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  • Relational MySQL - fetched properties?

    - by Kelso.b
    I'm currently using the following PHP code: // Get all subordinates $subords = array(); $supervisorID = $this->session->userdata('supervisor_id'); $result = $this->db->query(sprintf("SELECT * FROM users WHERE supervisor_id=%d AND id!=%d",$supervisorID, $supervisorID)); $user_list_query = 'user_id='.$supervisorID; foreach($result->result() as $user){ $user_list_query .= ' OR user_id='.$user->id; $subords[$user->id] = $user; } // Get Submissions $submissionsResult = $this->db->query(sprintf("SELECT * FROM submissions WHERE %s", $user_list_query)); $submissions = array(); foreach($submissionsResult->result() as $submission){ $entriesResult = $this->db->query(sprintf("SELECT * FROM submittedentries WHERE timestamp=%d", $submission->timestamp)); $entries = array(); foreach($entriesResult->result() as $entries) $entries[] = $entry; $submissions[] = array( 'user' => $subords[$submission->user_id], 'entries' => $entries ); $entriesResult->free_result(); } Basically I'm getting a list of users that are subordinates of a given supervisor_id (every user entry has a supervisor_id field), then grabbing entries belonging to any of those users. I can't help but think there is a more elegant way of doing this, like SELECT FROM tablename where user->supervisor_id=2222 Is there something like this with PHP/MySQL? Should probably learn relational databases properly sometime. :(

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  • Open txt files from a directory, compare the values, and output the top 15 in PHP

    - by Anon
    Hello, I recently designed a referral game website for the fun of it. There's a simple MySQL user system with a email verification. It's using the UserCake user management system. On top of this i added a php page that the user could give to "victims" that when they visit it they get "infected" and can infect other users or "victims". This page uses GET to get the username from the url. I have a folder that when a user registers it creates a file with 4 digits and then the username. (ex; 0000Username.txt) All the numbers are the same, it's just so that if a user discovers the folder they won't be able to find the files. There is also a txt file in the same format with IPS in the name. (ex; 0000IPSUsername.txt) The file when visited gets the username from the url, then checks if the text file for that username exists. If the username is present in the url, and a valid user it opens the IPS file and adds the IP of the visitor, then opens the user text file, takes the value and adds one to it, and saves. At the end it makes the difference between saying "You are infected, Username has infected (amount) people." or just you have been infected. Now to what i need! I need to add a hi-scores to the website so people can compete to be the one with the most "infections". I thought i could use readdir to get a list of the files and open them with the value in an array, but i need it to also strip the username from the file name. It would be best if it just saves to a text file like "Username | value" because then i can add echo's of the html tags and have it include the file in the page i want it to be one. Many thanks in advance.

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  • How to use Java on Google App Engine without exceeding minute quotas?

    - by Geo
    A very simple java code inside a doGet() servlet is getting more than a second of cpu time on GAE. I have read some quota related documentation and apparently I am not doing anything wrong. //Request the user Agent info String userAgent = req.getHeader("User-Agent"); I wanted to know what was using the CPU the most, I use a google help recommendation. //The two lines below will get the CPU before requesting User-Agent Information QuotaService qs = QuotaServiceFactory.getQuotaService(); long start = qs.getCpuTimeInMegaCycles(); //Request the user Agent info String userAgent = req.getHeader("User-Agent"); //The three lines below will get the CPU after requesting User-Agent Information // and informed it to the application log. long end = qs.getCpuTimeInMegaCycles(); double cpuSeconds = qs.convertMegacyclesToCpuSeconds(end - start); log.warning("CPU Seconds on geting User Agent: " + cpuSeconds); The only thing that the code above tells me is that inspecting the header will use more than a second (1000ms) of cpu time, which for Google is a warning on the log panel. That seems to be a very simple request and still is using more than a second of cpu. What I am missing?

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  • How does DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would pass the same end-date to the sql proc (per day). And the user would still get the latest data. Please speak to this as well. Given Example: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees 5/1/2010 to 5/4/2010. But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Example proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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  • Combinationally unique MySQL tables

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    So, here's the problem (it's probably an easy one :P) This is my table structure: CREATE TABLE `users_awards` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `award_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `duplicate` int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', UNIQUE KEY `award_id` (`award_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 So it's for a user awards system. I don't want my users to be granted the same award multiple times, which is why I have a 'duplicate' field. The query I'm trying is this (with sample data of 3 and 2) : INSERT INTO users_awards (user_id, award_id) VALUES ('3','2') ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE duplicate=duplicate+1 So my MySQL is a little rusty, but I set user_id to be a primary key, and award_id to be a UNIQUE key. This (kind of) created the desired effect. When user 1 was given award 2, it entered. If he/she got this twice, only one row would be in the table, and duplicate would be set to 1. And again, 2, etc. When user 2 was given award 1, it entered. If he/she got this twice, duplicate updated, etc. etc. But when user 1 is given award 1 (after user 2 has already been awarded it), user 2 (with award 1)'s duplicate field increases and nothing is added to user 1. Sorry if that's a little n00bish. Really appreciate the help! Jack

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  • How do I implement "cash out" on my site using PayPal?

    - by Alex
    I have a credit system set up on my site where user A can purchase a document from user B, let's say for 1 credit and user B's account gets credited, let's say for $1. User B can then "cash out" and recieve the money they earned from my (the site's) PayPal account into their PayPal account (let's assume that their email address is valid for now). When user A purchases a credit, they are taken to PayPal where they can login and complete the purchase, for this purpose I have an IPN listener set up on my site that stores credit information to my site's database. However, I can't find a mechanism to send the "cash out" information (i.e. user's email and amount to be paid) to PayPal. To elaborate: I understand that PayPal sends the IPN when someone purchases from me, but how do I post from my site to PayPal when the user clicks the "cash out" button? I have seen mention of Mass Pay, but can't seem to locate any code samples to go from. Am I missing something, or is there perhaps a different (and better) way to do this? Thanks!

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  • android: consume key press, bypassing framework processing

    - by user360024
    What I want android to do: when user presses a single key, have the view respond, but do so without opening a text area and displaying the character associated with the key that was pressed, and without requiring that the Enter key be pressed, and without requiring that the user press Esc to make the text area go away. For example, when user presses "u" (and doesn't press Enter), that means "undo the last action", so the controller and model immediately undo the last action, then the view does an invalidate() and user sees that their last action has been undone. In other words the "u" key press should be silently processed, such that the only visual result is that user's last action has been undone. I've implemented OnKeyListener and provided an onKey() method: the class: public class MyGameView extends View implements OnKeyListener{ in the constructor: //2010jun06, phj: With onKey(), helps let this View consume key presses // before the framework gets a chance to consume the key press. setOnKeyListener((View.OnKeyListener)this); the onKey() method: public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_R) { Log.d("BWA", "In onKey received keycode associated with R."); } return true; // meaning the event (key press) has been consumed, so // the framework should not handle this event. } but when user presses "u" key on the emulator keypad, a textarea is opened at the bottom of the screen, the "u" charater is displayed there, and the onKey() method doesn't execute until user presses the Enter key. Is there a way to make android do what I want? Thanks,

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  • Different approaches for finding users within Active Directory

    - by EvilDr
    I'm a newbie to AD programming, but after a couple of weeks of research have found the following three ways to search for users in Active Directory using the account name as the search parameter: Option 1 - FindByIdentity Dim ctx As New PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, Environment.MachineName) Dim u As UserPrincipal = UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity(ctx, IdentityType.SamAccountName, "MYDOMAIN\Administrator") If u Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else Trace.Warn("Name=" & u.Name) Trace.Warn("DisplayName=" & u.DisplayName) Trace.Warn("DistinguishedName=" & u.DistinguishedName) Trace.Warn("EmployeeId=" & u.EmployeeId) Trace.Warn("EmailAddress=" & u.EmailAddress) End If Option 2 - DirectorySearcher Dim connPath As String = "LDAP://" & Environment.MachineName Dim de As New DirectoryEntry(connPath) Dim ds As New DirectorySearcher(de) ds.Filter = String.Format("(&(objectClass=user)(anr={0}))", Split(User.Identity.Name, "\")(1)) ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("name") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("displayName") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("distinguishedName") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("employeeId") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail") Dim src As SearchResult = ds.FindOne() If src Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else For Each propertyKey As String In src.Properties.PropertyNames Dim valueCollection As ResultPropertyValueCollection = src.Properties(propertyKey) For Each propertyValue As Object In valueCollection Trace.Warn(propertyKey & "=" & propertyValue.ToString) Next Next End If Option 3 - PrincipalSearcher Dim ctx2 As New PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, Environment.MachineName) Dim sp As New UserPrincipal(ctx2) sp.SamAccountName = "MYDOMAIN\Administrator" Dim s As New PrincipalSearcher s.QueryFilter = sp Dim p2 As UserPrincipal = s.FindOne() If p2 Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else Trace.Warn(p2.Name) Trace.Warn(p2.DisplayName) Trace.Warn(p2.DistinguishedName) Trace.Warn(p2.EmployeeId) Trace.Warn(p2.EmailAddress) End If All three of these methods return the same results, but I was wondering if any particular method is better or worse than the others? Option 1 or 3 seem to be the best as they provide strongly-typed property names, but I might be wrong? My overall objective is to find a single user within AD based on the user principal value passed via the web browser when using Windows Authentication on a site (e.g. "MYDOMAIN\MyUserAccountName")

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  • Fluent NHibernate AutoMap

    - by Markus
    Hi. I have a qouestion regarding the AutoMap xml generation. I have two classes: public class User { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Name { get; set; } virtual public String Email { get; set; } virtual public String Password { get; set; } virtual public IList<OpenID> OpenIDs { get; set; } } public class OpenID { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Provider { get; set; } virtual public String Ticket { get; set; } virtual public User User { get; set; } } The generated sequences of xml files are: For User class: <bag name="OpenIDs"> <key> <column name="User_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="BL_DAL.Entities.OpenID, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> For OpenID class: <many-to-one class="BL_DAL.Entities.User, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="User"> <column name="User_id" /> </many-to-one> I don't see the inverse=true attribute for the User mapping. Is it a normal behavior, or I made a mistake somewhere?

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  • CakePHP: Need help using saveField to update a fields in a belongsTo model

    - by afrisch
    I am trying to update a password into two different models/tables in CakePHP. I can update it fine in the parent model, but not the second model. Models: Users (hasOne GameProfile) PK=id Gameprofiles (belongsTo User) FK=user_id Here is a stripped down version of my function in the Users_controller.php: function updatepass() { if (!empty($this->data)) { $this->User->id = $this->Auth->user('id'); $this->User->saveField('sha1password', $this->Auth->password($this->data['User']['newpass'])); $this->User->Gameprofile->saveField('plainpassword', $this->data['User']['newpass']); } } When I execute the function, the users table is updated fine. But the gameprofile table is not updated, rather Cake does an insert. SQL Query Log: 1195 Query UPDATE `users` SET `sha1password` = 'e9443e9f5e1a07832aad1b2f84de1a666daf89b5' WHERE `users`.`id` = 30 1195 Query INSERT INTO `gameprofiles` (`plainpassword`) VALUES ('abc') Is there a way to get CakePHP to do an update using saveField on a model with a belongsTo attribute? I've tried various ways to refer to user_id before executing the second saveField, but just can't seem to find the winning combination. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Best way to track the stages of a form across different controllers - $_GET or routing

    - by chrisj
    Hi, I am in a bit of a dilemma about how best to handle the following situation. I have a long registration process on a site, where there are around 10 form sections to fill in. Some of these forms relate specifically to the user and their own personal data, while most of them relate to the user's pets - my current set up handles user specific forms in a User_Controller (e.g via methods like user/profile, user/household etc), and similarly the pet related forms are handled in a Pet_Controller (e.g pet/health). Whether or not all of these methods should be combined into a single Registration_Controller, I'm not sure - I'm open to any advice on that. Anyway, my main issue is that I want to generate a progress bar which shows how far along in the registration process each user is. As the urls in each form section can potentially be mapping to different controllers, I'm trying to find a clean way to extract which stage a person is at in the overall process. I could just use the query string to pass a stage parameter with each request, e.g user/profile?stage=1. Another way to do it potentially is to use routing - e.g the urls for each section of the form could be set up to be registration/stage/1, registration/stage/2 - then i could just map these urls to the appropriate controller/method behind the scenes. If this makes any sense at all, does anyone have any advice for me?

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  • Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

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  • FluentNHibernate: multiple one-to-many relationships between the same entities.

    - by Venemo
    Hi, I'm working on a bug tracking application. There are tickets, and each ticket has an opener user and an assigned user. So, basically, I have two entities, which have two many-to-one relationships with each other. Their schematic is this: User: public class User { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } ... public virtual IList<Ticket> OpenedTickets { get; set; } public virtual IList<Ticket> AssignedTickets { get; set; } } Ticket: public class Ticket { public virtual int Id { get; protected set; } ... [Required] public virtual User OpenerUser { get; set; } public virtual User AssignedUser { get; set; } } I use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature. The problem is, that no matter whether relationship I set, on the side of the User, both collections always contain the same data. I guess Fluent can't tell which end of which relationship belongs to where. I googled around but haven't found anything useful. Could anyone help me, please?

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  • Optimization of SQL query regarding pair comparisons

    - by InfiniteSquirrel
    Hi, I'm working on a pair comparison site where a user loads a list of films and grades from another site. My site then picks two random movies and matches them against each other, the user selects the better of the two and a new pair is loaded. This gives a complete list of movies ordered by whichever is best. The database contains three tables; fm_film_data - this contains all imported movies fm_film_data(id int(11), imdb_id varchar(10), tmdb_id varchar(10), title varchar(255), original_title varchar(255), year year(4), director text, description text, poster_url varchar(255)) fm_films - this contains all information related to a user, what movies the user has seen, what grades the user has given, as well as information about each film's wins/losses for that user. fm_films(id int(11), user_id int(11), film_id int(11), grade int(11), wins int(11), losses int(11)) fm_log - this contains records of every duel that has occurred. fm_log(id int(11), user_id int(11), winner int(11), loser int(11)) To pick a pair to show the user, I've created a mySQL query that checks the log and picks a pair at random. SELECT pair.id1, pair.id2 FROM (SELECT part1.id AS id1, part2.id AS id2 FROM fm_films AS part1, fm_films AS part2 WHERE part1.id <> part2.id AND part1.user_id = [!!USERID!!] AND part2.user_id = [!!USERID!!]) AS pair LEFT JOIN (SELECT winner AS id1, loser AS id2 FROM fm_log WHERE fm_log.user_id = [!!USERID!!] UNION SELECT loser AS id1, winner AS id2 FROM fm_log WHERE fm_log.user_id = [!!USERID!!]) AS log ON pair.id1 = log.id1 AND pair.id2 = log.id2 WHERE log.id1 IS NULL ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1 This query takes some time to load, about 6 seconds in our tests with two users with about 800 grades each. I'm looking for a way to optimize this but still limit all duels to appear only once. The server runs MySQL version 5.0.90-community.

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  • Rails creating users, roles, and projects

    - by Bobby
    I am still fairly new to rails and activerecord, so please excuse any oversights. I have 3 models that I'm trying to tie together (and a 4th to actually do the tying) to create a permission scheme using user-defined roles. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :projects, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles, :through => :user_projects end class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :users, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles end class ProjectRole < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :projects belongs_to :user_projects end class UserProject < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :project has_one :project_role attr_accessible :project_role_id end The project_roles model contains a user-defined role name, and booleans that define whether the given role has permissions for a specific task. I'm looking for an elegant solution to reference that from anywhere within the project piece of my application easily. I do already have a role system implemented for the entire application. What I'm really looking for though is that the users will be able to manage their own roles on a per-project basis. Every project gets setup with an immutable default admin role, and the project creator gets added upon project creation. Since the users are creating the roles, I would like to be able to pull a list of role names from the project and user models through association (for display purposes), but for testing access, I would like to simply reference them by what they have access to without having reference them by name. Perhaps something like this? def has_perm?(permission, user) # The permission that I'm testing user.current_project.project_roles.each do |role| if role.send(permission) # Not sure that's right... do_stuff end end end I think I'm in over my head on this one because I keep running in circles on how I can best implement this.

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  • Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

    - by NBrowne
    Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

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  • how to connect to MSSQL using activerecord, JDBC, JTDS and Integrated Security

    - by Rob
    As per the above, I've tried: establish_connection(:adapter => "jdbcmssql", :url => "jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://myserver:1433/mydatabase;domain='mynetwork';", :username => 'user', :password=>'pass' ) establish_connection(:adapter => "jdbcmssql", :url => 'jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://myserver:1433/mydatabase;domain="mynetwork";user="mynetwork\user"' ) establish_connection(:adapter => "jdbcmssql", :url => "jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://myserver:1433/mydatabase;domain='mynetwork';", :username=>'user' ) establish_connection(:adapter => "jdbcmssql", :url => "jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://myserver:1433/mydatabase;domain='mynetwork';integratedSecurity='true'", :username=>'user' ) .. and various other combinations. Each time I get: net/sourceforge/jtds/jdbc/SQLDiagnostic.java:368:in `addDiagnostic': java.sql.SQLException: Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection. (NativeException) Any tips? Thanks, activerecord (2.3.5) activerecord-jdbc-adapter (0.9.6) activerecord-jdbcmssql-adapter (0.9.6) jdbc-jtds (1.2.5) jruby 1.4.0 (ruby 1.8.7 patchlevel 174) (2009-11-02 69fbfa3) (Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM 1.6.0_18) [x86-java]

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  • I just discovered why all ASP.Net websites are slow, and I am trying to work out what to do about it

    - by James
    I just discovered that every request in an ASP.Net web application gets a Session lock at the begging of a request, and then releases it at the end of the request!!! I mean, WTF Microsoft! In case the implication is lost on you, as it was from me at first, this basically means the following: Anytime an ASP.Net webpage is taking a long time to load (maybe due to a slow database call or whatever), and the user decides they want to navigate to a different page because they are tired of waiting, THEY CANT! The ASP.Net session lock forces the new page request to wait until the original request has finished its painfully slow load. Arrrgh. Anytime an UpdatePanel is loading slowly, and the user decides to navigate to a different page before the UpdadePanel has finished updating... THEY CANT! The ASP.Net session lock forces the new page request to wait until the original request has finished its painfully slow load. Double Arrrgh! So what are the options? So far I have come up with: Implement a Custom SessionStateDataStore, which ASP.Net supports. I haven't found too many out there to copy, and it seems kind of high risk and easy to mess up. Keep track of all requests in progress, and if a request comes in from the same user, cancel the original request. Seems kind of extreme, but it would work (I think) Don't user Session! When I need some kind of state for the user, I could just user Cache instead, and key items on the authenticated user's name, or some such thing. Again seems kind of extreme I really can't believe that the ASP.Net Microsoft team would have left such a huge performance bottleneck in the framework at version 4.0! Am I missing something obvious? How hard would it be to use a ThreadSafe collection for the Session? Arrrrghhhhhh. Any advice much appreciated.

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  • Custom authentication module inheriting IHttpModule issue.

    - by Chandan Khatwani
    LoginPage.aspx:- protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Context.Items["Username"] = txtUserId.Text; Context.Items["Password"] = txtPassword.Text; // FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, Context.Items["Username"].ToString(), DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(10), true, "users", FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath); // Encrypt the cookie using the machine key for secure transport string hash = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(ticket); HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, // Name of auth cookie hash); // Hashed ticket // Set the cookie's expiration time to the tickets expiration time if (ticket.IsPersistent) cookie.Expires = ticket.Expiration; Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); } Global.asax file:- void Application_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (HttpContext.Current.User != null) { if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity is FormsIdentity) { FormsIdentity id = (FormsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = id.Ticket; // Get the stored user-data, in this case, our roles string userData = ticket.UserData; string[] roles = userData.Split(','); HttpContext.Current.User = new System.Security.Principal.GenericPrincipal(id, roles); Response.Write(HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name); Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); } } } } I get the following error after signing in This webpage has a redirect loop. The webpage at http://localhost:1067/Default.aspx has resulted in too many redirects. Clearing your cookies for this site or allowing third-party cookies may fix the problem. If not, it is possibly a server configuration issue and not a problem with your computer.

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  • Best approach to cache Counts from SQL tables ?

    - by pixel3cs
    I would like to develop a Forum from scratch, with special needs and customization. I would like to prepare my forum for intensive usage and wondering how to cache things like User posts count and User replies count. Having only three tables, tblForum, tblForumTopics, tblForumReplies, what is the best approach of cache the User topics and replies counts ? Think at a simple scenario: user press a link and open the Replies.aspx?id=x&page=y page, and start reading replies. On the HTTP Request, the server will run an SQL command wich will fetch all replies for that page, also "inner joining with tblForumReplies to find out the number of User replies for each user that replied." select tblForumReplies.*, tblFR.TotalReplies from tblForumReplies inner join ( select IdRepliedBy, count(*) as TotalReplies from tblForumReplies group by IdRepliedBy ) as tblFR on tblFR.IdRepliedBy = tblForumReplies.IdRepliedBy Unfortunately this approach is very cpu intensive, and I would like to see your ideas of how to cache things like table Counts. If counting replies for each user on insert/delete, and store it in a separate field, how to syncronize with manual data changing. Suppose I will manually delete Replies from SQL.

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  • Tracking down origin of I/O in multi-process server

    - by Craig Ringer
    I'm currently trying to track down some phantom I/O in a PostgreSQL build I'm testing. It's a multi-process server and it isn't simple to associate disk I/O back to a particular back-end and query. I thought Linux's perf tool would be ideal for this, but I'm struggling to capture block I/O performance counter metrics and associate them with user-space activity. It's easy to record block I/O requests and completions with, eg: sudo perf record -g -T -u postgres -e 'block:block_rq_*' and the user-space pid is recorded, but there's no kernel or user-space stack captured, or ability to snapshot bits of the user-space process's heap (say, query text) etc. So while you have the pid, you don't know what the process was doing at that point. Just perf script output like: postgres 7462 [002] 301125.113632: block:block_rq_issue: 8,0 W 0 () 208078848 + 1024 [postgres] If I add the -g flag to perf record it'll take snapshots of the kernel stack, but doesn't capture user-space state for perf events captured in the kernel. The user-space stack only goes up to the entry-point from userspace, like LWLockRelease, LWLockAcquire, memcpy (mmap'd IO), __GI___libc_write, etc. So. Any tips? Being able to capture a snapshot of the user-space stack in response to kernel events would be ideal.

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  • Laravel4: Checking many-to-many relationship attribute even when it does not exist

    - by Simo A.
    This is my first time with Laravel and also Stackoverflow... I am developing a simple course management system. The main objects are User and Course, with a many-to-many relationship between them. The pivot table has an additional attribute, participant_role, which defines whether the user is a student or an instructor within that particular course. class Course extends Eloquent { public function users() { return $this->belongsToMany('User')->withPivot('participant_role')->withTimestamps(); } } However, there is an additional role, system admin, which can be defined on the User object. And this brings me mucho headache. In my blade view I have the following: @if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something here... } This works fine when the user has been assigned to that particular $course and there is an entry for this user-course combination in the pivot table. However, the problem is the system administrator, who also should be able to access course details. The if-clause above gives Trying to get property of non-object error, apparently because there is no entry in the pivot table for system administrator (as the role is defined within the User object). I could probably solve the problem by using some off-the-shelf bundle for handling role-based permissions. Or I could (but don't want to) do something like this with two internal if-clauses: if (!empty($course->pivot)) { if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something... } } Other options (suggested in partially similar entries in Stackoverflow) would include 1) reading all the pivot table entries to an array, and use in_array to check if a role exists, or even 2) SQL left join to do this on database level. However, ultimately I am looking for a compact one-line solution? Can I do anything similar to this, which unfortunately does not seem to work? if (! empty ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') ) { // do something... } The shorter the answer, the better :-). Thanks a lot!

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  • Pass List of models to controller ASP.NET MVC 5

    - by user3697231
    I have a view where user can enter some data. But problem is this: Let's say you have 3 text box on view. Every time user can fill multiple times this 3 text boxes. To clarify, let's say user fills this 3 text boxes and press button which adds on form again these 3 text boxes. Now when user clicks submit this form is sent to controller, but how do I sent List of models as parameter. My architecture for this problem is something like this: MyModel public int ID { get;set; } public string Something { get; set; } /*This three textboxes can user set multiple times*/ /*Perhaps i Can create new model with these properties and then /*put List of that model as property here, but how to fill that list inside view ??*/ public string TextBoxOneValue { get; set; } public string TextBoxTwoValue { get; set; } public string TextBoxThreeValue { get; set; } Now, i was thinking that i Create PartialView with this 3 text boxes, and then when user clicks button on view another PartialView is loaded. And now, let's say I have Two partial views loaded, and user clicks submit, how that I pass list with values of these 3 text boxes to controller ??

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  • Rails: bi-directional has_many :through relationship

    - by Chris
    I have three models in a Rails application: Game represents an instance of a game being played. Player represents an instance of a participant in a game. User represents a registered person who can participate in games. Each Game can have many Players, and each User can have many Players (a single person can participate in multiple games at once); but each Player is in precisely one Game, and represents precisely one User. Hence, my relationships are as follows at present. class Game has_many :players end class User has_many :players end class Player belongs_to :game belongs_to :user end ... where naturally the players table has game_id and user_id columns, but games and users have no foreign keys. I would also like to represent the fact that each Game has many Users playing in it; and each User has many Games in which they are playing. How do I do this? Is it enough to add class Game has_many :users, :through => :players end class User has_many :games, :through => :players end

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  • Can you explain this generics behavior and if I have a workaround?

    - by insta
    Sample program below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace GenericsTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IRetrievable<int, User> repo = new FakeRepository(); Console.WriteLine(repo.Retrieve(35)); } } class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class FakeRepository : BaseRepository<User>, ICreatable<User>, IDeletable<User>, IRetrievable<int, User> { // why do I have to implement this here, instead of letting the // TKey generics implementation in the baseclass handle it? //public User Retrieve(int input) //{ // throw new NotImplementedException(); //} } class BaseRepository<TPoco> where TPoco : class,new() { public virtual TPoco Create() { return new TPoco(); } public virtual bool Delete(TPoco item) { return true; } public virtual TPoco Retrieve<TKey>(TKey input) { return null; } } interface ICreatable<TPoco> { TPoco Create(); } interface IDeletable<TPoco> { bool Delete(TPoco item); } interface IRetrievable<TKey, TPoco> { TPoco Retrieve(TKey input); } } This sample program represents the interfaces my actual program uses, and demonstrates the problem I'm having (commented out in FakeRepository). I would like for this method call to be generically handled by the base class (which in my real example is able to handle 95% of the cases given to it), allowing for overrides in the child classes by specifying the type of TKey explicitly. It doesn't seem to matter what parameter constraints I use for the IRetrievable, I can never get the method call to fall through to the base class. Also, if anyone can see an alternate way to implement this kind of behavior and get the result I'm ultimately looking for, I would be very interested to see it. Thoughts?

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