Search Results

Search found 12826 results on 514 pages for 'third party controls'.

Page 437/514 | < Previous Page | 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444  | Next Page >

  • How do I pass an NSString through 3 ViewControllers?

    - by dBloc
    hey, I'm currently using the iPhone SDK and I'm having trouble passing an NSString through 3 views I am able to pass an NSString between 2 view controllers but I am unable to pass it through another one. My code is as follows... `- (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)index`Path { NSString *string1 = nil; NSDictionary *dictionary = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]; NSArray *array = [dictionary objectForKey:@"items"]; string1 = [array objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Initialize the detail view controller and display it. ViewController2 *vc2 = [[ViewController2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController2" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; vc2.string1 = string1; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; [vc2 release]; vc2 = nil; } in the "ViewController 2" implementations I am able use "string1" in the title bar by doing the following.... - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.navigationItem.title = string1; UIBarButtonItem *addButton = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_time.png"] style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain //style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(goToThirdView)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = addButton; } but I also have a NavBar Button on the right side that I would like to push a new view - (void)goToThirdView { ViewController3 *vc3 = [[ViewController3 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController3" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:NESW animated:YES]; vc3.string1 = string1 ; [vc3 release]; vc3 = nil; } How do I pass on that same string to the third view? (or fourth)

    Read the article

  • Permuting a binary tree without the use of lists

    - by Banang
    I need to find an algorithm for generating every possible permutation of a binary tree, and need to do so without using lists (this is because the tree itself carries semantics and restraints that cannot be translated into lists). I've found an algorithm that works for trees with the height of three or less, but whenever I get to greater hights, I loose one set of possible permutations per height added. Each node carries information about its original state, so that one node can determine if all possible permutations have been tried for that node. Also, the node carries information on weather or not it's been 'swapped', i.e. if it has seen all possible permutations of it's subtree. The tree is left-centered, meaning that the right node should always (except in some cases that I don't need to cover for this algorithm) be a leaf node, while the left node is always either a leaf or a branch. The algorithm I'm using at the moment can be described sort of like this: if the left child node has been swapped swap my right node with the left child nodes right node set the left child node as 'unswapped' if the current node is back to its original state swap my right node with the lowest left nodes' right node swap the lowest left nodes two childnodes set my left node as 'unswapped' set my left chilnode to use this as it's original state set this node as swapped return null return this; else if the left child has not been swapped if the result of trying to permute left child is null return the permutation of this node else return the permutation of the left child node if this node has a left node and a right node that are both leaves swap them set this node to be 'swapped' The desired behaviour of the algoritm would be something like this: branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 0 1 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 1 0 <-- first swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 <-- second swap / | 2 0 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 / | 0 2 <-- third swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 0 <-- fourth swap / | 1 2 and so on... Sorry for the ridiculisly long and waddly explanation, would really, really apreciate any sort of help you guys could offer me. Thanks a bunch!

    Read the article

  • what is a root directory in IIS 6 and How do I make one of my subfolder in ASP.NET website the root directory?

    - by R_Coder
    I need to integrate a third party plugin in my asp.net website. To install the plugin, they have mentioned this sentence, "Create an application through your IIS control panel with root directory at -(some path from my website folder)?". I am not much aware with IIS and rarely worked with it. Though I tried every possible way i could do in IIS, I am not able to work it out. After installation, there is a test page provided by plugin which i have to run to check but when I run it, it shows this error. "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS." I searched this error too and found that it is because the two Web.Config file, one from the main project and another from plugin folder. The only way to work with this is to make the plugin folder they specified as root directory in IIS. Someone kindly tell me some easy steps to do this. What I was doing is, in IIS6, I added New website with the main folder of my asp.net website, then I right clickadd application and choosed the gievn path, thought it would become root directory but it ain't. Help would be appreciated. ALso note that, i have to put the plugin folder in my main website folder only. So, there are two web.config. I tried to rename one of them too, it solved the above error but gave another errors but I think main problem is of root directory. P.S they show me above error on web.config file of plugin folder on this sentence- "Line 51: < authentication mode="Windows" />"

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Collapsable Flow Chart Online

    - by Simon
    Been looking through a number of other related posts relating to flowchart software. I have been asked to put together a document outlining some of the typical problems our users encounter with our software product. What I would like to do, is create an interactive/online flowchart that lets users choose from 4-5 overall headings on whats wrong. Then for this to dynamically expand more choices on pinpointing the problem, and so on and so on, until they can get a resolution to their problem. The key thing that I have not been able to find in some of the flowchart software out there, is having the click + expand element. - I dont want all options to appear to the end-user in a huge flow chart as it will distract away from their specific issue. - I want them to be able to click away and go down a specific avenue that will end up giving them some good things to try, based on their decisions/clicks. I was originally thinking of perhaps putting something in Flex or Silverlight (ideally someone would have a template out there) but am now thinking of taking advantage of 3rd party (ideally free) software. This will need to be hosted in a browser. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Stop Observing Events with JS Prototype not working with .bind(this)

    - by PeterBelm
    I'm working on a Javascript class based on the Prototype library. This class needs to observe an event to perform a drag operation (the current drag-drop controls aren't right for this situation), but I'm having problems making it stop observing the events. Here's a sample that causes this problem: var TestClass = Class.create({ initialize: function(element) { this.element = element; Event.observe(element, 'mousedown', function() { Event.observe(window, 'mousemove', this.updateDrag.bind(this)); Event.observe(window, 'mouseup', this.stopDrag.bind(this)); }); }, updateDrag: function(event) { var x = Event.pointerX(event); var y = Event.pointerY(event); this.element.style.top = y + 'px'; this.element.style.left = x + 'px'; }, stopDrag: function(event) { console.log("stopping drag"); Event.stopObserving(window, 'mousemove', this.updateDrag.bind(this)); Event.stopObserving(window, 'mouseup', this.stopDrag.bind(this)); } }); Without .bind(this) then this.element is undefined, but with it the events don't stop being observed (the console output does occur though).

    Read the article

  • JavaScript Module Pattern - What about using "return this"?

    - by Rob
    After doing some reading about the Module Pattern, I've seen a few ways of returning the properties which you want to be public. One of the most common ways is to declare your public properties and methods right inside of the "return" statement, apart from your private properties and methods. A similar way (the "Revealing" pattern) is to provide simply references to the properties and methods which you want to be public. Lastly, a third technique I saw was to create a new object inside your module function, to which you assign your new properties before returning said object. This was an interesting idea, but requires the creation of a new object. So I was thinking, why not just use "this.propertyName" to assign your public properties and methods, and finally use "return this" at the end? This way seems much simpler to me, as you can create private properties and methods with the usual "var" or "function" syntax, or use the "this.propertyName" syntax to declare your public methods. Here's the method I'm suggesting: (function() { var privateMethod = function () { alert('This is a private method.'); } this.publicMethod = function () { alert('This is a public method.'); } return this; })(); Are there any pros/cons to using the method above? What about the others?

    Read the article

  • Components inside a repeater not resizing as expected

    - by VoidPointer
    I have an mxml panel in which I'm using a repeater. The panel can be resized horizontally and I would like for the repeated components to resize together with panel. Here is a simplified example of how things look like: <mx:TitleWindow xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="vertical" ...> <!-- scripts and some controls --> <mx:VBox width="100%"> <core:Repeater width="100%" dataProvider="model"> <ns1:MyItemRenderer width="100%" /> </core:Repeater> </mx:VBox> </mx:TitleWindow> When I resize the component, the width of the repeated items does not change. There also buttons and event handlers, which add and remove items from the model. When this is done, the repeater updates to display the correct number of items and all the items are resized correctly. I have not been able to get the items to resize when the root panel is resized. I can see, that the VBOx around the repeater is getting a resize event. However, the repeated items are not getting the event. I tried to dispatch a resize event to the repeated items manually from a resize handler I hooked up to the VBox but that didn't help. I also tried adding and removing a dummy-item from the ArrayCollection which is the dataProvider (because that triggers a correct resize otherwise as mentioned above) However, doing this in the resize handler of the VBox just leads to the repeater not showing any items at all. Is there any way to get items in a repeater to resize with their enclosing container?

    Read the article

  • How to prevent ADO.NET from altering double values when it reads from Excel files

    - by Khnle
    I have the following rows in my Excel input file: Column1 Column2 0-5 3.040 6 2.957 7 2.876 and the following code which uses ADO.NET to read it: string fileName = "input.xls"; var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; data source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;", fileName); var dbConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); dbConnection.Open(); try { var dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]", dbConnection); var dbReader = dbCommand.ExecuteReader (); while (dbReader.Read()) { string col1 = dbReader.GetValue(0).ToString(); string col2 = dbReader.GetValue(1).ToString(); } } finally { dbConnection.Close(); } The results are very disturbing. Here's why: The values of each column in the first time through the loop: col1 is empty (blank) col2 is 3.04016411633586 Second time: col1 is 6 col2 is 2.95722928448829 Third time: col1 is 7 col2 is 2.8763272933077 The first problem happens with col1 in the first iteration. I expect 0-5. The second problem happens at every iteration with col2 where ADO.NET obviously alters the values as it reads them. How to stop this mal-behavior?

    Read the article

  • Project management and bundling dependencies

    - by Joshua
    I've been looking for ways to learn about the right way to manage a software project, and I've stumbled upon the following blog post. I've learned some of the things mentioned the hard way, others make sense, and yet others are still unclear to me. To sum up, the author lists a bunch of features of a project and how much those features contribute to a project's 'suckiness' for a lack of a better term. You can find the full article here: http://spot.livejournal.com/308370.html In particular, I don't understand the author's stance on bundling dependencies with your project. These are: == Bundling == Your source only comes with other code projects that it depends on [ +20 points of FAIL ] Why is this a problem, (especially given the last point)? If your source code cannot be built without first building the bundled code bits [ +10 points of FAIL ] Doesn't this necessarily have to be the case for software built against 3rd party libs? Your code needs that other code to be compiled into its library before the linker can work? If you have modified those other bundled code bits [ +40 points of FAIL ] If this is necessary for your project, then it naturally follows that you've bundled said code with yours. If you want to customize a build of some lib,say WxWidgets, you'll have to edit that projects build scripts to bulid the library that you want. Subsequently, you'll have to publish those changes to people who wish to build your code, so why not use a high level make script with the params already written in, and distribute that? Furthermore, (especially in a windows env) if your code base is dependent on a particular version of a lib (that you also need to custom compile for your project) wouldn't it be easier to give the user the code yourself (because in this case, it is unlikely that the user will already have the correct version installed)? So how would you respond to these comments, and what points may I be failing to take into consideration? Would you agree or disagree with the author's take (or mine), and why?

    Read the article

  • What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

    - by Patrick
    Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • C# generics when T could be an array

    - by bufferz
    I am writing a C# wrapper for a 3rd party library that reads both single values and arrays from a hardware device, but always returns an object[] array even for one value. This requires repeated calls to object[0] when I'd like the end user to be able to use generics to receive either an array or single value. I want to use generics so the callee can use the wrapper in the following ways: MyWrapper<float> mw = new MyWrapper<float>( ... ); float value = mw.Value; //should return float; MyWrapper<float[]> mw = new MyWrapper<float[]>( ... ); float[] values = mw.Value; //should return float[]; In MyWrapper I have the Value property currently as the following: public T Value { get { if(_wrappedObject.Values.Length > 1) return (T)_wrappedObject.Value; //T could be float[]. this doesn't compile. else return (T)_wrappedObject.Values[0]; //T could be float. this compiles. } } I get a compile error in the first case: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T' If I change MyWrapper.Value to T[] I receive: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T[]' Any ideas of how to achieve my goal? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • problem with joomla, php and json

    - by sebastian
    hi, i have a problem with a joomla component. i'm, unsing php and json for some dynamic drop down boxes. here is the code:` jQuery( function () { //jQuery.ajaxSetup({error : function (a,b) {console.dir(a); console.dir(b);}}); jQuery("#util, #loc").change( function() { var locatie = jQuery("#loc").val(); var utilitate = jQuery("#util").val(); if ( (locatie!= '---') && (utilitate!='---') ) jQuery.getJSON( "index.php?option=com_calculator&opt=json_contor&format=raw", { locatie: locatie, utilitate: utilitate }, function (data) { var html = ""; if ( data.success == 'ok' ) for (var i in data.val) html += "<option name=den_contor value ='"+ i+"' >" + data.val[i]+ " </option>"; jQuery("#den_contor").html( html ) } ) }) }); the query works, but only on one PC. we have exactly the same xampp server, exactly the same files. on one pc it works, and on a online server and on my pc it doesn't. EDIT: i have three drop down boxes, the first is populated directly from the database, the second has 4 predefined values. and the third is populated depending on combination of the first two. i have a test site online. http://contor.redxart.com must be logged in to use Calculator in the menu. you can make an new account :) "Adaugare Index" is the part that isn't working any ideas? thanks, sebastian

    Read the article

  • MYSQL JOIN WHERE ISSUES - need some kind of if condition

    - by Breezer
    Hi Well this will be hard to explain but ill do my best The thing is i have 4 tables all with a specific column to relate to eachother. 1 table with users(agent_users) , 1 with working hours(agent_pers), 1 with sold items(agent_stat),1 with project(agent_pro) the user and the project table is irrelevant in the issue at hand but to give you a better understanding why certain tables is included in my query i decided to still mention them =) The thing is that I use 2 pages to insert data to the working hour and the sold items during that time tables, then i have a third page to summarize everything for current month, the query for that is as following: SELECT *, SUM(sv_p_kom),SUM(sv_p_gick),SUM(sv_p_lunch) FROM (( agent_users LEFT JOIN agent_pers ON agent_users.sv_aid = agent_pers.sv_p_uid) LEFT JOIN agent_stat ON agent_pers.sv_p_uid = agent_stat.sv_s_uid) LEFT JOIN agent_pro ON agent_pers.sv_p_pid=agent_pro.p_id WHERE MONTH(agent_pers.sv_p_datum) =7 GROUP BY sv_aname so the problem is now that i dont want sold items from previous months to get included in the data received, i know i could solve that by simple adding in the WHERE part MONTH(agent_stat.sv_s_datum) =7 but then if no items been sold that month no data at all will show up not the time or anything. Any aid on how i could solve this is greatly appreciated. if there's something that's not so clear dont hesitate to ask and ill try my best to answer. after all my english isn't the best out there :P regards breezer

    Read the article

  • Javascript "Match" Function Not Returning Proper Results in Safari or IE (but yes in FF)

    - by Jascha
    Forgive me as this is a time sensitive issue and I will have to switch the site back in a few hours so the link will be bad... but: I am simply comparing two strings looking for a match with this function... I have an array of objects called linkArray and I need to match the .src of each object to a .src I send it (the src of the clicked image). if the the src of the image I clicked matches the src of an object in my array, I set a variable to the link string of that object and return true, letting my page know that the link is available. Now, this works great in FF. But not in any other browser and I can't figure out for the life of me why. I have set up a dialogue box to literally compare, by eye, the two strings that should at the very least throw the message "match". Can anyone see what I am missing here??? here is the link... http://7thart.com/Jewish-History-and-Culture/Jews-and-Baseball-An-American-Love-Story If you click any of the thumbnails on the left, you will activate the function. Again, I apologize as after a few hours I have to switch back to the original site and this link will be invalid. Thanks in advance for your help. (function below)... function matchLink(a){ for(var i=0;i<linkArray.length;i++){ var fixLink = '../' + linkArray[i]['src']; alert(fixLink + '\n = \n' + a); if(fixLink == a){ alert('match'); newLink = linkArray[i]['link']; return true; } } return false; } Note: The "match" will return on two of the images.. the initial image, and the first thumbnail on the left. The second thumbnail SHOULD match, and the third one SHOULD NOT match.

    Read the article

  • How to get at specific HTML elements of a document using C# and Hide them/Show them etc.

    - by LaserBeak
    Basically I want to load a HTML document and using controls such as multiple check boxes which will be programmed to hide, delete or show HTML elements with certain ID's. So I am thinking I would have to set an inline CSS property for visibility to: false on the ones I want to hide or delete them altogether when necessary. I need this so I don't have to edit my Ebay HTML templates in dreamweaver all the time, where I usually have to scroll around messy code and manually delete or add tags and their respective content. Whereas I just want to create one master template in dreamweaver which has all the variations that my products have, since they are all of the same genre with slight changes here and there and I just need to enable and disable the visibility of these variants as required and copy + paste the final html. I haven's used Windows Forms before, but tried doing this in WebForms which I do know a bit. I am able to get the result that I want by wrapping any HTML elements in a <asp:PlaceHolder></asp:PlaceHolder> and just setting that place holders visibility to false after the associated checkbox is checked and a postback occurs, finally I add a checkbox/button control that removes all the checkboxes, including itself etc for final html. But this method seems just like too much pain in the ass as I have to add the placeholder tags around everything that I need control over as ordinary html elements do not run at server, also webforms injects a bunch of Javascript and ViewState data so I don't have clean HTML which I can just copy after viewing the page source. Any tips/code that you can suggest to achieve the desired effect with the least changes required to existing HTML documents? Ideally I would want to load the HTML document in, have a live design preview of it and underneath have a bunch of well labelled checkboxes programmed to hide, delete or show elements with certain ID's. Thanks...

    Read the article

  • How to reference an embedded JCA resource adapater

    - by cg
    For our current J2EE project based on JBoss, we need to interface with a remote system using message driven beans and a JCA resource adapter provided as a RAR file by a third party. I would like to package and deploy the entire project as an EAR file to our JBoss server. Most notably, the RAR file should be embedded within the EAR file and not be deployed globally. All of this is working fine so far, but I'm not particularly happy with the way the RAR file is referenced. The jboss.xml packaged with the MDB for example, currently looks like this: <jboss> <enterprise-beans> <message-driven> <ejb-name>testBean1</ejb-name> <resource-adapter-name>test1.ear#thirdparty-1.0.rar</resource-adapter-name> </message-driven> </enterprise-beans> </jboss> While this is generally working fine, it will break when the EAR file is renamed to "test2.ear". Is there a way to reference the embedded RAR file without hard-coding the containing archive's name?

    Read the article

  • How do you perform arithmetic calculations on symbols in Scheme/Lisp?

    - by kunjaan
    I need to perform calculations with a symbol. I need to convert the time which is of hh:mm form to the minutes passed. ;; (get-minutes symbol)->number ;; convert the time in hh:mm to minutes ;; (get-minutes 6:19)-> 6* 60 + 19 (define (get-minutes time) (let* ((a-time (string->list (symbol->string time))) (hour (first a-time)) (minutes (third a-time))) (+ (* hour 60) minutes))) This is an incorrect code, I get a character after all that conversion and cannot perform a correct calculation. Do you guys have any suggestions? I cant change the input type. Context: The input is a flight schedule so I cannot alter the data structure. ;; ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Edit: Figured out an ugly solution. Please suggest something better. (define (get-minutes time) (let* ((a-time (symbol->string time)) (hour (string->number (substring a-time 0 1))) (minutes (string->number (substring a-time 2 4)))) (+ (* hour 60) minutes)))

    Read the article

  • How to modify Keyboard interrupt (under Windows XP) from a C++ Program ?

    - by rockr90
    Hi everyone ! We have been given a little project (As part of my OS course) to make a Windows program that modifies keyboard input, so that it transforms any lowercase character entered into an uppercase one (without using caps-lock) ! so when you type on the keyboard you'll see what you're typing transformed into uppercase ! I have done this quite easily using Turbo C by calling geninterrupt() and using variables _AH, _AL, i had to read a character using: _AH = 0x07; // Reading a character without echo geninterrupt(0x21); // Dos interrupt Then to transform it into an Upercase letter i have to mask the 5th bit by using: _AL = _AL & 0xDF; // Masking the entered character with 11011111 and then i will display the character using any output routine. Now, this solution will only work under old C DOS compilers. But what we intend to do is to make a close or similar solution to this by using any modern C/C++ compiler under Windows XP ! What i have first thought of is modifying the Keyboard ISR so that it masks the fifth bit of any entered character to turn it uppercase ! But i do not know how exactly to do this. Second, I wanted to create a Win32 console program to either do the same solution (but to no avail) or make a windows-compatible solution, still i do not know which functions to use ! Third I thought to make a windows program that modifies the ISR directly to suit my needs ! and i'm still looking for how to do this ! So please, If you could help me out on this, I would greatly appreciate it ! Thank you in advance ! (I'm using Windows XP on intel X86 with mingw-GCC compiler.)

    Read the article

  • How can I invoke a .Net DLL from a LabView 6.1 VI?

    - by tw1k
    I work in a manufacturing company that uses LabView for testing the devices we make. Most of the test engineers are using 7.1 which can natively reference a .Net assembly. However, there is a group that is stuck on LabView 6.1. I would like for them to be able to use my .Net assembly which is basically a proxy to some web services. I have created a test assembly that is nothing more than Hello World, and I'm trying to consume it in a VI. I made it COM visible, and registered it with regasm.exe and created a type library, which I'm not sure I need. I can see it in Visual Studio in the list of COM objects when I open the Add Reference window, so I know it's registered properly. I'm very unfamiliar with VI's. I'm only looking at it because no one I have spoken to in manufacturing knows anything about invoking a COM object in a VI. I'm basically looking for some names of controls or menu options to get the test engineers pointed in the right direction. I did a bunch of web searching on Google and the NI forums, but didn't find much. Alternatively, would it be easier to write a C or C++ DLL that acts as a proxy to my .Net DLL? Or is there a simple way to invoke a web service from a VI? That might obviate the need for a DLL altogether. I'm currently reading through this document from NI for help, but it obviously knows nothing about .Net and might not be able to help me choose the best path forward.

    Read the article

  • Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

    - by Ken Keenan
    I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

    Read the article

  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

    Read the article

  • PHP, MySQL prepared statements - can you use results of execute more than once by calling data_seek(

    - by Carvell Fenton
    Hello, I have a case where I want to use the results of a prepared statement more than once in a nested loop. The outer loop processes the results of another query, and the inner loop is the results of the prepared statement query. So the code would be something like this (just "pseudoish" to demonstrate the concept): // not showing the outer query, it is just a basic SELECT, not prepared statement // we'll call it $outer_query $obj_array = array(); // going to save objects in this $ids = array(18,19,20); // just example id numbers $query = "SELECT field1, field2 FROM table1 WHERE id=?"; $stmt = $db->prepare($query); foreach ($ids as $id) { $stmt->bind_param("i", $id); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($var1, $var2); $stmt->store_result(); // I think I need this for data_seek while ($q1 = $outer_query->fetch_object()) { while ($stmt->fetch()) { if ($q1->field1 == $var1) { // looking for a match $obj = new stdClass(); $obj->var1 = $var1; $obj->var2 = $var2; $obj_array[] = $obj; $stmt->data_seek(0); // reset for outer loop break; // found match, so leave inner } } } } The problem I seem to be experiencing is that the values are not getting bound in the variables as I would expect after the first time I use fetch in the inner loop. Specifically, in one example I ran with 3 ids for the foreach, the first id was processed correctly, the second was processed incorrectly (matches were not found in the inner loop even though they existed), and then the third was processed correctly. Is there something wrong with the prepared statment function calls in the sequence I am doing above, or is this an invalid way to use the results of the prepared statement? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • jQuery/JavaScript Date form validation

    - by Victor Jackson
    I am using the jQuery date picker calendar in a form. Once submitted the form passes params along via the url to a third party site. Everything works fine, except for one thing. If the value inserted into the date field by the datepicker calendar is subsequently deleted, or if the default date, that is in the form on page load, is deleted and the form is submitted I get the following error: "Conversion from string "" to type 'Date' is not valid." The solution to my problem is really simple, I want to validate the text field where the date is submitted and send out a default date (current date) if the field is empty for any reason. The problem is I am terrible at Javascript and cannot figure out how to do this. Here is the form code for my date field. [var('default_date' = date)] <input type="text" id="datepicker" name="txtdate" value="[$default_date]" onfocus="if (this.value == '[$default_date]') this.value = '';" onchange="form.BeginDate.value = this.value; form.EndDate.value = this.value;" /> <input type="hidden" name="BeginDate" value="[$default_date]"/> <input type="hidden" name="EndDate" value="[$default_date]"/>

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

    - by tster
    I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

    Read the article

  • How to get a unique WindowRef in a dockable Qt application on Mac

    - by Robin
    How do I get a unique WindowRef from a Qt application that includes docked windows on the Mac? My code boils down to: int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { QApplication* qtApp = new QApplication(argc, argv); MyQMainWindow mainwin; mainwin.show(); } class MyQMainWindow : public QMainWindow { //... QDockWidget* mDock; MyQWidget* mDrawArea; QStackedWidget* mCentralStack; }; MyQMainWindow::MyQMainWindow() { mDock = new QDockWidget(tr("Docked Widget"), this); mDock->setMaximumWidth(180); //... addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, mDock); mDrawArea = new MyQWidget(this); mCentralStack = new QStackedWidget(); mCentralStack->addWidget(mDrawArea); // Other widgets added to stack in production code. setCentralWidget(mCentralStack); //... } (Apologies if the above isn't syntactically correct, it's just easier to illustrate than to describe.) I added the following temporary code at the end of the above constructor: HIViewRef view1 = (HIViewRef) mDrawArea->winId(); HIViewRef view2 = (HIViewRef) mDock->winId(); WindowRef win1 = HIViewGetWindow(view1); WindowRef win2 = HIViewGetWindow(view2); My problem is that view1 and view2 are different, but win1 and win2 are the same! I tried the following equivalent on Windows: HWND win1 = (HWND)(mCentralDrawArea->winId()); HWND win2 = (HWND)(mDock1->winId()); This time win1 and win2 are different. I need the window handle to pass on to a 3rd party SDK so that it can draw into the central area only. BTW, I appreciate that the winId() method comes with lots of portability warnings, but a substantial refactor is out of the question for me. The same goes for using Carbon instead of Cocoa. Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444  | Next Page >