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• System.IO.FileLoadException

  - by Raj G

  Hi All, I have got this error when using Enterprise Library 3.1 May 2007 version. We are developing a product and have a common lib directory beneath the Subversion Trunk directory <\Trunk\Lib\ into which we put all the third party DLLs. Inside this we have Microsoft\EnterpriseLibrary\v3.1 in which we have copied all the dlls from \Program Files\Microsoft Enterprise Library May2007\bin. Everything was working properly until one of the developers installed the source code on this machine. There were some dlls copied at the end of the source code installation and once that was done, he is not able to run the project anymore. He always gets this error 'Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, Version=3.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131040)' What is the problem here? I thought that when the source code was installed it was just supposed to build everything and copy in the bin directory within the source code parent directory. Also we have copied the Dlls from Microsoft Enterprise Library May 2007\bin directory into our product development directory and references into our project with a copylocal flag set to true. Can anyone help me out here RK

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• Twitpic API from iPhone - pic posted but no URL returned?

  - by Jamie Badman

  This is a weird one... With the help of people here, I've got my iPhone app posting to TwitPic successfully - and when I first got it working, I could see an XML result being returned too... But for some reason over the past two days, the API call seems to succeed - the pic appears on TwitPic - but... the response seems to be empty... Anyone have any ideas? Seen anything similar? The code I use to invoke the API call is: ASIFormDataRequest *request = [[[ASIFormDataRequest alloc] initWithURL:url] autorelease]; [request setData:twitpicImage forKey:@"media"]; [request setPostValue:username forKey:@"username"]; [request setPostValue:password forKey:@"password"]; // Initiate the WebService request [request start]; // Need to find out how I can access the result from this call... /* Result structure should be: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <rsp stat="ok"> <mediaid>abc123</mediaid> <mediaurl>http://twitpic.com/abc123</mediaurl> </rsp> */ // Check for errors if ([[request responseHeaders] objectForKey:@"stat"] != @"ok"){ UIAlertView *errorAlert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"TwitPic Submission" message:[[request responseHeaders] objectForKey:@"mediaurl"] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK!" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [errorAlert show]; [errorAlert release]; } NSString *twitpicURL = [[request responseHeaders] objectForKey:@"mediaurl"]; UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"TwitPic Submission" message:twitpicURL delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK!" otherButtonTitles:nil]; I tried just dumping out [request responseString]... that's empty now also. That WAS showing a response, for sure. As always, any help gratefully received. I'll give back once I'm able! Cheers, Jamie.

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• How to change ErrorMessage property of the DataAnnotation validation in MVC2.0

  - by Raj Aththanayake

  My task is to change the ErrorMessage property of the DataAnnotation validation attribute in MVC2.0. For example I should be able to pass an ID instead of the actual error message for the Model property and use that ID to retrieve some content(error message) from a another service e.g database, and display that error message in the View instead of the ID. In order to do this I need to set the DataAnnotation validation attribute’s ErrorMessage property. [StringLength(2, ErrorMessage = "EmailContentID.")] [DataType(DataType.EmailAddress)] public string Email { get; set; } It seems like an easy task by just overriding the DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider ‘s protected override IEnumerable GetValidators(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context, IEnumerable attributes) However it seems to be a complicated enough. a. MVC DatannotationsModelValidator’s ErrorMessage property is read only. So I cannot set anything here b. System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotationErrorMessage property(get and set) which is already set in MVC DatannotationsModelValidator so we cannot set again. If you try to set you get “The property cannot set more than once…” error message appears. public class CustomDataAnnotationProvider : DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider { protected override IEnumerable GetValidators(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context, IEnumerable attributes) { IEnumerable validators = base.GetValidators(metadata, context, attributes); foreach (ValidationAttribute validator in validators.OfType<ValidationAttribute>()) { validator.ErrorMessage = "Error string from DB"; } //...... } Can anyone please help me on this?

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• Android app resets on orientation change, best way to handle?

  - by Anthony Westover

  So I am making a basic chess app to play around with some various elements of android programming and so far I am learning a lot, but this time I am lost. When the orientation of the emulator changes the activity gets reset. Based on my research the same thing will happen anytime the application is paused/interrupted, ie. keyboard change, phone call, hitting the home key etc. Obviously, it is not viable to have a chess game constantly reset, so once again I find myself needing to learn how to fix this problem. My research brings up a few main things, overriding the onPaused method in my Activity, listening for Orientation, Keyboard changes in my manifest (via android:configChanges), using Parcelables, or Serialization. I have looked up a lot of sample code using Pacelables, but to be honest it is too confusing. Maybe coming back tomorrow with fresh eyes will be beneficial, but right now the more I look at Parcelables the less sense it makes. My application utilizes a Board object, which has 64 Cell Objects(in an 8x8 2D array), and each cell has a Piece Object, either an actual piece or null if the space is empty. Assuming that I use either Parcelable or Serialization I am assuming that I would have to Parcelize or Serialize each class, Board, Cell, and Piece. First and foremost, is Parcelable or Serialization even the right thing to be looking at for this problem? If so is either Parcelable or Serializable preferred for this? And am I correct in assuming that each of the three objects would have to be Parceled/Serialized? Finally, does anybody have a link to a simple to understand Parcelable tutorial? Anything to help me understand, and stop further headaches down the road when my application expands even further. Any help would be appreciated.

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• Drupal vs ExpressionEngine for any kind of project from simple commercial site to complex ecommerce

  - by artmania

  Hi friends... So far I've been using custom cms. lately I developed own cms with CodeIgniter, and I'm actually happy. But recently I take more design and front-end development works than deep development projects. I actually also prefer so... I have many things to do with custom cms, also some security issues, etc. I'm kind of tired of doing everyhing custom, also I want to give more time to my family... Recently I'm seriously considering to go for a ready cms, and develop custom plugins when project need sth specific. This cms should be very flexible to implement any layout. also secured (since i had some hack problems with my custom cms!) I googled so much about this. As a result 2 options: Drupal Expression Engine opensource or licensed matter is not an issue for me at all. I just consider to go for a cms that I can use for any kind of project from simple 4-5 pages company sites to complicated projects like hotels directory, ecommerce portals, etc... As I found out; EE is more userfriendly and doesnt hassle about implementing custom layout as much as Drupal does. Also EE use CodeIgniter that I'm familiar. on the other hand I found out that Drupal is 10000% flexible, we can do anything with that (requires good php knowledge), extremely powerful and has many plugins... So I can't decide!! I want to go for a cms that I will use for looooong years from now on with no problems to implement any kind of project. So which one do you recommend? Appreciate your helps! thanks a lot... Edited: http://expressionengine.com/ee2_sneak_preview/#cost this Commercial License $299.95 is for 1 setup? So I need to purchase new licence for each project? Nothing like I pay once, and use the cms for as many project as I want?

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• How do I point a ListFieldIterator to a subweb when ControlMode = Display?

  - by Rich Bennema

  I have a custom page with the following ListFieldIterator: <SharePoint:ListFieldIterator runat="server" ControlMode="Display" OnInit="listFieldIterator_Init" /> Here is the Init event: protected void listFieldIterator_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { ListFieldIterator listFieldIterator = sender as ListFieldIterator; SPContext current = SPContext.Current; SPFieldUrlValue value = new SPFieldUrlValue(current.ListItem[SPBuiltInFieldId.URL].ToString()); Uri uri = new Uri(value.Url); using (SPWeb web = current.Site.OpenWeb(uri.AbsolutePath)) { SPListItem item = web.GetListItem(uri.PathAndQuery); if (null != item) { listFieldIterator.ItemContext = SPContext.GetContext(this.Context, item.ID, item.ParentList.ID, web); } } } Everything works great if the target List Item is in the same site as the page. But once it points to a different site, all the fields appear, but the values all appear in the following format: Failed to render "Title" column because of an error in the "Single line of text" field type control. See details in log. Exception message: List does not exist The page you selected contains a list that does not exist. It may have been deleted by another user.. If I change the ControlMode to Edit, the values are displayed correctly. So how do I get it to work while in Display mode?

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• cellForRowAtIndexPath not being called on tableView reloadData

  - by BotskoNet

  I have a UITableView on one view that loads in data at the start of the application, and then later when a user enters text into a box and hits a button, I re-query the database, re-populate the original NSMutableArray that stores the data for the table. All of that is working perfectly. In some logging statements I can tell that the array has the correct information, the numberOfRowsInSection method is returning the proper count, and is being called after the reload is called. However, the cellForRowAtIndexPath is never called the second time (after the reload) and the table data is never updated. I've spent hours searching the net and I've found nothing that helps. Can anyone help? All code is at: http://github.com/botskonet/inmyspot The specific reload is being called at: http://github.com/botskonet/inmyspot/blob/master/Classes/InMySpotViewController.m Roughly Line 94 From: http://github.com/botskonet/inmyspot/blob/master/Classes/PlateFormViewController.m Roughly line 101 A bit more info: once the new data has been added to the mutablearray, if I try to start scrolling the table, it eventually dies with: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '* -[NSCFArray objectAtIndex:]: index (29) beyond bounds (29)'" Which I assume means the table cells can't find any data in the array to match the scroll position, which seems to be because the array has the new data, but the table doesn't.

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• How would you solve this graph theory handshake problem in python?

  - by Zachary Burt

  I graduated college last year with a degree in Psychology, but I also took a lot of math for fun. I recently got the book "Introductory Graph Theory" by Gary Chartrand to brush up on my math and have some fun. Here is an exercise from the book that I'm finding particularly befuddling: Suppose you and your husband attended a party with three other married couples. Several handshakes took place. No one shook hands with himself (or herself) or with his (or her) spouse, and no one shook hands with the same person more than once. After all the handshaking was completed, suppose you asked each person, including your husband, how many hands he or she had shaken. Each person gave a different answer. a) How many hands did you shake? b) How many hands did your husband shake? Now, I've been reasoning about this for a while, and trying to draw sample graphs that could illustrate a solution, but I'm coming up empty-handed. My logic is this: there are 8 different vertices in the graph, and 7 of them have different degrees. The values for the degrees must therefore be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and x. The # of degrees for one married couple is (0, 6). Since all graphs have an even number of odd vertices, x must be either 5, 3, or 1. What's your solution to this problem? And, if you could solve it in python, how would you do it? (python is fun.) Cheers.

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• How would you solve this graph theory handshake problem in python?

  - by Zachary Burt

  I graduated college last year with a degree in Psychology, but I also took a lot of math for fun. I recently got the book "Introductory Graph Theory" by Gary Chartrand to brush up on my math and have some fun. Here is an exercise from the book that I'm finding particularly befuddling: Suppose you and your husband attended a party with three other married couples. Several handshakes took place. No one shook hands with himself (or herself) or with his (or her) spouse, and no one shook hands with the same person more than once. After all the handshaking was completed, suppose you asked each person, including your husband, how many hands he or she had shaken. Each person gave a different answer. a) How many hands did you shake? b) How many hands did your husband shake? Now, I've been reasoning about this for a while, and trying to draw sample graphs that could illustrate a solution, but I'm coming up empty-handed. My logic is this: there are 8 different vertices in the graph, and 7 of them have different degrees. The values for the degrees must therefore be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and x. The # of degrees for one married couple is (0, 6). Since all graphs have an even number of odd vertices, x must be either 5, 3, or 1. What's your solution to this problem? And, if you could solve it in python, how would you do it? (python is fun.) Cheers.

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• Generating the query plan takes 5 minutes, the query itself runs in milliseconds. What's up?

  - by TheImirOfGroofunkistan

  I have a fairly complex (or ugly depending on how you look at it) stored procedure running on SQL Server 2008. It bases a lot of the logic on a view that has a pk table and a fk table. The fk table is left joined to the pk table slightly more than 30 times (the fk table has a poor design - it uses name value pairs that I need to flatten out. Unfortunately, it's 3rd party and I cannot change it). Anyway, it had been running fine for weeks until I periodically noticed a run that would take 3-5 minutes. It turns out that this is the time it takes to generate the query plan. Once the query plan exists and is cached, the stored procedure itself runs very efficiently. Things run smoothly until there is a reason to regenerate and cache the query plan again. Has anyone seen this? Why does it take so long to generate the plan? Are there ways to make it come up with a plan faster?

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• URL detection with JavaScript

  - by josh

  Hi! I'm using the following script to force a specific page - when loaded for the first time - into a (third-party) iFrame. <script type="text/javascript"> if(window.top==window) { location.reload() } else { } </script> (For clarification: This 'embedding' is done automatically by the third-party system but only if the page is refreshed once - for styling and some other reasons I want it there from the beginning.) Right now, I'm wondering if this script could be enhanced in ways that it's able to detect the current URL of its 'parent' document to trigger a specific action? Let's say the URL of the third-party site is 'http://cgi.site.com/hp/...' and the URL of the iFrame 'http://co.siteeps.com/hp/...'. Is it possible to realize sth. like this with JS: <script type="text/javascript"> if(URL is 'http://cgi.site.com/hp/...') { location.reload() } if(URL is 'http://co.siteeps.com/hp/...') { location.do-not.reload() resp. location.do-nothing() } </script> TIA josh

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• CSS positioning is weird when reducing the viewport

  - by Lars Hanke

  I have a little meditation for you ... I run a site using a liquid tri-col layout with a header. The layout runs nicely since more than a decade with all browsers I ever dared to try. It is based on absolute positioning in CSS. This page provides an example of the actual site. Watching the page from my tablet I found that the right column overlaps the center matter. Further investigation using Firebug showed that once the center content reaches 360px width, the right margin of the div shrinks. Why is that? Since Firefox and Android render the same, I guess that this is something, which is actually supposed to be. However, I tried to make virtue out of necessity and experimented setting min-width for body and content and made the body scroll overflow. The body actually scrolls, but the right column is positioned on the right edge of the viewport instead of the body element (Firefox). Is this intentional CSS standard? Any ideas how to solve the presentation on small displays? Thanks for your efforts,  – lars.

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• Using UIScreen to drive a VGA display - doesn't seem to show the UIWindow?

  - by Peter Hajas

  HI there, I'm trying to use UIScreen to drive a separate screen with the VGA dongle on my iPad. Here's what I've got in my root view controller's viewDidLoad: //Code to detect if an external display is connected to the iPad. NSLog(@"Number of screens: %d", [[UIScreen screens]count]); //Now, if there's an external screen, we need to find its modes, itereate through them and find the highest one. Once we have that mode, break out, and set the UIWindow. if([[UIScreen screens]count] > 1) //if there are more than 1 screens connected to the device { CGSize max; UIScreenMode *maxScreenMode; for(int i = 0; i < [[[[UIScreen screens] objectAtIndex:1] availableModes]count]; i++) { UIScreenMode *current = [[[[UIScreen screens]objectAtIndex:1]availableModes]objectAtIndex:i]; if(current.size.width > max.width); { max = current.size; maxScreenMode = current; } } //Now we have the highest mode. Turn the external display to use that mode. UIScreen *external = [[UIScreen screens] objectAtIndex:1]; external.currentMode = maxScreenMode; //Boom! Now the external display is set to the proper mode. We need to now set the screen of a new UIWindow to the external screen external_disp = [externalDisplay alloc]; external_disp.drawImage = drawViewController.drawImage; UIWindow *newwindow = [UIWindow alloc]; [newwindow addSubview:external_disp.view]; newwindow.screen = external; }

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• iPhone: how do i redraw subviews while pinch zooming a uiscrollview

  - by Mike

  I am developing an iPhone app that places multiple custom UIViews as subviews in a UIScrollView. The subviews are placed on top of each other as transparent views as each view has its own drawing routines that traces parts of the base view. The base view is a UIImageView that is typically a large image that I want the user to be able to pan and zoom in and out of. The problem I am having is that when I zoom in and out of my UIScrollView, the subviews do not redraw themselves while the user is zooming. I can reposition and scale the subviews properly once the zoom is completed, but the user experience is less than desirable. I have not been able to find a way to either hide or redraw the subviews as the zoom is taking place to scale the subviews along with the ImageView. Any ideas? thanks! Here is the code that I have implemented: - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale { for (UIView *view in subViews) { [view updateView:scale]; } } - (UIView *)viewForZoomingInScrollView:(UIScrollView *) scrollView { return imageView; }

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• Zend Studio Debugger returns Application Error

  - by Keyne

  When I run debug for my public/index.php I got an application error as output. I've seen that it occurs at this line: foreach($feed->findFeedEntries($entriesLimit) as $entry) If I put a breakpoint before this, all works as expected, I mean, the error is after the line above. If I remove findFeedEntries() method, I can perform debugging without erros. To clarify, this method is in my row object as described bellow: This is the error <?php class Model_DbTable_FeedEntries extends Zf_Db_Table { public function fetchNewEntries($feed_id) { $Feeds = new Model_DbTable_Feeds(); $Feed = $Feeds->getById($feed_id); // ERROR IS HERE! The colum doesn't exists! // And this is only on zend-debugger!!! var_dump($Feed->link) // ... } } I'm completely lost about what's happening, once my application has no errors, the problem is with zend-debugger. The error is: An error occurred Application error Exception information: Message: Specified column "link" is not in the row Stack trace: #0 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\FeedEntries.php(75): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->__get('link') #1 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\FeedEntries.php(50): Model_DbTable_FeedEntries->fetchNewEntries('1') #2 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\Row\Feed.php(15): Model_DbTable_FeedEntries->getAllByFeedId('1', 1) #3 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\modules\default\controllers\IndexController.php(41): Model_DbTable_Row_Feed->findFeedEntries(1) #4 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): IndexController->indexAction() #5 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action->dispatch('indexAction') #6 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #7 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #8 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #9 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\public\index.php(54): Zend_Application->run() #10 C:\Users\RAPOSO\AppData\Local\Temp\dummy.php(1): include('C:\Program File...') #11 {main} I've notice that when I get the row object my colums names are not right. Instead of have "title", "link", ... I have "feeds", "desenvolvimentistas" (projectname), and so on...

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• BizTalk Business Rules Engine - Repeating Elements Question

  - by Andrew Cripps

  Hello I'm trying to create what I think should be a relatively simple business rule to operate over repeating elements in an XML schema. Consider the following XML snippet (this is simplified with namespaces removed, for readability): <Root> <AllAccounts> <Account id="1" currentPayment="10.00" arrearsAmount="25.00"> <AllCustomers> <Customer id="20" primary="true" canSelfServe="false" /> <Customer id="21" primary="false" canSelfServe="false" /> </AllCustomers> </Account> <Account id="2" currentPayment="10.00" arrearsAmount="15.00"> <AllCustomers> <Customer id="30" primary="true" canSelfServe="false" /> <Customer id="31" primary="false" canSelfServe="false" /> </AllCustomers> </AllAccounts> </Root> What I want to do is to have two rules: Set /Root/AllAccounts/Account[x]/AllCustomers/Customer[primary='true']/canSelfServe = true IF arrearsAmount < currentPayment Set /Root/AllAccounts/Account[x]/AllCustoemrs/Customer[primary='true']/canSelfServer = false IF arrearsAmount = currentPayment Where [x] is 0...number of /Root/AllAccounts/Account records present in the XML. I've tried two simple rules for this, and each rule seems to fire x * x times, where x is the number of Account records in the XML. I only want each rule to fire once for each Account record. Any help greatly appreciated! Thanks Andrew

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• Html Select List: why would onchange be called twice?

  - by Mark Redman

  I have a page with a select list (ASP.NET MVC Page) The select list and onchange event specified like this: <%=Html.DropDownList("CompanyID", Model.CompanySelectList, "(select company)", new { @class = "data-entry-field", @onchange = "companySelectListChanged()" })%> The companySelectListChanged function is getting called twice? I am using the nifty code in this question to get the caller. both times the caller is the onchange event, however if i look at the callers caller using: arguments.callee.caller.caller the first call returns some system code as the caller (i presume) and the second call returns undefined. I am checking for undefined to only react once to onchange, but this doesnt seem ideal, whcy would onchange be called twice? UPDATE: ok, found the culprit! ...apart from me :-) but the issue of calling the companySelectListChanged function twice still stands. The onchange event is set directly on the select as mentioned. This calls the companySelectListChanged function. ..notice the 'data-entry-field' class, now in a separate linked javascript file a change event on all fields with this class is bound to a function that changes the colour of the save button. This means there is two events on the onchange, but the companySelectListChanged is called twice? The additional binding is set as follows: $('.data-entry-field').bind('keypress keyup change', function (e) { highLightSaveButtons(); }); Assuming its possible to have 2 change events on the select list, its would assume that setting keypress & keyup events may be breaking something? Any ideas?

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• Problem with Remember Me Service in Spring Security

  - by Gearóid

  Hi, I'm trying to implement a "remember me" functionality in my website using Spring. The cookie and entry in the persistent_logins table are getting created correctly. Additionally, I can see that the correct user is being restored as the username is displayed at the top of the page. However, once I try to access any information for this user when they return after they were "remembered", I get a NullPointerException. It looks as though the user isn't being set in the session again. My applicationContext-security.xml contains the following: <remember-me data-source-ref="dataSource" user-service-ref="userService"/> ... <authentication-provider user-service-ref="userService" /> <jdbc-user-service id="userService" data-source-ref="dataSource" role-prefix="ROLE_" users-by-username-query="select email as username, password, 1 as ENABLED from user where email=?" authorities-by-username-query="select user.id as id, upper(role.name) as authority from user, role, users_roles where users_roles.user_fk=id and users_roles.role_fk=role.name and user.email=?"/> I thought it may have had something to do with users-by-username query but surely login wouldn't work correctly if this query was incorrect? Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, gearoid.

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• Using Fancybox with Google Static Maps

  - by Levi Hackwith

  Setup I have multiple links on a page with the class location_link Each Links rel attribute is equal to a city state combo (i.e.,Omaha, NE) Once the page is loaded, a JavaScript function loops through all of the location_link items and binds a click event to them using jQuery. This click event fires a call to the Fancybox constructor that is supposed to show a Google Map of the location that link is associated with The Problem: Whenever I click on one of the "location links", I get the following error message: The requested content cannot be loaded. Please try again later. Code I've Already Written: function setUpLocationLinks() { locationLinks = $("a.location_link"); locationLinks.click( function() { var me = $(this); console.log(me.attr("href")); $.fancybox( { "showCloseButton" : true, "hideOnContentClick" : true, "titlePosition" : "inside", "title" : me.attr("rel"), "type" : "image" } ) return false; } ); } Research I've Already Done: The Google Static Map API no longer requires an API Key. The following is from the Google Static Maps API Page Note: The Google Static Maps API no longer requires a Maps API key! (Google Maps API Premier customers should instead sign their URLs using a new cryptographic key which will be sent to you. See the Premier documentation for more information.) The The Image URL I'm using does resolve and pulls back the data I need When I put the above mentioned URL into a standard <img> tag, the map shows up just fine. I'd like to pull this off without having to create some sort of dummy <img> tag that I'm constantly switching the src attribute out of. Hopefully, you'll find this information helpful. Please let me know if you have any other questions.

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• Reattaching an object graph to an EntityContext: "cannot track multiple objects with the same key"

  - by dkr88

  Can EF really be this bad? Maybe... Let's say I have a fully loaded, disconnected object graph that looks like this: myReport = {Report} {ReportEdit {User: "JohnDoe"}} {ReportEdit {User: "JohnDoe"}} Basically a report with 2 edits that were done by the same user. And then I do this: EntityContext.Attach(myReport); InvalidOperationException: An object with the same key already exists in the ObjectStateManager. The ObjectStateManager cannot track multiple objects with the same key. Why? Because the EF is trying to attach the {User: "JohnDoe"} entity TWICE. This will work: myReport = {Report} {ReportEdit {User: "JohnDoe"}} EntityContext.Attach(myReport); No problems here because the {User: "JohnDoe"} entity only appears in the object graph once. What's more, since you can't control how the EF attaches an entity, there is no way to stop it from attaching the entire object graph. So really if you want to reattach a complex entity that contains more than one reference to the same entity... well, good luck. At least that's how it looks to me. Any comments? UPDATE: Added sample code: // Load the report Report theReport; using (var context1 = new TestEntities()) { context1.Reports.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; theReport = (from r in context1.Reports.Include("ReportEdits.User") where r.Id == reportId select r).First(); } // theReport looks like this: // {Report[Id=1]} // {ReportEdit[Id=1] {User[Id=1,Name="John Doe"]} // {ReportEdit[Id=2] {User[Id=1,Name="John Doe"]} // Try to re-attach the report object graph using (var context2 = new TestEntities()) { context2.Attach(theReport); // InvalidOperationException }

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• UIWebView not loading URL when URL is passed from UITableView

  - by Mark Hazlett

  Hey Everyone, So i'm building a webView into my application to show the contents of a URL that I am passing from a selection in a UITableView. I know the UIWebView is loading content properly because if you hard code say http://www.google.ca into the NSURL then it loads fine, however when I'm passing the URL that I parsed from an RSS feed back from the UITableView it won't load the URL properly. I tried the debugger and the URL is coming out as nil right before I try and parse it, however I can use NSLog to print the value of it out to the console. here's the code in my UIViewController that has my UIWebView #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ReadFeedWebViewController : UIViewController { NSString *urlToGet; IBOutlet UIWebView *webView; } @property(nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWebView *webView; @property(nonatomic, retain) NSString *urlToGet; @end Here's the code for my implementation's viewDidLoad method... // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(@"Url inside Web View Controller - %@", urlToGet); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlToGet]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self.webView loadRequest:requestObj]; } Once again, I can print the URL to NSLog fine and if I hard code the URL into the NSURL object then it will load fine in the UIWebView. Here is where I'm setting the value in my UITableViewController... - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ReadFeedWebViewController *extendedView = [[ReadFeedWebViewController alloc] init]; int storyIndex = [indexPath indexAtPosition: [indexPath length] - 1]; extendedView.urlToGet = [[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"link"]; //NSLog([[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"summary"]); NSLog([[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"link"]); [self.navigationController pushViewController:extendedView animated:YES]; [extendedView release]; } However, since I can print the value using NSLog in the extendedView view controller I know it's being passed properly. Cheers

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• Why does Graphviz fail on gvLayout?

  - by David Brown

  Once again, here I am writing C without really knowing what I'm doing... I've slapped together a simple function that I can call from a C# program that takes a DOT string, an output format, and a file name and renders a graph using Graphviz. #include "types.h" #include "graph.h" #include "gvc.h" #define FUNC_EXPORT __declspec(dllexport) // Return codes #define GVUTIL_SUCCESS 0 #define GVUTIL_ERROR_GVC 1 #define GVUTIL_ERROR_DOT 2 #define GVUTIL_ERROR_LAYOUT 3 #define GVUTIL_ERROR_RENDER 4 FUNC_EXPORT int RenderDot(char * dotData, const char * format, const char * fileName) { Agraph_t * g; // The graph GVC_t * gvc; // The Graphviz context int result; // Result of layout and render operations // Create a new graphviz context gvc = gvContext(); if (!gvc) return GVUTIL_ERROR_GVC; // Read the DOT data into the graph g = agmemread(dotData); if (!g) return GVUTIL_ERROR_DOT; // Layout the graph result = gvLayout(gvc, g, "dot"); if (result) return GVUTIL_ERROR_LAYOUT; // Render the graph result = gvRenderFilename(gvc, g, format, fileName); if (result) return GVUTIL_ERROR_RENDER; // Free the layout gvFreeLayout(gvc, g); // Close the graph agclose(g); // Free the graphviz context gvFreeContext(gvc); return GVUTIL_SUCCESS; } It compiles fine, but when I call it, I get GVUTIL_ERROR_LAYOUT. At first, I thought it might have been how I was declaring my P/Invoke signature, so I tested it from a C program instead, but it still failed in the same way. RenderDot("digraph graphname { a -> b -> c; }", "png", "C:\testgraph.png"); Did I miss something? EDIT If there's a chance it has to do with how I'm compiling the code, here's the command I'm using: cl gvutil.c /I "C:\Program Files (x86)\Graphviz2.26\include\graphviz" /LD /link /LIBPATH:"C:\Program Files (x86)\Graphviz2.26\lib\release" gvc.lib graph.lib cdt.lib pathplan.lib I've been following this tutorial that explains how to use Graphviz as a library, so I linked to the .lib files that it listed.

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• Delphi: How to respond to WM_SettingChange/WM_WinIniChange?

  - by Ian Boyd

  i need to know when my application recieves a WM_SETTINGCHANGE message (formerly known as WM_WININICHANGE). Problem is that the message pump in TApplication sends it down a black hole (default handler) before i can get a chance to see it: procedure TApplication.WndProc(var Message: TMessage); ... begin Message.Result := 0; for I := 0 to FWindowHooks.Count - 1 do if TWindowHook(FWindowHooks[I]^)(Message) then Exit; CheckIniChange(Message); with Message do case Msg of WM_SETTINGCHANGE: begin Mouse.SettingChanged(wParam); Default; <----------------------*poof* down the sink hole end; ... end; ... end; The procedure CheckIniChange() doesn't throw any event i can handle, neither does Mouse.SettingChanged(). And once the code path reaches Default, it is sent down the DefWindowProc drain hole, never to be seen again (since the first thing the WndProc does is set the Message.Result to zero. i was hoping to assign a handler to a TApplicationEvents.OnMessage event: procedure TdmGlobal.ApplicationEvents1Message(var Msg: tagMSG; var Handled: Boolean); begin case Msg.message of WM_SETTINGCHANGE: begin // Code end; end; end; But the OnMessage event is only thrown for messages that come through the message pump. Since the WM_SETTINGCHANGE message is "handled", it never sees the PeekMessage TranslateMessage DispatchMessage system. How can i respond to the windows broadcast WM_SETTINGCHANGE?

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• BIRT logging in the onFetch step of a dataset

  - by Mark Underwood

  Hi all, Im having trouble with some javascript in the onFetch step of a dataset in a BIRT report. I've added logging in the initialise step of the report in a few different ways. The runtime im using is Tivoli Common Reporting, and they supply a logging framework. Its initialised as so reportContext.setPersistentGlobalVariable("logfileName", "DateRangeParm.log"); setupLogging(); logInitialize(); debugLogger("Started logging in initialize step"); debugLogger("Date: " + new Date()); This works fine to log on the steps of the report(ie initialise, BeforeRender, AfterRender etc.) but I cant seem to log anything in the Dataset steps such as onFetch etc. Ive also tried importPackage(Packages.java.util.logging); var fileHandler = new FileHandler("/tmp/birt.log", true); var rootLogger = Logger.getLogger(""); rootLogger.addHandler(fileHandler); as the BIRT instructions tell me to do in the BIRTFAQ Once again this allowed me to log things in the main report (ie BeforeRender etc) but not in the dataset onFetch Step. Ive also tried putting the previous javascript into the onFetch and that didnt seem to work either. Its a bit of a mystery. Im running Ubuntu 9.04. IBM java 1.5. Eclipse 3.5.0 and BIRT 2.5.1. Any help would be great.

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• How do I use jquery validate remote validation on a field that depends on another field in the form?

  - by Kevin J

  I have a form in which I am using remote validation to check if an email address already exists in the database. However, the catch is that on this form, the user can select between several different "groups", and each group has its own distinct set of email addresses (thus the same email can exist once in each group). The group selection is a dropdown on the form, and the email address is an input field with remote validation. I have a couple issues. First, I have set up my remote rule like this: remote: { url: 'remote_script.php', data: { group_id: $('select.group_id').val() } } However, this seems to statically set the group_id parameter to whatever the first value in the select is. Meaning, if I change the select, then trigger the remote validation again, the group_id parameter does not change First, how can I make this parameter dynamic, depending on the value of a select in the form? Secondly, how do I manually trigger the remote validation on the email address field? When the group_id select is changed, I want to re-trigger the remote validation on the email address field (without changing the value of the field). I tried using $(selector).validate().element('.email_addr') But this appears to only trigger the standard validation (required, email), and not the remote call.

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