence Unit dynamically within the application (JPA)

    - by MVK
    My application data access layer is built using Spring and EclipseLink and I am currently trying to implement the following feature - Ability to switch the current/active persistence unit dynamically for a user. I tried various options and finally ended up doing the following. In the persistence.xml, declare multiple PUs. Create a class with as many EntityManagerFactory attributes as there are PUs defined. This will act as a factory and return the appropriate EntityManager based on my logic public class MyEntityManagerFactory { @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_1") private EntityManagerFactory emf1; @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_2") private EntityManagerFactory emf2; public EntityManager getEntityManager(int releaseId) { // Logic goes here to return the appropriate entityManeger } } My spring-beans xml looks like this.. <!-- First persistence unit --> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean" id="emFactory1"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="PU_1" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" id="transactionManager1"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="emFactory1"/> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager1"/> The above section is repeated for the second PU (with names like emFactory2, transactionManager2 etc). I am a JPA newbie and I know that this is not the best solution. I appreciate any assistance in implementing this requirement in a better/elegant way! Thanks!

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  • Help regarding database and logic layer for my ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Ismail S
    I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right?

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