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  • "dynamic" keyword and JSON data

    - by Peter Perhác
    An action method in my ASP.NET MVC2 application returns a JsonResult object and in my unit test I would like to check that the returned JSON object indeed contains the expected values. I tried this: 1. dynamic json = ((JsonResult)myActionResult).Data; 2. Assert.AreEqual(JsonMessagesHelper.ErrorLevel.ERROR.ToString(), json.ErrorLevel); But I get a RuntimeBinderException "'object' does not contain a definition for 'ErrorLevel'". However, when I place a breakpoint on line 2 and inspect the json dynamic variable (see picture below), it obviously does contain the ErrorLevel string and it has the expected value, so if the runtime binder wasn't playing funny the test would pass. What am I not getting? What am I doing wrong and how can I fix this? How can I make the assertion pass?

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  • html select execute javascript onload

    - by portoalet
    I am using HTML select onchange event to fire another javascript function func1. This html select is written into a form element, which are dynamically generated when users click on a button. The problem is how can I fire the javascript func1 when the dynamically generated form is first shown ? I am thinking of something along the line of on_first_show event for form ? Here is the snippet. I couldnt get the alert('don') to work either (the one just after div) var sPopupContents = "<div ><script type='text/javascript'>alert('don');</script> </div>"; // this javascript is not executed ? I cant get the alert. sPopupContents += "<form name='theform' >"; sPopupContents += "<select name='theselect' onchange='alert(2);"; sPopupContents += "func1()>'"; sPopupContents += "<option value='0' selected='selected'>Value1</option><option value='1'>Value2</option><br/>"; sPopupContents += "</form>";

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  • Jquery cant get dynamic data

    - by Napoleon Wai Lun Wong
    i am a noob to using the jQuery i have a problem about the Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token i am using the 1.9.0 version of jqery i am creating a dynamic number of record, each record would create a "tr" in a table ,also i want to add some dynamic coding into the textbox part of Html coding : <-tbody<-tr id="row_1"<-input id="1" name="collections[appearance][headersubcolor][entity_id1][name]" value="0" class="Root Catalog input-text" type="text" Click inside to change a color of each Category <-tr id="row_2"<-td class="label"<-td class="value"<-input id="2" name="collections[appearance][headersubcolor][entity_id2][name]" value="0" class="Default Category input-text" type="text".... jQuery coding : $('tr[id^="row_"]'.each(function(){ var rowid = parsInt(this.id.replace("row_","")); console.lof("id:"+ rowid); var ??? = new jscolor.color(document.getElementById('???'), {}) }); $('tr[id^="row_"]'.each(function() <--- i cant getting the DATA

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  • Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

    - by williamjones
    I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

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  • Web SITE publishing, dynamic compilation, smoke & mirrors

    - by tbehunin
    When you publish a web SITE in Visual Studio, in the dialog box that follows, you are given an option to "Allow this precompiled site to be updatable". According to MSDN, checking this option "specifies that all program code is compiled into assemblies, but that .aspx files (including single-file ASP.NET Web pages) are copied as-is to the target folder". With this option checked, you can update existing .aspx files as well as add new ones without any issue. When a page, that has either been updated or newly created, is requested, the page gets dynamically compiled at run-time and is then processed and returned to the user. If, on the other hand, you didn't check that checkbox during the publish phase, the .aspx files get compiled, along with the code-behind and App_Code files in separate assemblies. The .aspx files are then completely overwritten with a line of text that says: This is a marker file generated by the precompilation tool, and should not be deleted! You obviously can't edit an existing page in this scenario. If you were to ADD a new .aspx file to this site, you would get a .Net run-time error saying that the file hasn't been precompiled. With that background, my questions are these: Something must be able to determine that this website was published to be updatable (allow dynamic compilation) or not. If it was published as updatable, it must also be able to determine whether a file was changed or added, so it can do a dynamic compile. Who makes those determinations? IIS? ASP.NET worker process? HOW does it make those determinations? If I had the same website published in both of those scenarios, could I make a visual determination that one is updatable and the other is not? Is there some bit I can look at in the assemblies using Reflector to make that determination myself? In addition to answering those questions, what also might be helpful would be information on the process flow from when a resource is requested to when it starts being processed, not necessarily the ASP.NET Page Lifecycle, but what happens BEFORE ASP.Net worker process starts processing the page and firing off events. The dynamic compilation appears to be smoke and mirrors. Can someone demystify this for me?

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  • can javascript process binary data?

    - by Johnny
    admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

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  • Deleting dynamic pageviews using Javascript

    - by user203127
    Hi, I created dynamic tab creation application using telerik radstrip. I can delete the tabs that are creating dynamically using crossbar option. When i am deleting the tabs its just deleting the tabs but not pageview corresponding to the tab. I have tried to delete the pageviews but i am getting error like "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" and pointing to multiPage.get_pageViews().remove(pageView); code. Can anyone help me how to delete pageviews. Thanks in advance. Javascript code. <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ function deleteTab(tabText) { var tabStrip = $find("<%= RadTabStrip1.ClientID %>"); var multiPage = $find("<%= RadMultiPage1.ClientID %>"); var tab = tabStrip.findTabByText(tabText); var pageView = tab.get_pageView(); var tabToSelect = tab.get_nextTab(); if (!tabToSelect) tabToSelect = tab.get_previousTab(); tabStrip.get_tabs().remove(tab); multiPage.get_pageView().remove(pageView); multiPage.get_pageViews().remove(pageView); if (tabToSelect) tabToSelect.set_selected(true); } /* ]]> */ </script>

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  • Dot Game and Dynamic Programming

    - by Albert Diego
    I'm trying to solve a variant of the dot game with dynamic programming. The regular dot game is played with a line of dots. Each player takes either one or two dots at their respective end of the line and the person who is left with no dots to take wins. In this version of the game, each dot has a different value. Each player takes alternate turns and takes either dot at either end of the line. I want to come up with a way to use dynamic programming to find the max amount that the first player is guaranteed to win. I'm having problems grasping my head around this and trying to write a recurrence for the solution. Any help is appreciated, thanks!

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  • PHP/Javascript limiting amount of checkboxes

    - by Carl294
    Hi everyone Im trying to limit the amount of checkboxes that can be checked, in this case only 3 can be checked. When using plain HTML this works fine. The code can be seen below. HTML example <td ><input type=checkbox name=ckb value=2 onclick='chkcontrol()';></td><td>Perl</td> Javascript Function <script type="text/javascript"> function chkcontrol(j) { var total=0; for(var i=0; i < document.form1.ckb.length; i++){ if(document.form1.ckb[i].checked){ total =total +1;} if(total > 3){ alert("Please Select only three") document.form1.ckb[j].checked = false; return false; } } } </script> The problem appears when replacing the fixed HTML values with values from a MYSQL database. All the information appears correctly, and can be posted to another page via a submit button. However, it seems like the 'value' assigned to each record from the database is not making its way too the javascript function. <td><input name="checkbox[]" type="checkbox" value="<?php echo $rows['TCA_QID'];?>" onclick="chkcontrol();"></td> I have tried changed the name in the javascript function to match the 'checkbox' name.Any advice would be greatly appreciated Thanks

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  • Javascript problem with iframe that's hidden before loaded

    - by Aistina
    I have a page that contains an iframe that gets loaded using Javascript: index.html <iframe id="myFrame" width="800" height="600" style="display: none;"></iframe> <div id="loader"><!-- some loading indicator --></div> <script type="text/javascript"> function someFunction() { var myFrame = document.getElementById('myFrame'); var loader = document.getElementById('loader'); loader.style.display = 'block'; myFrame.src = 'myFrame.html'; myFrame.onload = function() { myFrame.style.display = 'block'; loader.style.display = 'none'; }; } </script> The page that gets loaded in the iframe contains some Javascript logic which calculates the sizes of certain elements for the purposes of adding a JS driven scrollbar (jScrollPane + jQuery Dimensions). myFrame.html <div id="scrollingElement" style="overflow: auto;"> <div id="several"></div> <div id="child"></div> <div id="elements"></div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).load(function() { $('#scrollingElement').jScrollPane(); }); </script> This works in Chrome (and probably other Webkit browsers), but fails in Firefox and IE because at the time jScrollPane gets called, all the elements are still invisble and jQuery Dimensions is unable to determine any element's dimensions. Is there a way to make sure my iframe is visible before $(document).ready(...) gets called? Other than using setTimeout to delay jScrollPane, which is something I definitely want to avoid.

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  • Trigger JavaScript action after Datatable is loaded

    - by perissf
    In a JSF 2.1 + PrimeFaces 3.2 web application, I need to trigger a JavaScript function after a p:dataTable is loaded. I know that there is no such event in this component, so I have to find a workaround. In order to better understand the scenario, on page load the dataTable is not rendered. It is rendered after a successful login: <p:commandButton value="Login" update=":aComponentHoldingMyDataTable" action="#{loginBean.login}" oncomplete="handleLoginRequest(xhr, status, args)"/> As you can see from the above code, I have a JavaScript hook after the successful login, if it can be of any help. Immediately after the oncomplete action has finished, the update attribute renders the dataTable: <p:dataTable var="person" value="#{myBean.lazyModel}" rendered="#{p:userPrincipal() != null}" /> After the datatable is loaded, I need to run a JavaScript function on each row item, in order to subscribe to a cometD topic. In theory I could use the oncomplete attribute of the login Button for triggering a property from myBean in order to retrieve once again the values to be displayed in the dataTable, but it doesn't seem very elegant. The JavaScript function should do something with the rowKey of each row of the dataTable: function javaScriptFunctionToBeTriggered(rowKey) { // do something }

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  • System.Linq.Dynamic and DateTime

    - by Matthew Hood
    I am using System.Linq.Dynamic to do custom where clauses from an ajax call in .Net MVC 1.0. It works fine for strings, int etc but not for DateTime, I get the exception cannot compare String to DateTime. The very simple test code is items = items.Where(string.Format(@" {0} {1}{2}{1} ", searchField, delimiter, searchString)); Where searchField will be for example start_date and the data type is DateTime, delimiter is " (tried with nothing as well) and searchString will be 01-Jan-2009 (tried with 01/01/2009 as well) and items is an IQueryable from LinqToSql. Is there a way of specifying the data type in a dynamic where, or is there a better approach. It is currently already using some reflection to work out what type of delimiter is required.

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  • Dynamic editor upload into web page. Need advice

    - by Andrew Florko
    Hello everybody, I am writing intranet site for tracking employees science activities in organization. There lots of editable information on each personal page (science degree, publications & so on) so I upload editor per request (user clicks "edit" and modal dialog with html editor: set of textboxes/comboboxes/autocomplete features & validation logic appears). Editor is html layout that is wrapped with jquery dialog plugin + some logic, written as javascript functions that should be invoked from the callee page (onsubmit, validate, afterLoad editor events). There are also attributes (editor preferrable with and height) that are passed to callee page also. Currently I send these functions & attribute as ... function onsubmit() { }; function validate() { } var width = 640; var height = 800 ... code that is embedded into the request page. Function calls and editor markup wrap with jquery plugin completed in the callee page. It works, but I have some try { call editor event handler } catch { } stuff in callee page (because not every editor provides these functions) and some attributes (editor width & height for instance) that are loaded as variables declared in javascript. Please, suggest, is there a better approach to build & use custom editors for my situation. Thank you in advance!

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  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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  • Dynamic query to immediate execute?

    - by Curtis White
    I am using the MSDN Dynamic linq to sql package. It allows using strings for queries. But, the returned type is an IQueryable and not an IQueryable<T>. I do not have the ToList() method. How can I this immediate execute without manually enumerating over the IQueryable? My goal is to databind to the Selecting event on a linqtosql datasource and that throws a datacontext disposed exception. I can set the query as the Datasource on a gridview though. Any help greatly appreciated! Thanks. The dynamic linq to sql is the one from the samples that comes with visual studio.

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  • Calling a javascript function from an aspx.cs code behind

    - by David Hodgson
    Hi, I would like to call a javascript function from an aspx control. For instance, suppose I had: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function test(x, y) { } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" onclick="Button1_Click"/> </div> </form> </body> </html> and in the code behind: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // do stuff (really going to a database to fill x and y) int[] x = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; int[] y = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; // call javascript function as test(x,y); } Is there a way to do it? DUPLICATE:calling-a-javascript-function-at-the-end-of-button-click-code-behind

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  • Why is my JavaScript function "a" not defined?

    - by 4l3x
    When I call my JavaScript function B, the javascript console in firefox said that function A is not defined, but on chrome browser if defined. And when I call function "A" in body segment: <input type="button" onclick="A()" value=" ..A.. "> , firefox said that function B is not defined? :S <html> <head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function B(){ alert(" hi B "); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onClick="A()" value=" ..A..">'); }; function A(){ alert(" hi A"); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..b..">'); if (window.WebCL == undefined) { alert("Unfortunately your system does not support WebCL. "); return false; } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..B.. "> </body> </html>

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  • Login form validation using javascript and php

    - by ipl
    Hi, I have been trying to create a login form using javascript.My login form needs to do the fllowing using javascript validation 1.login field contains only letters with a minimum of 4 and a maximum of 6 letters 2.password is at least 5 characters long and not more than 7 characters and contains only letters and digits with at least 1 letter and at least 1 digit 3.if the data is incorrect, generate an alert window with an appropriate message and set the cursor to the incorrect input field and the form needs to be submitted to a php file which needs to validate against a text file I tried to use regular expression to check for the login fiels and password in the javascript and i have used a login .php but havent done anything in that till now.However my javascript/html file which i have pasted below doesnt seem to work.Can anyone tell me the issue with my file? Rgds ip function validateFormOnSubmit(theForm) { reason += validateUsername(theForm.username.value) reason += validatePassword (theForm.pwd.value) if (reason == "") return true else { alert(reason); return false } } function validateUsername(fld) { if (fld == "") return "No username entered" else if((fld.length 6) || (fld.length 7 ) { return "length shoild be b/w 4 and 7"; } else if (!/[a-z]/.test(fld) || !/[A-Z]/.test(fld) || !/[0-9]/.test(fld)){ return "passwords rewuire one of the letters or digitys"; } } SignupForm Your user name: Your Password:    

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  • JavaScript doesn't parse when mod-rewrited through a PHP file?

    - by Newbtophp
    If I do the following (this is the actual/direct path to the JavaScript file): <script href="http://localhost/tpl/blue/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> It works fine, and the JavaScript parses - as its meant too. However I'm wanting to shorten the path to the JavaScript file (aswell as do some caching) which is why I'm rewriting all JavaScript files via .htaccess to cache.php (which handles the caching). The .htaccess contains the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^js/(.+?\.js)$ cache.php?file=$1 [NC] </IfModule> cache.php contains the following PHP code: <?php if (extension_loaded('zlib')) { ob_start('ob_gzhandler'); } $file = basename($_GET['file']); if (file_exists("tpl/blue/js/".$file)) { header("Content-Type: application/javascript"); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate'); header('Expires: ' . gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s', time() + 3600) . ' GMT'); echo file_get_contents("tpl/blue/js/".$file); } ?> and I'm calling the JavaScript file like so: <script href="http://localhost/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> But doing that the JavaScript doesn't parse? (if I call the functions which are within functions.js later on in the page they don't work) - so theirs a problem either with cache.php or the rewrite rule? (because the file by itself works fine). If I access the rewrited file- http://localhost/js/functions.js directly it prints the JavaScript code, as any JavaScript file would - so I'm confused as to what I'm doing wrong... All help is appreciated! :)

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  • AJAX UpdatePanel.Visible Property not working with Javascript

    - by Ahmet Altun
    I have code below. I want to hide the update panel by using Javascript (without going to server) when the user clicks Hide button. Although javascript funciton seems to be working fine in debugging, it does not hide! <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" % <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function Show() { document.getElementById("UpdatePanel1").Visible = true; } function Hide() { document.getElementById("UpdatePanel1").Visible = false; } </script> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:Button ID="btnShow" runat="server" Text="Show" OnClientClick="Show(); return false;" /> <asp:Button ID="BtnHide" runat="server" Text="Hide" OnClientClick="Hide(); return false;" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" TextMode="MultiLine"></asp:TextBox> <br /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Gönder" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form>

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  • Loading Javascript through an AJAX load through jQuery??

    - by Jason Axelrod
    I have an javascript that I place into a page using the code below. What the code does is place an object/embed code into a webpage. Simple javascript loader to a NicoVideo movie <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395"></script> This works great in a webpage. But what if I want to load this javascript into a page using AJAX? This no longer works for the obvious reasons, you would need to eval the script in order to get it to run. However, I have no idea how to do this. I am using jQuery on my page; so keep that in mind. I have tried the following code, but it doesn't seem to work through AJAX, or even in a normal page load environment. <script>$.getScript("http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395");</script> Any ideas on how I would get this to work?

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  • Passing Object From Controller to JavaScript JQuery

    - by TMan
    This is driving me crazy. All I'm trying to do is to pass in a Id to a ActionMethod which is working and have an Object be returned to the javascript. Then in javascript, I want to be able to say something like..Objec.Property, ie/ Student.Name, or Student.GPA. Any help is appreciated. I tried json but couldn't get that to work either. ActionResult: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public Epic GetEpicPropertyDetails(int id) { var Epictemplist = epicRepository.Select().Where(x => x.Id.Equals(id)); return Epictemplist.SingleOrDefault(); } javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".ListBoxClass").click(function (event) { var selectedid = $(this).find("option:selected").val(); event.preventDefault(); $.get("/Estimate/GetEpicPropertyDetails", { id: selectedid }, function (result) { $(".TimeClass").val(result); }); }); }); </script> result.Name is obviously wrong I just dont know how to call this the right way.

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  • Javascript function with PHP throwing a "Illegally Formed XML Syntax" error

    - by Joe
    I'm trying to learn some javascript and i'm having trouble figuring out why my code is incorrect (i'm sure i'm doing something wrong lol), but anyways I am trying to create a login page so that when the form is submitted javascript will call a function that checks if the login is in a mysql database and then checks the validity of the password for the user if they exist. however I am getting an error (Illegally Formed XML Syntax) i cannot resolve. I'm really confused, mostly because netbeans is saying it is a xml syntax error and i'm not using xml. here is the code in question: function validateLogin(login){ login.addEventListener("input", function() { $value = login.value; if (<?php //connect to mysql mysql_connect(host, user, pass) or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Connected.');"); echo("</script>"); //select db mysql_select_db() or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Database Selected.');"); echo("</script>"); //query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM logins") or die(mysql_error()); //check results against given login while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ if($row[login] == $value){ echo("true"); exit(0); } } echo("false"); exit(0); ?>) { login.setCustomValidity("Invalid Login. Please Click 'Register' Below.") } else { login.setCustomValidity("") } }); } the code is in an external js file and the error throws on the last line. Also from reading i understand best practices is to not mix js and php so how would i got about separating them but maintaining the functionality i need? thanks!

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