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  • How do I correctly install dulwich to get hg-git working on Windows?

    - by Joshua Flanagan
    I'm trying to use the hg-git Mercurial extension on Windows (Windows 7 64-bit, to be specific). I have Mercurial and Git installed. I have Python 2.5 (32-bit) installed. I followed the instructions on http://hg-git.github.com/ to install the extension. The initial easy_install failed because it was unable to compile dulwich without Visual Studio 2003. I installed dulwich manually by: git clone git://git.samba.org/jelmer/dulwich.git cd dulwich c:\Python25\python setup.py --pure install Now when I run easy_install hg-git, it succeeds (since the dulwich dependency is satisfied). In my C:\Users\username\Mercurial.ini, I have: [extensions] hgext.bookmarks = hggit = When I type 'hg' at a command prompt, I see: "* failed to import extension hggit: No module named hggit" Looking under my c:\Python25 folder, the only reference to hggit I see is Lib\site-packages\hg_git-0.2.1-py2.5.egg. Is this supposed to be extracted somewhere, or should it work as-is? Since that failed, I attempted the "more involved" instructions from the hg-git page that suggested cloning git://github.com/schacon/hg-git.git and referencing the path in my Mercurial configuration. I cloned the repo, and changed my extensions file to look like: [extensions] hgext.bookmarks = hggit = c:\code\hg-git\hggit Now when I run hg, I see: * failed to import extension hggit from c:\code\hg-git\hggit: No module named dulwich.errors. Ok, so that tells me that it is finding hggit now, because I can see in hg-git\hggit\git_handler.py that it calls from dulwich.errors import HangupException That makes me think dulwich is not installed correctly, or not in the path. Update: From Python command line: import dulwich yields Import Error: No module named dulwich However, under C:\Python25\Lib\site-packages, I do have a dulwich-0.5.0-py2.5.egg folder which appears to be populated. This was created by the steps mentioned above. Is there an additional step I need to take to make it part of the Python "path"?

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  • How to correctly set the ORACLE_HOME variable on Ubuntu 9.x?

    - by nowarninglabel
    I have the same problem as listed here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/52239/oracle-lost-sysdba-password although I did not lose the password, I entered it twice in the configure script originally, and then when I went to login (localhost:8080/apex, password not accepted. I don't have anything in the database, I just want to install and use Oracle-XE. I have tried apt-get removing it twice and reinstalling, but if I try to run /etc/init.d/oracle-xe configure again and I get "Oracle Database 10g Express Edition is already configured" despite the second time removing any folders I could find for Oracle XE. I tried running sqlplus "/ as sysdba" but all I get is: "Error 6 initializing SQL*Plus Message file sp1.msb not found SP2-0750: You may need to set ORACLE_HOME to your Oracle software directory" I tried setting the variable via export. (also tried set). Tried: "export ORACLE_HOME=/usr/lib/oracle/xe/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/server/bin/sqlplus" and all the subdirectories of that. Same error every time. What is the ORACLE_HOME supposed to be set to? The only reference I have seen either just say general or say the above up to the version number then "/db_1". I do no thave a db_1. Let me know if need any clarification. Don't understand what I did wrong in this process.

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  • C# - update variable based upon results from backgroundworker

    - by Bruce
    I've got a C# program that talks to an instrument (spectrum analyzer) over a network. I need to be able to change a large number of parameters in the instrument and read them back into my program. I want to use backgroundworker to do the actual talking to the instrument so that UI performance doesn't suffer. The way this works is - 1) send command to the instrument with new parameter value, 2) read parameter back from the instrument so I can see what actually happened (for example, I try to set the center frequency above the max that the instrument will handle and it tells me what it will actually handle), and 3) update a program variable with the actual value received from the instrument. Because there are quite a few parameters to be updated I'd like to use a generic routine. The part I can't seem to get my brain around is updating the variable in my code with what comes back from the instrument via backgroundworker. If I used a separate RunWorkerCompleted event for each parameter I could hardwire the update directly to the variable. I'd like to come up with a way of using a single routine that's capable of updating any of the variables. All I can come up with is passing a reference number (different for each parameter) and using a switch statement in the RunWorkerCompleted handler to direct the result. There has to be a better way. Thanks for your help.

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  • C# Win Forms Access Violation Exception

    - by Goober
    I keep getting the following error: System.AccessViolationException was unhandled Message="Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt." Source="FEDivaNET" StackTrace: at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.dropReference() at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.!FEDivaObject() at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.Dispose(Boolean ) at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.Finalize() InnerException: Any ideas what the issue could be? - I'm using a library that is written in C++ and isn't designed for multithreading, yet I'm hammering it about 3000 times with requests every 6 minutes. CODE delegate void SetTextCallback(string mxID, string text); public void UpdateLog(string mxID, string text) { //lock (thisLock) //{ if (listBoxProcessLog.InvokeRequired) { SetTextCallback d = new SetTextCallback(UpdateLog); this.BeginInvoke(d, new object[] { mxID, text }); } else { //Get a reference to the datatable assigned as the datasource. //DataTable logDT = (DataTable)listBoxProcessLog.DataSource; //logDT.Rows.Add(DateTime.Now + " - " + mxID + ": " + text); if (text.Contains("COMPLETE") || (text.Contains("FAILED"))) { if (progressBar1.Value <= progressBar1.MaxValue) { progressBar1.Value += 1; } } } //} } Baring in mind that even when the Lock and the DataTable weren't commented out, the error still occurred!

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  • C# unit test code questions continue

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    more questions after questions in here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2714073/c-unit-test-code-questions I found the VS unit test testframe treat private and protected method in the same way but deferent with public method. The following is the generated code for a private method: /// <summary> ///A test for recordLogin ///</summary> [TestMethod()] [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] public void recordLoginTest() { User_Accessor target = new User_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Guid userId = new Guid(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string action = string.Empty; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Users user = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value AndeDBEntities db = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool expected = false; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool actual; actual = target.recordLogin(userId, action, user, db); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } questions: [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] is for private and protected methods, why needs it and what is it for? In my original class/file, if I point to the original method and try to "Find All References". The reference in the unit test class/file will not show up for private and protected methods but it will show up for all public methods. Why is that? Is it right? 3.

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  • Wordpress and Anythingslider Navigation Thumbnails

    - by Tom
    So I am using AnythingSlider in Wordpress. This is why I am trying to call the thumbnails from the original posts. Anything slider will configure thumbnail navigation like this: function formatText(index, panel) { return index + ""; } $(function () { $('.anythingSlider').anythingSlider({ navigationFormatter: formatText // Details at the top of the file on this use (advanced use) }); }); As you can see, the navigationFormatter will allow me to format the nav (including thumbnails) however I want. For example, to format thumbnails, I could do this: navigationFormatter : function(i, panel){ // add thumbnails as navigation links return '<img src="images/th-slide-' + ['civil-1', 'env-1', 'civil-2', 'env-2'][i - 1] + '.jpg">'; } So my issue is getting the wordpress slide images to show up there dynamically, rather than in a folder (as the above example shows). For reference, this is my php query that is pulling the posts image (from a script I've already written: <img class="slider-img" style="float:left;" src="<?php if(function_exists('wp_get_post_image')){ echo wp_get_post_image(array( 'return_html' => false, 'width' => 500 )); } ?>" /> I hope this update helps. Thank you guys so much. The Stack overflow community is great!

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  • Setting up a "cookieless domain" to improve site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • Spring-hibernate mapping problem

    - by James
    I have a spring-hibernate application which is failing to map an object properly: basically I have 2 domain objects, a Post and a User. The semantics are that every Post has 1 corresponding User. The Post domain object looks roughly as follows: class Post { private int pId; private String attribute; ... private User user; //getters and setters here } As you can see, Post contains a reference to User. When I load a Post object, I want to corresponding User object to be loaded (lazily - only when its needed). My mapping looks as follows: <class name="com...Post" table="post"> <id name="pId" column="PostId" /> <property name="attribute" column="Attribute" type="java.lang.String" /> <one-to-one name="User" fetch="join" class="com...User"></one-to-one> </class> And of course I have a basic mapping for User set up. As far as my table schema is concerned, I have a table called post with a foreign UserId which links to the user table. I thought this setup should work, BUT when I load a page that forces the lazy loading of the User object, I notice the following Hiberate query being generated: Select ... from post this_ left outer join user user2_ on this.PostId=user2_.UserId ... Obviously this is wrong: it should be joining UserId from post with UserId from user, but instead its incorrectly joining PostId from post (its primary key) with UserId from user. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • When writing a game, should you make objects/enemies/etc. have unique ID numbers?

    - by SLC
    I have recently encountered some issues with merely passing references to objects/enemies in a game I am making, and am wondering if I am using the wrong approach. The main issue I have is disposing of enemies and objects, when other enemies or players may still have links to them. For example, if you have a Rabbit, and a Wolf, the Wolf may have selected the Rabbit to be its target. What I am doing, is the wolf has a GameObject Target = null; and when it decides it is hungry, the Target becomes the Rabbit. If the Rabbit then dies, such as another wolf killing it, it cannot be removed from the game properly because this wolf still has a reference to it. In addition, if you are using a decoupled approach, the rabbit could hit by lightning, reducing its health to below zero. When it next updates itself, it realises it has died, and is removed from the game... but there is no way to update everything that is interested in it. If you gave every enemy a unique ID, you could simply use references to that instead, and use a central lookup class that handled it. If the monster died, the lookup class could remove it from its own index, and subsequently anything trying to access it would be informed that it's dead, and then they could act accordingly. Any thoughts on this?

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  • Cannot connect Linux XAMPP PHP to SQL Server database.

    - by Jim
    I've searched many sites without success. I'm using XAMPP 1.7.3a on Ubuntu 9.1. I have used the methods found at http://www.webcheatsheet.com/PHP/connect_mssql_database.php, they all fail. I am able to "connect" with a linked database through MS Access, however, that is not an acceptable solution as not all users will have Access. The first method (at webcheatsheet) uses mssql_connect, et.al. but I get this error from the mssql_connect() call: Warning: mssql_connect() [function.mssql-connect]: Unable to connect to server: [my server] in [my code] [my server] is the server address, I have used both the host name and the IP address. [my code] is a reference to the file and line number in my .php file. Is there a log file somewhere that would have more information about the failure, both on my machine and SQL Server? We do not have a bona-fide DBA, so I will need specific information to pass on if the issue seems to be on the server side. All assistance is appreciated, including RTFM when the location of the M is provided! Thanks

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  • Regex: markdown-style link matching

    - by The.Anti.9
    I want to parse markdown style links, but I'm having some trouble matching the reference style ones. Like this one: [id]: http://example.com/ "Optional Title Here" My regex gets the id and the url, but not the title. Heres what I have: /\[([a-zA-Z0-9_-]+)\]: (\S+)\s?("".*?"")?/ I go through and add the references to a hashtable. the id as the key and the value is an instance of a class I made called LinkReference that just contains the url and the title. In case the problem is not my regex, and my code adding the matches to the hash table, Heres my code for that too: Regex rx = new Regex(@"\[([a-zA-Z0-9_-]+)\]: (\S+)\s?("".*?"")?"); MatchCollection matches = rx.Matches(InputText); foreach (Match match in matches) { GroupCollection groups = match.Groups; string title = null; try { title = groups[3].Value; } catch (Exception) { // keep title null } LinkReferences.Add(groups[1].Value, new LinkReference(groups[2].Value, title)); }

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  • Referencing a Newly inserted Row's seeded PK in C# Linq

    - by Laurence Burke
    I want to use the primary key that was just created on the dc.submitchanges() to create a new EmployeeAddress row that references the employee to the address. protected void btnAdd_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (txtZip.Text != "" && txtAdd1.Text != "" && txtCity.Text != "") { TestDataClassDataContext dc = new TestDataClassDataContext(); Address addr = new Address() { AddressLine1 = txtAdd1.Text, AddressLine2 = txtAdd2.Text, City = txtCity.Text, PostalCode = txtZip.Text, StateProvinceID = Convert.ToInt32(ddlState.SelectedValue) }; dc.Addresses.InsertOnSubmit(addr); lblSuccess.Visible = true; lblErrMsg.Visible = false; dc.SubmitChanges(); // // TODO: insert new row in EmployeeAddress to reference CurEmp to newly created address // SetAddrList(); } else { lblErrMsg.Text = "Invalid Input"; lblErrMsg.Visible = true; } } protected void SetAddrList() { TestDataClassDataContext dc = new TestDataClassDataContext(); dc.ObjectTrackingEnabled = false; var addList = from addr in dc.Addresses from eaddr in dc.EmployeeAddresses where eaddr.EmployeeID == _curEmpID && addr.AddressID == eaddr.AddressID select new { AddValue = addr.AddressID, AddText = addr.AddressID, }; ddlAddList.DataSource = addList; ddlAddList.DataValueField = "AddValue"; ddlAddList.DataTextField = "AddText"; ddlAddList.DataBind(); ddlAddList.Items.Add(new ListItem("<Add Address>", "-1")); }

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  • Microsoft.Build.Engine Error (default targets): Target GetFrameworkPaths: Could not locate the .NET

    - by Mitchan Adams
    I am writing a webservice, that when called should build a C# project. I'm using the framework 2 reference, Microsoft.Buld.Engine and Microsoft.Build.Framework. If you look under the '<Import>' section .csproj file, by default it has: <Import Project="$(MSBuildToolsPath)\Microsoft.CSharp.targets" /> which I then changed to: <Import Project="$(MSBuildBinPath)\Microsoft.CSharp.targets" /> My code to build the csproj is: Engine buildEngine = new Engine(Path.Combine(Environment.GetEnvironmentVariable("SystemRoot"), @"Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727")); FileLogger logger = new FileLogger(); logger.Parameters = @"logfile=c:\temp\build.log"; buildEngine.RegisterLogger(logger); bool success = buildEngine.BuildProjectFile([Path_Of_Directory]+ "ProjectName.csproj"); buildEngine.UnregisterAllLoggers(); The success variable returns a false because the build faild. I then check the build.log file and this is the error I recieve: *Build started 3/17/2010 11:16:56 AM. ______________________________ Project "[Path_Of_Directory]\ProjectName.csproj" (default targets): Target GetFrameworkPaths: Could not locate the .NET Framework SDK. The task is looking for the path to the .NET Framework SDK at the location specified in the SDKInstallRootv2.0 value of the registry key HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft.NETFramework. You may be able to solve the problem by doing one of the following: 1.) Install the .NET Framework SDK. 2.) Manually set the above registry key to the correct location. Target* I cant understand why it wont build. Any help will be much appreciated. Thanks

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  • sample java code for approximate string matching or boyer-moore extended for approximate string matc

    - by Dolphin
    Hi I need to find 1.mismatch(incorrectly played notes), 2.insertion(additional played), & 3.deletion (missed notes), in a music piece (e.g. note pitches [string values] stored in a table) against a reference music piece. This is either possible through exact string matching algorithms or dynamic programming/ approximate string matching algos. However I realised that approximate string matching is more appropriate for my problem due to identifying mismatch, insertion, deletion of notes. Or an extended version of Boyer-moore to support approx. string matching. Is there any link for sample java code I can try out approximate string matching? I find complex explanations and equations - but I hope I could do well with some sample code and simple explanations. Or can I find any sample java code on boyer-moore extended for approx. string matching? I understand the boyer-moore concept, but having troubles with adjusting it to support approx. string matching (i.e. to support mismatch, insertion, deletion). Also what is the most efficient approx. string matching algorithm (like boyer-moore in exact string matching algo)? Greatly appreciate any insight/ suggestions. Many thanks in advance

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  • Does replace into have a where clause?

    - by Lajos Arpad
    I'm writing an application and I'm using MySQL as DBMS, we are downloading property offers and there were some performance issues. The old architecture looked like this: A property is updated. If the number of affected rows is not 1, then the update is not considered successful, elseway the update query solves our problem. If the update was not successful, and the number of affected rows is more than 1, we have duplicates and we delete all of them. After we deleted duplicates if needed if the update was not successful, an insert happens. This architecture was working well, but there were some speed issues, because properties are deleted if they were not updated for 15 days. Theoretically the main problem is deleting properties, because some properties are alive for months and the indexes are very far from each other (we are talking about 500, 000+ properties). Our host told me to use replace into instead of deleting properties and all deprecated properties should be considered as DEAD. I've done this, but problems started to occur because of syntax error and I couldn't find anywhere an example of replace into with a where clause (I'd like to replace a DEAD property with the new property instead of deleting the old property and insert a new to assure optimization). My query looked like this: replace into table_name(column1, ..., columnn) values(value1, ..., valuen) where ID = idValue Of course, I've calculated idValue and handled everything but I had a syntax error. I would like to know if I'm wrong and there is a where clause for replace into. I've found an alternative solution, which is even better than replace into (using simply an update query) because deletes are happening behind the curtains if I use replace into, but I would like to know if I'm wrong when I say that replace into doesn't have a where clause. For more reference, see this link: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/replace.html Thank you for your answers in advance, Lajos Árpád

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  • Method for finding memory leak in large Java heap dumps

    - by Rickard von Essen
    I have to find a memory leak in a Java application. I have some experience with this but would like advice on a methodology/strategy for this. Any reference and advice is welcome. About our situation: Heap dumps are larger than 1 GB We have heap dumps from 5 occasions. We don't have any test case to provoke this. It only happens in the (massive) system test environment after at least a weeks usage. The system is built on a internally developed legacy framework with so many design flaws that they are impossible to count them all. Nobody understands the framework in depth. It has been transfered to one guy in India who barely keeps up with answering e-mails. We have done snapshot heap dumps over time and concluded that there is not a single component increasing over time. It is everything that grows slowly. The above points us in the direction that it is the frameworks homegrown ORM system that increases its usage without limits. (This system maps objects to files?! So not really a ORM) Question: What is the methodology that helped you succeed with hunting down leaks in a enterprise scale application?

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  • Recommended way to test ActiveRecord associations?

    - by Sugerman
    I have written my basic models and defined their associations as well as the migrations to create the associated tables. I want to be able to test: The associations are configured as intended The table structures support the associations properly I've written FG factories for all of my models in anticipation of having a complete set of test data but I can't grasp how to write a spec to test both belongs_to and has_many associations. For example, given an Organization that has_many Users I want to be able to test that my sample Organization has a reference to my sample User. Organization_Factory.rb: Factory.define :boardofrec, :class => 'Organization' do |o| o.name 'Board of Recreation' o.address '115 Main Street' o.city 'Smallville' o.state 'New Jersey' o.zip '01929' end Factory.define :boardofrec_with_users, :parent => :boardofrec do |o| o.after_create do |org| org.users = [Factory.create(:johnny, :organization => org)] end end User_Factory.rb: Factory.define :johnny, :class => 'User' do |u| u.name 'Johnny B. Badd' u.email '[email protected]' u.password 'password' u.org_admin true u.site_admin false u.association :organization, :factory => :boardofrec end Organization_spec.rb: ... it "should have the user Johnny B. Badd" do boardofrec_with_users = Factory.create(:boardofrec_with_users) boardofrec_with_users.users.should include(Factory.create(:johnny)) end ... This example fails because the Organization.users list and the comparison User :johnny are separate instances of the same Factory. I realize this doesn't follow the BDD ideas behind what these plugins (FG, rspec) seemed to be geared for but seeing as this is my first rails application I'm uncomfortable moving forward without knowing that I've configured my associations and table structures properly.

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  • Server http://www.myopenid.com/server responds that the 'check_authentication' call is not valid

    - by viatropos
    I've been struggling with this for a few days now, haven't pinpointed the problem. I am trying to get OpenID to work in Rails 2.3 and Rails 3, using ruby-openid rack-openid open_id_authentication I am logging in using my viatropos.myopenid.com account, but it consistently returns this error: Server http://www.myopenid.com/server responds that the 'check_authentication' call is not valid What could that be from, it's not a very descriptive error... Does it have to do with something ruby-specific, or is this entirely on the OpenID protocol side of things? More specifically, I am using Authlogic and ActiveRecord, so could this be a problem with my User or UserSession models somehow? Or is it more to do with the header or request? In ruby response I'm getting (from puts inside ruby-openid) is: #<OpenID::Consumer::FailureResponse:0x25e282c @reference=nil, @endpoint=#<OpenID::OpenIDServiceEndpoint:0x2601984 @local_id="http://viatropos.myopenid.com/", @display_identifier=nil, @type_uris=["http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/signon", "http://openid.net/sreg/1.0", "http://openid.net/extensions/sreg/1.1", "http://schemas.openid.net/pape/policies/2007/06/phishing-resistant", "http://openid.net/srv/ax/1.0"], @used_yadis=true, @server_url="http://www.myopenid.com/server", @canonical_id=nil, @claimed_id="http://viatropos.myopenid.com/">, @message="Server http://www.myopenid.com/server responds that the 'check_authentication' call is not valid", @contact=nil> Any tips would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • Merge replication server side foreign key violation from unpublished table

    - by Reiste
    We are using SQL Server 2005 Merge Replication with SQL CE 3.5 clients. We are using partitions with filtering for the separate subscriptions, and nHibernate for the ORM mapping. There is automatic ID range management from SQL Server for the subscriptions. We have a table, Item, and a table with a foreign key to Item - ItemHistory. Both of these are replicated down, filtered according to the subscription. Item has a column called UserId, and is filtered per subscription with this filter: WHERE UserId IN (SELECT... [complicated subselect]...) ItemHistory hangs off Item in the publication filter articles. On the server, we have a table ItemHistoryExport, which has a foreign key to ItemHistory. ItemHistoryExport is not published. Entries in the Item and ItemHistory tables are never deleted, on the server or the client. However, the "ownership" of items (and hence their ItemHistories) MAY change, which causes them to be moved from one client subscription/partition to another from time to time. When we sync, we occasionally get the following error: A row delete at '48269404 - 4108383dbb11' could not be propagated to 'MyServer\MyInstance.MyDatabase'. This failure can be caused by a constraint violation. The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK_ItemHistoryExport_ItemHistory". The conflict occurred in database "MyDatabase", table "dbo.ItemHistoryExport", column 'ItemHistoryId'. Can anyone help us understand why this happens? There shouldn't ever be a delete happening on the server side.

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  • Automatic Adjusting Range Table

    - by Bradford
    I have a table with a start date range, an end date range, and a few other additional columns. On input of a new record, I want to automatically adjust any overlapping date ranges (shrinking them to allow for the new input). I also want to ensure that no overlapping records can accidentally be inserted into this table. I'm using Oracle and Java for my application code. How should I enforce the prevention of overlapping date ranges and also allow for automatically adjusting overlapping ranges? Should I create an AFTER INSERT trigger, with a dbms_lock to serialize access, to prevent the overlapping data. Then in Java, apply the logic to auto adjust everything? Or should that part be in PL/SQL in stored procedure call? This is something that we need for a couple other tables so it'd be nice to abstract. If anyone has something like this already written, please share :) I did find this reference: http://asktom.oracle.com/pls/asktom/f?p=100:11:0::::P11_QUESTION_ID:474221407101 Here's an example of how each of the 4 overlapping cases should be handled for adjustment on insert: = Example 1 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 50, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 50, 'A') **(51, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 2 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (40, 80, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 39, 'Z') **(40, 80, 'A') **(81, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 3 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (50, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 49, 'Z') **(50, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 4 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') The algorithm is as follows: given range = g; input range = i; output range set = o if i.start <= g.start if i.end >= g.end o_1 = i else o_1 = i o_2 = (o.end + 1, g.end) else if i.end >= g.end o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i else o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i o_3 = (i.end + 1, i.end)

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  • Changing App.config at Runtime

    - by born to hula
    I'm writing a test winforms / C# / .NET 3.5 application for the system we're developing and we fell in the need to switch between .config files at runtime, but this is turning out to be a nightmare. Here's the scene: the Winforms application is aimed at testing a WebApp, divided into 5 subsystems. The test proccess works with messages being sent between the subsystems, and for this proccess to be sucessful each subsystem got to have its own .config file. For my Test Application I wrote 5 separate configuration files. I wish I was able to switch between these 5 files during runtime, but the problem is: I can programatically edit the application .config file inumerous times, but these changes will only take effect once. I've been searching a long time for a form to address this problem but I still wasn't sucessful. I know the problem definition may be a bit confusing but I would really appreciate it if someone helped me. Thanks in advance! --- UPDATE 01-06-10 --- There's something I didn't mention before. Originally, our system is a Web Application with WCF calls between each subsystem. For performance testing reasons (we're using ANTS 4), we had to create a local copy of the assemblies and reference them from the test project. It may sound a bit wrong, but we couldn't find a satisfying way to measure performance of a remote application. --- End Update --- Here's what I'm doing: public void UpdateAppSettings(string key, string value) { XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); foreach (XmlElement item in xmlDoc.DocumentElement) { foreach (XmlNode node in item.ChildNodes) { if (node.Name == key) { node.Attributes[0].Value = value; break; } } } xmlDoc.Save(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.RefreshSection("section/subSection"); }

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  • The cost of passing by shared_ptr

    - by Artem
    I use std::tr1::shared_ptr extensively throughout my application. This includes passing objects in as function arguments. Consider the following: class Dataset {...} void f( shared_ptr< Dataset const > pds ) {...} void g( shared_ptr< Dataset const > pds ) {...} ... While passing a dataset object around via shared_ptr guarantees its existence inside f and g, the functions may be called millions of times, which causes a lot of shared_ptr objects being created and destroyed. Here's a snippet of the flat gprof profile from a recent run: Each sample counts as 0.01 seconds. % cumulative self self total time seconds seconds calls s/call s/call name 9.74 295.39 35.12 2451177304 0.00 0.00 std::tr1::__shared_count::__shared_count(std::tr1::__shared_count const&) 8.03 324.34 28.95 2451252116 0.00 0.00 std::tr1::__shared_count::~__shared_count() So, ~17% of the runtime was spent on reference counting with shared_ptr objects. Is this normal? A large portion of my application is single-threaded and I was thinking about re-writing some of the functions as void f( const Dataset& ds ) {...} and replacing the calls shared_ptr< Dataset > pds( new Dataset(...) ); f( pds ); with f( *pds ); in places where I know for sure the object will not get destroyed while the flow of the program is inside f(). But before I run off to change a bunch of function signatures / calls, I wanted to know what the typical performance hit of passing by shared_ptr was. Seems like shared_ptr should not be used for functions that get called very often. Any input would be appreciated. Thanks for reading. -Artem

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  • Doubts About Core Data NSManagedObject Deep Copy

    - by Jigzat
    Hello everyone, I have a situation where I must copy one NSManagedObject from the main context into an editing context. It sounds unnecessary to most people as I have seen in similar situations described in Stackoverflow but I looks like I need it. In my app there are many views in a tab bar and every view handles different information that is related to the other views. I think I need multiple MOCs since the user may jump from tab to tab and leave unsaved changes in some tab but maybe it saves data in some other tab/view so if that happens the changes in the rest of the views are saved without user consent and in the worst case scenario makes the app crash. For adding new information I got away by using an adding MOC and then merging changes in both MOCs but for editing is not that easy. I saw a similar situation here in Stackoverflow but the app crashes since my data model doesn't seem to use NSMutableSet for the relationships (I don't think I have a many-to-many relationship, just one-to-many) I think it can be modified so I can retrieve the relationships as if they were attributes for (NSString *attr in relationships) { [cloned setValue:[source valueForKey:attr] forKey:attr]; } but I don't know how to merge the changes of the cloned and original objects. I think I could just delete the object from the main context, then merge both contexts and save changes in the main context but I don't know if is the right way to do it. I'm also concerned about database integrity since I'm not sure that the inverse relationships will keep the same reference to the cloned object as if it were the original one. Can some one please enlighten me about this?

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  • JSF Render response programmatically

    - by Shamik
    I have one parent page with a parentManagedBean (attached to Session Scope). On click of a button on this parent page, one popup comes which has a childManagedBean (attached to Request scope). Now ChildManagedBean holds a reference to parentManaged bean through JSF's managed property facility. On this popup window, user selects some option which populates a large value object. I use the managed property of childManagedBean to set the values from this large object to that of parentManagedBean. Problem is - The parent page shows a link, on click of which a popup comes, on selection of the popup, the popup disappears and set the values to the parentManaged bean. So far so good, but the newly set values need to appear on the parent page. This is where I am stuck. How to programmatically render the master page/render page when I am at the child managed bean? Is there a way I can get handle of the parent page and refresh it? Note: I'm using JSF 1.1 EDIT- After following the solution of "resubmit-ing the form" from javascript, I am seeing that the old form is getting resubmitting which overwrites all of my changed values.

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  • maps, iterators, and complex structs - STL errors

    - by Austin Hyde
    So, I have two structs: struct coordinate { float x; float y; } struct person { int id; coordinate location; } and a function operating on coordinates: float distance(const coordinate& c1, const coordinate& c2); In my main method, I have the following code: map<int,person> people; // populate people map<int,map<float,int> > distance_map; map<int,person>::iterator it1,it2; for (it1=people.begin(); it1!=people.end(); ++it1) { for (it2=people.begin(); it2!=people.end(); ++it2) { float d = distance(it1->second.location,it2->second.location); distance_map[it1->first][d] = it2->first; } } However, I get the following error upon build: stl_iterator_base_types.h: In instantiation of ‘std::iterator_traits<coordinate>’: stl_iterator_base_types.h:129: error: no type named ‘iterator_category’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:130: error: no type named ‘value_type’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:131: error: no type named ‘difference_type’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:132: error: no type named ‘pointer’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:133: error: no type named ‘reference’ in ‘struct coordinate’ And it blames it on the line: float d = distance(it1->second.location,it2->second.location); Why does the STL complain about my code?

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