Search Results

Search found 13573 results on 543 pages for 'the great widi'.

Page 433/543 | < Previous Page | 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440  | Next Page >

  • ASP.NET "Object reference not set..." error

    - by Roman
    Hi, I have a website written using ASP.NET. We have a development machine and a deployment server. The site works great on the development machine, but when is transfered (using simple FTP Upload) generates strange behavior. It starts working just fine, but after a while stops working and throws an exception "Exception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.". The deal is that the absolute path of the website on the development machine is different than on the deployment server (and why should they be similar?) and the exact error is: Exception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at SOMEPROJECT_Objects.Player..ctor(Int32 PlayerID) in C:\inetpub\wwwroot\SOMEPROJECTSolution\ALLPROJECT\SOMEPROJECT_Objects\Player.cs:line 123 at SOMEPROJECT_GameLayer.M_Game.PlayerActiveGame(Int32 PlayerID) in C:\inetpub\wwwroot\SOMEPROJECTSolution\ALLPROJECT\SOMEPROJECT_GameLayer\M_Game.cs:line 85 at Web.getsms.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\inetpub\wwwroot\SOMEPROJECTSolution\ALLPROJECT\SOMEPROJECT-sms\Web\getsms.aspx.cs:line 59 The address that it is looking for is the address on the DEVELOPMENT machine, where as the site now resides on the deployment server. Any ideas why this happens would be appreciated. Thanks, Roman

    Read the article

  • Will Apple bundle the Mono Touch runtime with every iPhone?

    - by Zoran Simic
    It strikes me as a good idea for Apple to negotiate with Novell and bundle the Mono Touch runtime (only the runtime of course) into every iPhone and iPod Touch. Perhaps even make it a "one time install" that automatically gets downloaded from the App Store the first time one downloads an app build with Mono Touch, making every subsequent Mono Touch app much lighter to download (without the runtime). Doing so would be similar in a way to adding Bootcamp to OS X: it would make it easier for C# developers to join the party, but that wouldn't mean these developers will all stick to C#... What convinced me to buy a Mac is Bootcamp - I figured I could always install Windows if I didn't like OS X (and I liked the hardware, so no problem there). 6 months later, I'm using OS X full time... Would there be any technical issues in doing so? I see only advantages for all parties, not one disadvantage to anyone (except maybe for the few unfortunate Apple employees who would have to test the crap out of the Mono Touch runtime before bundling it): Novell wins because Mono Touch becomes much more viable (Mono Touch apps become much lighter all of the sudden) Developers win because now there's one more tool in the tool belt Many C# Developers would be very interested by this Apple wins because that would bring even more attention to the platform, more revenue in developer fees, more potential great apps, etc Users win because less space is used by different Apps having copies of the same runtime accumulating on their devices Would there be a major technical obstacle in bundling Mono Touch to iPhone OS? Edit: Changed the title from "Should" to "Will Apple bundle the runtime?", I think the consensus on predicting that means a lot to those considering going with Mono Touch.

    Read the article

  • Running an executable on network share with CustomAction with wix?

    - by martin
    Hello, i have created a msi-package which compresses some xml-files to a zip-file during installation. I have created a CustomAction for this purposes: <CustomAction Id="CompressMy" BinaryKey="zipEXE" ExeCommand="a -tzip &quot;[TEMPLATE_DIR]my.zip&quot; &quot;[TempSourceFolder]data.xml&quot;" Return="check" HideTarget="no" Impersonate="no" Execute="deferred" /> The installation works fine, if i try to install to a local drive, but recently a customer wanted to install [TEMPLATE_DIR] to a network drive on Windows Vista. The CustomAction fails, because of the elevated install-user hasn't mapped the network drive, even if the installer-calling user has mapped the drive. This happens also, if I try to install to an unc-path. I use 7zip for compressing. I have added it to my msi-package. I have tried to set Impersonate="yes", but then the Installations fails, if my TEMPLATE_DIR is f.e. the ProgramData-dir. Do you have any idea what i can do? I thinked about checking if TEMPLATE_DIR is a network path, but I didn't know how i can check this. Or do you have any other Ideas how I can provide a local and a network installation while using this custom action. Would be great if there are any advices, greetings, Martin

    Read the article

  • Using nohup mysqldump from php script is inserting a '!' and breaking to a new line.

    - by Aglystas
    I'm trying to run a mysqldump from php using the nohup command to prevent the script from hanging. Here's the command (The database is mc6_erik_test, everything else is just a table list until you get to the end) exec("mysqldump -u root -pPassword -h vfmy1-dev.mountainmedia.com mc6_erik_test access_log admin affiliate affiliate_2_product authorized_ip category category_2_product claim_code claim_code_log country_exclude customer customer_2_subscription customer_account_log customer_address customer_bill customer_discount customer_ip customer_key email_bulk_log email_draft email_queue email_queue_log email_template endicia_log gift_wrap image_bulk_upload log mailing_list manufacturer merchant merchant_checkout merchant_ip merchant_ship merchant_ship_conf new_account_temp order_dest order_item order_item_2_dest order_item_2_package order_item_log order_item_registrant order_note order_package order_package_label orders package package_2_product pref product product_2_supplier product_also product_event_date product_image product_option product_related product_review product_review_helpful product_ship_disable report search_log subscription supplier temp_product transaction_account transactions wish_list wish_list_fill wish_list_item --opt --where='merchant_id=\'6\'' /tmp/sync_db_card_20100519105358.sql"); As you can see it's really long, because I have to specifically include only the tables I want to dump. The command works great from the command line, however when I run it through a web script towards the end the following is being used as the command... supplier temp_product transaction_account transactio! ns wish_list wish_list_fill wish_list_item --opt --where='merchant_id="6"' > /tmp/sync_db_card_20100519105358.sql So the table 'transactions' is being split by an exclamation point and newline. The rest of the command is exactly the same. And if I run this through the php-cli interface it doesn't happen only when I try running it via the webserver using nohup. I'm wondering if there is some inherit string length to using the exec command within a php script, or really if anyone has any general idea what is going on here.

    Read the article

  • PHP: MVC and Model

    - by Pirkka
    Hello I`ve been wondering this one thing about creating models. If I make for example Page model. Is it the both: It can retrieve one row from the table or all the rows. Somehow Im mixing the objects and the database. I have thought it like this: I would have to make a Page-class that would represent one row in the table. It also would have all the basic CRUD-methods. Then I would have to do a Pages-class (somekind of collection) that would retrieve rows from the table and instantiate a Page object from each row. Is this kind of weird? If someone could explain to me the idea of model throughout.. Im again confused. Maybe Im thinking the whole OOP too difficult.. And by the way this forum is great. Hopefully people will just understand my problems. Heh. I was a long time procedural style programmer and now in 3 months I have dived into OOP and MVC and PHP frameworks and I just get more excited day by day when I explore this stuff!

    Read the article

  • jscript1.js error in webforms when applying routing

    - by Sean N
    Hello I have a project using webforms. I applied routing on one of the page. My route is structure like this : http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/ = http://localhost:3576/Request/{role}/{action}/{id} Everything works great but i have a javascript error: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.30; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.648; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; InfoPath.2; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Timestamp: Fri, 7 May 2010 13:35:54 UTC Message: Syntax error Line: 3 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/JScript1.js I think it's trying to route to the file where i stored my javascript functions. Any suggestion?

    Read the article

  • Why does XPath.selectNodes(context) always use the whole document in JDOM

    - by Simeon
    Hi, I'm trying to run the same query on several different contexts, but I always get the same result. This is an example xml: <root> <p> <r> <t>text</t> </r> </p> <t>text2</t> </root> So this is what I'm doing: final XPath xpath = XPath.newInstance("//t"); List<Element> result = xpath.selectNodes(thisIsThePelement); // and I've debuged it, it really is the <p> element And I always get both <t> elements in the result list. I need just the <t> inside the <p> I'm passing to the XPath object. Any ideas would be of great help, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Zend_Date and Zend Locale; can't get it to work ><

    - by Rick de Graaf
    Loving Zend Framework, hating Zend_Date... I'm buidling an app where one of the functions is to track the time one spends on a certain task. This works great. My previous question was my incapability to get the sum of all the timestamps (time spent on each task). Well that works as a charm, but when I echo this value, it adds one hour. Using gmdate() (just for checking) and the value turns out exactly as it's supposed to. I thought to solve this problem easeliy with Zend_Local, but I can't get the damn thing to work! This is my bootstrap code: protected function _initLocale() { $locale = new Zend_Locale('nl_NL'); $locale->setLocale($locale); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Locale', $locale); } This is the code in my view file: $date = new Zend_Date($this->timequery, null, $locale); echo $date->toString(Zend_Date::HOUR.':'.Zend_Date::MINUTE.':'.Zend_Date::SECOND); The timestamp I'm processing is: 2632 which equals 00:43:52. The output I get is: 01:43:52 I know the extra hour comes from the time difference, but I can seem to solve this with Zend_Local and Zend_Date.

    Read the article

  • Browser relative positioning with jQuery and CutyCapt

    - by Acoustic
    I've been using CutyCapt to take screen shots of several web pages with great success. My challenge now is to paint a few dots on those screen shots that represent where a user clicked. CutyCapt goes through a process of resizing the web page to the scroll width before taking a screen shot. That's extremely useful because you only get content and not much (if any) of the page's background. My challenge is trying to map a user's mouse X coordinates to the screen shot. Obviously users have different screen resolutions and have their browser window open to different sizes. The image below shows 3 examples with the same logo. Assume, for example, that the logo is 10 pixels to the left edge of the content area (in red). In each of these cases, and for any resolution, I need a JavaScript routine that will calculate that the logo's X coordinate is 10. Again, the challenge (I think) is differing resolutions. In the center-aligned examples, the logo's position, as measured from the left edge of the browser (in black), differs with changing browser size. The left-aligned example should be simple as the logo never moves as the screen resizes. Can anyone think of a way to calculate the scrollable width of a page? In other words, I'm looking for a JavaScript solution to calculate the minimum width of the browser window before a horizontal scroll bar shows up. Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • How do I merge multiple PDB files ?

    - by blue.tuxedo
    We are currently using a single command line tool to build our product on both Windows and Linux. Si far its works nicely, allowing us to build out of source and with finer dependencies than what any of our previous build system allowed. This buys us great incremental and parallel build capabilities. To describe shortly the build process, we get the usual: .cpp -- cl.exe --> .obj and .pdb multiple .obj and .pdb -- cl.exe --> single .dll .lib .pdb multiple .obj and .pdb -- cl.exe --> single .exe .pdb The msvc C/C++ compiler supports it adequately. Recently the need to build a few static libraries emerged. From what we gathered, the process to build a static library is: multiple .cpp -- cl.exe --> multiple .obj and a single .pdb multiple .obj -- lib.exe --> a single .lib The single .pdb means that cl.exe should only be executed once for all the .cpp sources. This single execution means that we can't parallelize the build for this static library. This is really unfortunate. We investigated a bit further and according to the documentation (and the available command line options): cl.exe does not know how to build static libraries lib.exe does not know how to build .pdb files Does anybody know a way to merge multiple PDB files ? Are we doomed to have slow builds for static libraries ? How do tools like Incredibuild work around this issue ?

    Read the article

  • PHP: Profiling code and strict environment ~ Improving my coding

    - by DavidYell
    I would like to update my local working environment to be stricter in an effort to improve my code. I know that my code is okay, but as with most things there is always room for improvement. I use XAMPP on my local machine, for simplicities sake Apache Friends XAMPP (Basic Package) version 1.7.2 So I've updated my php.ini : error_reporting to be E_ALL | E_STRICT to help with the code standard. I've also enabled the XDebug extension zend_extension = "C:\xampp\php\ext\php_xdebug.dll" which seems to be working, having tested some broken code and got the nice standard orange error notice. However, having read this question, http://stackoverflow.com/questions/133686/what-is-the-best-way-to-profile-php-code and enabled the profiler, I cannot seem to create a cachegrind file. Many of the guides that I've looked at seem to think you need to install XDebug in XAMPP which leads me to think they are out of date, as XDebug is bundled with XAMPP these days. So I would appreciate it if anyone can help point me in the right direction with both configuring XDebug to output grind files, and or just a great set of default settings for the XDebug config in XAMPP. Seems there is very little documentation to go on. If people have tips on integrating these tools with Netbeans, that would be awesomesauce. I'm happy to get suggestions on other things that I can do to help tighten up my php code, both syntactically and performance wise Thanks, and apologies for the rambling question(s)! Ninja edit I should menion that I'm using named vhosts as my Apache configuration, which I think is why running XDebug on port 9000 isn't working for me. I guess I'd need to edit my vhost to include port 9000

    Read the article

  • How does the socket API accept() function work?

    - by Eli Bendersky
    The socket API is the de-facto standard for TCP/IP and UDP/IP communications (that is, networking code as we know it). However, one of its core functions, accept() is a bit magical. To borrow a semi-formal definition: accept() is used on the server side. It accepts a received incoming attempt to create a new TCP connection from the remote client, and creates a new socket associated with the socket address pair of this connection. In other words, accept returns a new socket through which the server can communicate with the newly connected client. The old socket (on which accept was called) stays open, on the same port, listening for new connections. How does accept work? How is it implemented? There's a lot of confusion on this topic. Many people claim accept opens a new port and you communicate with the client through it. But this obviously isn't true, as no new port is opened. You actually can communicate through the same port with different clients, but how? When several threads call recv on the same port, how does the data know where to go? I guess it's something along the lines of the client's address being associated with a socket descriptor, and whenever data comes through recv it's routed to the correct socket, but I'm not sure. It'd be great to get a thorough explanation of the inner-workings of this mechanism.

    Read the article

  • How do tools like Hiphop for PHP deal with heterogenous arrays?

    - by Derek Thurn
    I think HipHop for PHP is an interesting tool. It essentially converts PHP code into C++ code. Cross compiling in this manner seems like a great idea, but I have to wonder, how do they overcome the fundamental differences between the two type systems? One specific example of my general question is heterogeneous data structures. Statically typed languages don't tend to let you put arbitrary types into an array or other container because they need to be able to figure out the types on the other end. If I have a PHP array like this: $mixedBag = array("cat", 42, 8.5, false); How can this be represented in C++ code? One option would be to use void pointers (or the superior version, boost::any), but then you need to cast when you take stuff back out of the array... and I'm not at all convinced that the type inferencer can always figure out what to cast to at the other end. A better option, perhaps, would be something more like a union (or boost::variant), but then you need to enumerate all possible types at compile time... maybe possible, but certainly messy since arrays can contain arbitrarily complex entities. Does anyone know how HipHop and similar tools which go from a dynamic typing discipline to a static discipline handle these types of problems?

    Read the article

  • Why am I getting "(304) Not Modified" error on some links when using HttpWebRequest?

    - by Greg
    Hi, Any ideas why on some links that I try to access using HttpWebRequest I am getting "The remote server returned an error: (304) Not Modified." in the code? The code I'm using is from Jeff's post here. Note the concept of the code is a simple proxy server, so I'm pointing my browser at this locally running piece of code, which gets my browsers request, and then proxies it on by creating a new HttpWebRequest, as you'll see in the code. It works great for most sites/links, but for some this error comes up. You will see one key bit in the code is where it seems to copy the http header settings from the browser request to it's request out to the site, and it copies in the header attributes. Not sure if the issue is something to do with how it mimics this aspect of the request and then what happens as the result comes back? case "If-Modified-Since": request.IfModifiedSince = DateTime.Parse(listenerContext.Request.Headers[key]); break; I get the issue for example from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Main_Page thanks

    Read the article

  • Giving another object a NSManagedObject

    - by Wayfarer
    Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

    Read the article

  • Search and highlight html - ignoring and maintaining tags

    - by Sleepwalker
    I am looking for a good way to highlight key words in a block of html with stripping the html tags. I can regex to search for key words within html tags, but I haven't found a great way to search across tags. For example, if the key word phrase is "not bound" I want to be able to make this <p>I am not<strong>bound to please thee</strong> with my answers.</p> become wrapped in highlight tags, without breaking the "strong" tag (and making the html invalid) and become: <p>I am <span class="highlight">not</span><strong><span class="highlight">bound</span> to please thee</strong> with my answers.</p> The main issue is maintaining the html as it is AND wrapping blocks of text with highlight tags. I need to maintain the original html. Otherwise I would strip the tags. The best solution to this that I can think of right now would entail making a copy of the html and placing counter tokens where each space occurs, then stripping all tags and search for matching phrases, then looking back to the original and the tokenized strings and figuring out where to start building the highlight tags, then start walking forward, starting and ending highlight spans as needed from the beginning of the match until the end. This seems like overkill. I would like to something more elegant if possible. The solution would be written in C# or perhaps javascript, depending.

    Read the article

  • jQuery "growl-like" effect in VB.net

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i have made a simple form that mimiks the jQuery "GROWL" effect seen here http://www.sandbox.timbenniks.com/projects/jquery-notice/ However, i have ran into a problem. If i have more than one call to the form to display a "Growl" then it just refreshes the same form with whatever call i send it. In other words, i can only display one form at a time instead of having one drop down and a new one appear above it. Here is my simple form code for the "GROWL" form: Public Class msgWindow Public howLong As Integer Public theType As String Private loading As Boolean Protected Overrides Sub OnPaint(ByVal pe As System.Windows.Forms.PaintEventArgs) Dim pn As New Pen(Color.DarkGreen) If theType = "OK" Then pn.Color = Color.DarkGreen ElseIf theType = "ERR" Then pn.Color = Color.DarkRed Else pn.Color = Color.DarkOrange End If pn.Width = 2 pe.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pn, 0, 0, Me.Width, Me.Height) pn = Nothing End Sub Public Sub showMessageBox(ByVal typeOfBox As String, ByVal theMessage As String) Me.Opacity = 0 Me.Show() Me.SetDesktopLocation(My.Computer.Screen.WorkingArea.Width - 350, 15) Me.loading = True theType = typeOfBox lblSaying.Text = theMessage If typeOfBox = "OK" Then Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(192, 255, 192) ElseIf typeOfBox = "ERR" Then Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(255, 192, 192) Else Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(255, 255, 192) End If If Len(theMessage) <= 30 Then howLong = 4000 ElseIf Len(theMessage) >= 31 And Len(theMessage) <= 80 Then howLong = 7000 ElseIf Len(theMessage) >= 81 And Len(theMessage) <= 100 Then howLong = 12000 Else howLong = 17000 End If Me.opacityTimer.Start() End Sub Private Sub opacityTimer_Tick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles opacityTimer.Tick If Me.loading Then Me.Opacity += 0.07 If Me.Opacity >= 0.8 Then Me.opacityTimer.Stop() Me.opacityTimer.Dispose() Pause(howLong) Me.loading = False Me.opacityTimer.Start() End If Else Me.Opacity -= 0.08 If Me.Opacity <= 0 Then Me.opacityTimer.Stop() Me.Close() End If End If End Sub Public Sub Pause(ByVal Milliseconds As Integer) Dim dTimer As Date dTimer = Now.AddMilliseconds(Milliseconds) Do While dTimer > Now Application.DoEvents() Loop End Sub End Class I call the form by this simple call: Call msgWindow.showMessageBox("OK", "Finished searching images.") Does anyone know a way where i can have the same setup but would allow me to add any number of forms without refreshing the same form over and over again? Like always, any help would be great! :) David

    Read the article

  • How do the size standard libraries compare for different languages

    - by Roman A. Taycher
    Someone was recently raving about how great jQuery was and how it made javascript into a pleasure and also how the whole source code was so small(and one file). I looked it up on www.ohloh.net/ and it said it was about 30,000 lines of javascript, when I tired curl piped to wc it said about 5000 lines(strange discrepancy that, maybe test suites, ect?). I thought well it isn't that strange since javascript from what I've heard has a lot of fun dynamic tricks, so you can probably get away with a small library. But then I thought what about other high level languages, the ones with large standard libraries and wondered how big the standard are for python/ruby/haskell/pharo(smalltalk)/*ml/ect. (libraries not vm stuff to the degree its possible to separate it) Anybody know? Any details (comment/blank/code lines , test code lines, lines in language vs lines in ffi/byte-code) are appreciated! edit: ps. since it started this me asking about jQuery as a bonus if you could please list the size of mega frameworks, a megaframewok provides so much that people using an x megaframework in language y might sometimes refer to programming in xy or even x rather then in y (ie. : qt, jQuery, etc.).

    Read the article

  • ClassCleanup in MSTest is static, but the build server uses nunit to run the unit tests. How can i a

    - by Kettenbach
    Hi All, MSTest has a [ClassCleanup()] attribute, which needs to be static as far as I can tell. I like to run through after my unit tests have run,and clean up my database. This all works great, however when I go to our build server and use our Nant build script, it seems like the unit tests are run with NUnit. NUnit doesn't seem to like the cleanup method to be static. It therefore ignores my tests in that class. What can I do to remedy this? I prefer to not use [TestCleanUp()] as that is run after each test. Does anyone have any suggestions? I know [TestCleanup()] aids in decoupling, but I really prefer the [ClassCleanup()] in this situation. Here is some example code. ////Use ClassCleanup to run code after all tests have run [ClassCleanup()] public static void MyFacadeTestCleanup() { UpdateCleanup(); } private static void UpdateCleanup() { DbCommand dbCommand; Database db; try { db = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(TestConstants.DB_NAME); int rowsAffected; dbCommand = db.GetSqlStringCommand("DELETE FROM tblA WHERE biID=@biID"); db.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "biID", DbType.Int64, biToDelete); rowsAffected = db.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); Debug.WriteLineIf(rowsAffected == TestConstants.ONE_ROW, string.Format("biId '{0}' was successfully deleted.", biToDelete)); } catch (SqlException ex) { } finally { dbCommand = null; db = null; biDelete = 0; } } Thanks for any pointers and yes i realize I'm not catching anything. I need to get passed this hurdle first. Cheers, ~ck in San Diego

    Read the article

  • Custom Wordpress Post Page Breaks if More Thank 2 Posts?

    - by thatryan
    I have a very custom template, and it works great if there are 1 or 2 posts on the blog page. But as soon as a 3rd post is added, it alters the structure of the template... Literally moves a div inside of another and I can not understand why. The code for the blog template is here, and a screenshot of the structure as it should be and another showing the misplaced div when a third post is there. Does this make any sense, any ideas? Thank you much! <div class="post" id="post-<?php the_ID(); ?>"><!--start post--> <h2><?php the_title(); ?></h2> <div id="main_full" class=" clearfix"><!--start main--> <div id="top_bar"><h3 class="gallery-title">news</h3></div> <div id="blog_page"><!--start blog page--> <div class="entry"><!--start entry--> <?php the_content(); ?> </div><!--end entry--> </div><!--end blog page--> </div><!--end main--> <?php endwhile; endif; ?> </div><!--end post--> <?php edit_post_link('Edit this entry.', '<p>', '</p>'); ?> <?php comments_template(); ?> Good One Bad One

    Read the article

  • Php index page utitlizing an idea for a superswitch...

    - by Matt
    I dont know if this is a great idea...or a crap one. But I was thinking I may use one page to display all my pages using includes. Here is what my index.php would look like...on the functions include there is a function called "superSwitch" which will determine what requested page will be included....for instance if I do a get ?a=a it will goto the function superSwitch(a) superSwitch will take it and associate it with (login.php) then respond with such... here is the code for the index.php...please let me know if this makes sense and might work, or should I just stick to long blocks of code (which is why I am trying this because I hate long pages full of code...) of course as you can tell it is not actually including anything yet...the print is for debugging purposes. :) Thanks, Matt <?php //includes Functions include_once('inc/func.inc.php'); //set superget variable $superget = @$_GET['a']; //check if superget is set or null if (!$superget) { echo "Nothing Requested :)"; } else { //sanitizes the superget request $supergetr = supergetSanitize($superget) //uses the result "good" or "nogood" to determine what happens if ( $supergetr == "good" ) { //pulls superSwitch value of the request $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } //if the sanitize is nogood else { //the superSwitch is instructed to respond with a 404 page $superget = "404" $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } } ?>

    Read the article

  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

    Read the article

  • Highlight image borders with Ajax request.

    - by Tek
    First, some visualization of the code. I have the following images that are dynamically generated from jquery. They're made upon user request: <img id="i13133" src="someimage.jpg" /> <img id="i13232" src="someimage1.jpg" /> <img id="i14432" src="someimage2.jpg" /> <img id="i16432" src="someimage3.jpg" /> <img id="i18422" src="someimage4.jpg" /> I have an AJAX loop that repeats every 15 seconds using jQuery and it contains the following code: Note: The if statement is inside the Ajax loop. Where imgId is the requested ID from the Ajax call. //Passes the IDs retrieved from Ajax, if the IDs exist on the page the animation is triggered. if ( $('#i' + imgId ).length ) { var pickimage = '#i' + imgId; var stop = false; function highlight(pickimage) { $(pickimage).animate({color: "yellow"}, 1000, function () { $(pickimage ).animate({color: "black"}, 1000, function () { if (!stop) highlight(pickimage); }); }); } // Start the loop highlight(pickimage); } It works great, even with multiple images. But I had originally used this with one image. The problem is I need an interrupt. Something like: $(img).click(function () { stop = true; }); There's two problems: 1.)This obviously stops all animations. I can't wrap my head around how I could write something that only stops the animation of the image that's clicked. 2.)The Ajax retrieves IDs, sometimes those IDs appear more than once every few minutes, which means it would repeat the animations on top of each other if the image exists. I could use some help figuring out how to detect if an animation is already running on an image, and do nothing if the animation is already triggered on an image.

    Read the article

  • Devise routes to only use custom sign in page

    - by eblume
    I am trying to learn Devise and seem to have hit a problem that is nearly the same as many, many questions here on SO but just slightly different enough that I am not getting much traction following those questions' threads. I have a very simple application. Users can sign in and sign out (and also the devise 'forgot password' stuff is enabled - I am not concerned about it at this time) and that is it. They can't register, they can't edit their profile other than to change their password, they can't do anything except sign in and sign out. (Account creation will, for now, be handled manually at the command line.) I would vastly prefer that the only page that users can log in from was "/" (root_path). I already have it working where you can log in from "/", and that is great. The problem I am having is that if you type in your user/password combination incorrectly from the root_path login page, it automatically sends you to the Devise sign-in page to continue trying to sign in. How can I make Devise redirect to root_path on sign-in failure? Here are my routes - they are probably not optimal or correctly configured and I would appreciate pointers on fixing them: root to: "core_pages#splash" devise_for :users, skip: [:sessions] as :user do # get 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#new', as: :new_user_session post 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#create', as: :user_session delete 'signout' => 'devise/sessions#destroy', as: :destroy_user_session, via: Devise.mappings[:user].sign_out_via end match '/home' => 'core_pages#home' Note the commented-out 'get signin' line. The system works without this line but, surprisingly (to me), "GET /signin" results in a HTTP 400 (OK) response and renders the Devise login template. I would prefer it return some sort of 'invalid request' or just silently redirect the user to root_path. Running rake routes on these routes gives: root / core_pages#splash user_password POST /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#create new_user_password GET /users/password/new(.:format) devise/passwords#new edit_user_password GET /users/password/edit(.:format) devise/passwords#edit PUT /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#update user_session POST /signin(.:format) devise/sessions#create destroy_user_session DELETE /signout(.:format) devise/sessions#destroy home /home(.:format) core_pages#home Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Java: Initializing a public static field in superclass that needs a different value in every subclas

    - by BinaryMuse
    Good evening, I am developing a set of Java classes so that a container class Box contains a List of a contained class Widget. A Widget needs to be able to specify relationships with other Widgets. I figured a good way to do this would be to do something like this: public abstract class Widget { public static class WidgetID { // implementation stolen from Google's GWT private static int nextHashCode; private final int index; public WidgetID() { index = ++nextHashCode; } public final int hashCode() { return index; } } public abstract WidgetID getWidgetID(); } so sublcasses of Widget could: public class BlueWidget extends Widget { public static final WidgetID WIDGETID = new WidgetID(); @Override public WidgetID getWidgetID() { return WIDGETID; } } Now, BlueWidget can do getBox().addWidgetRelationship(RelationshipTypes.SomeType, RedWidget.WIDGETID, and Box can iterate through it's list comparing the second parameter to iter.next().getWidgetID(). Now, all this works great so far. What I'm trying to do is keep from having to declare the public static final WidgetID WIDGETID in all the subclasses and implement it instead in the parent Widget class. The problem is, if I move that line of code into Widget, then every instance of a subclass of Widget appears to get the same static final WidgetID for their Subclassname.WIDGETID. However, making it non-static means I can no longer even call Subclassname.WIDGETID. So: how do I create a static WidgetID in the parent Widget class while ensuring it is different for every instance of Widget and subclasses of Widget? Or am I using the wrong tool for the job here? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440  | Next Page >