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  • Performance: float to int cast and clipping result to range

    - by durandai
    I'm doing some audio processing with float. The result needs to be converted back to PCM samples, and I noticed that the cast from float to int is surprisingly expensive. Whats furthermore frustrating that I need to clip the result to the range of a short (-32768 to 32767). While I would normally instictively assume that this could be assured by simply casting float to short, this fails miserably in Java, since on the bytecode level it results in F2I followed by I2S. So instead of a simple: int sample = (short) flotVal; I needed to resort to this ugly sequence: int sample = (int) floatVal; if (sample > 32767) { sample = 32767; } else if (sample < -32768) { sample = -32768; } Is there a faster way to do this? (about ~6% of the total runtime seems to be spent on casting, while 6% seem to be not that much at first glance, its astounding when I consider that the processing part involves a good chunk of matrix multiplications and IDCT) EDIT The cast/clipping code above is (not surprisingly) in the body of a loop that reads float values from a float[] and puts them into a byte[]. I have a test suite that measures total runtime on several test cases (processing about 200MB of raw audio data). The 6% were concluded from the runtime difference when the cast assignment "int sample = (int) floatVal" was replaced by assigning the loop index to sample. EDIT @leopoldkot: I'm aware of the truncation in Java, as stated in the original question (F2I, I2S bytecode sequence). I only tried the cast to short because I assumed that Java had an F2S bytecode, which it unfortunately does not (comming originally from an 68K assembly background, where a simple "fmove.w FP0, D0" would have done exactly what I wanted).

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  • JFLAP Turing Machine shortcut problem

    - by Robert Lamb
    In JFLAP (http://jflap.org), there are some shortcuts for Turing machine transitions. One of these shortcuts allows you to transition as long as the current tape symbol isn't the indicated symbol. For example, the transition !g,x;R basically says "Take this transition if the current tape symbol is not g". So far, so good. But the transition I want is !?,~;R which basically says "Move right as long as the current symbol is not the end-of-string (empty cell) symbol". The problem is I cannot figure out how to type in "!?". The JFLAP online documentation (http://www.jflap.org/tutorial/turing/one/index.html#syntax) has this to say: The first shortcut is that there exists the option of using the “!” character to convey the meaning of “any character but this character.” For example, concerning the transition (!a; x, R), if the head encounters any character but an “a”, it will replace the character with an “x” and move right. To write the expression “!?”, just type a “1” in when inputting a command. My question is...how do I actually do what that last sentence is trying to explain to me? Thanks for your help! Robert

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  • memcache is not storing data accross requests

    - by morpheous
    I am new to using memcache, so I may be doing something wrong. I have written a wrapper class around memcache. The wrapper class has only static methods, so is a quasi singleton. The class looks something like this: class myCache { private static $memcache = null; private static $initialized = false; public static function init() { if (self::$initialized) return; self::$memcache = new Memcache(); if (self::configure()) //connects to daemon { self::store('foo', 'bar'); } else throw ConnectionError('I barfed'); } public static function store($key, $data, $flag=MEMCACHE_COMPRESSED, $timeout=86400) { if (self::$memcache->get($key)!== false) return self::$memcache->replace($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); return self::$memcache->set($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); } public static function fetch($key) { return self::$memcache->get($key); } } //in my index.php file, I use the class like this require_once('myCache.php'); myCache::init(); echo 'Stored value is: '. myCache::fetch('foo'); The problem is that the myCache::init() method is being executed in full everytime a page is requested. I then remembered that static variables do not maintain state accross page requests. So I decided instead, to store the flag that indicates whether the server contains the start up data (for our purposes, the variable 'foo', with value 'bar') in memcache itself. Once the status flag is stored in memcache itself, It solves the problem of the initialisation data being loaded for every page request (which quite frankly, defeats the purpose of memcache). However, having solved that problem, when I come to fetch the data in memcache, it is empty. I dont understand whats going on. Can anyone clarify how I can store my data once and retrieve it accross page requests? BTW, (just to clarify), the get/set is working correctly, and if I allow memcache to load the initialisation data for each page request, (which is silly), then the data is available in memcache.

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  • Jqyery Bugs?? Long decimal number after two numbers multiply...

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I am working on a shopping site and I am trying to calculate the subtotal of products. I got my price from a array and quantity from getJSON response array. Two of them multiply comes to my subtotal. I can change the quantity and it will comes out different subtotal. However,when I change the quantity to certain number, the final subtotal is like 259.99999999994 or some long decimal number. I use console.log to check the $price and $qty. Both of them are in the correct format ex..299.99 and 6 quantity.I have no idea what happen. I would appreciate it if someone can help me about it. Here is my Jquery code. $(".price").each(function(index, price){ $price=$(this); //get the product id and the price shown on the page var id=$price.closest('tr').attr('id'); var indiPrice=$($price).html(); //take off $ indiPrice=indiPrice.substring(1) //make sure it is number format var aindiPrice=Number(indiPrice); //push into the array productIdPrice[id]=(aindiPrice); var url=update.php $.getJSON( url, {productId:tableId, //tableId is from the other jquery code which refers to qty:qty}, productId function(responseProduct){ $.each(responseProduct, function(productIndex, Qty){ //loop the return data if(productIdPrice[productIndex]){ //get the price from the previous array we create X Qty newSub=productIdPrice[productIndex]*Number(Qty); //productIdPrice[productIndex] are the price like 199.99 or 99.99 // Qty are Quantity like 9 or 10 or 3 sum+=newSub; newSub.toFixed(2); //try to solve the problem with toFixed but didn't work console.log("id: "+productIdPrice[productIndex]) console.log("Qty: "+Qty); console.log(newSub); **//newSub sometime become XXXX.96999999994** }; Thanks again!

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  • MySQL PHP SELECT throwing up an error?

    - by user1909695
    I am trying to make a comment section on my hand made site, using PHP and MySQL. I have got the comments stored in my database, but when I try to SELECT them my site throws up this error, mysql_result() [function.mysql-result]: Unable to jump to row 0 on MySQL result index 9 in /home/a9210109/public_html/comments.php on line 16 My code so far is below <?php $comment = $_POST['comment']; $mysql_host = ""; $mysql_database = ""; $mysql_user = ""; $mysql_password = ""; mysql_connect($mysql_host,$mysql_user,$mysql_password); @mysql_select_db($mysql_database) or die( "Unable to select database"); $CreateTable = "CREATE TABLE comments (comment VARCHAR(255), time VARCHAR(255));"; mysql_query($CreateTable); $UseComment = "INSERT INTO comments VALUES ('$comment')"; mysql_query($UseComment); $SelectComments = "SELECT * FROM comments"; $comments = mysql_query($SelectComments); $num=mysql_numrows($comments); $variable=mysql_result($comments,$i,"comment"); mysql_close(); ?> <a href="#" onclick="toggle_visibility('hidden');">Show/Hide Comments</a> <?php $i=0; while ($i < $num) { $comment=mysql_result($comments,$i,"comment"); echo "<div id='hidden' style='display:none'><h3>$comment</h3></div>"; $i++; } ?>

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  • Twitter O-Auth Callback url

    - by jtymann
    I am having a problem with Twitter's oauth authentication and using a callback url. I am coding in php and using the sample code referenced by the twitter wiki, http://github.com/abraham/twitteroauth I got that code, and tried a simple test and it worked nicely. However I want to programatically specify the callback url, and the example did not support that. So I quickly modified the getRequestToken() method to take in a parameter and now it looks like this: function getRequestToken($params = array()) { $r = $this->oAuthRequest($this->requestTokenURL(), $params); $token = $this->oAuthParseResponse($r); $this->token = new OAuthConsumer($token['oauth_token'], $token['oauth_token_secret']); return $token; } and my call looks like this $tok = $to->getRequestToken(array('oauth_callback' => 'http://127.0.0.1/twitter_prompt/index.php')); This is the only change I made, and the redirect works like a charm, however I am getting an error when I then try and use my newly granted access to try and make a call. I get a "Could not authenticate you" error. Also the application never actually gets added to the users authorized connections. Now I read the specs and I thought all I had to do was specify the parameter when getting the request token. Could someone a little more seasoned in oauth and twitter possibly give me a hand? Thank You

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  • IIS7 integrated mode MVC deploy 404 not found on some actions

    - by majkinetor
    Hello. Once deployed parts of my web-application stop working. Index-es on each controller do work, and one form posting via Ajax, other then that yields 404. I understand that nothing particular should be done in integrated mode. One interesting thing is that 1 AJAX action is working. I don't know how to proceed with troubleshooting. Some info: App is using default app pool set to integrated mode. WebApp is done in net framework 3.5. I use default routing model. Along web.config in root there is web.config in /View folder referencing HttpNotFoundHandler. OS is Windows Server 2008. Admins issued aspnet_regiis.exe -i IIS 7 Any help is appreciated. Thx. EDIT: Noticed one very strange thing. One ajax call works, other ajax call doesn't works as I login, but when I move to ther page and return to that one it starts working ?! Small video of the problem is available here

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  • Telerik RadGrid: grid clientside pagination

    - by ram
    I have a web service which returns me some data,I am massaging this data and using this as datasource for my radgrid (telerik). The datasource is quite large, and would like to paginate it. I found couple of problems when I paginate it in the server side I have to bind the grid again for pagination, which essentially means I have to make a call to WS again to get the data. This is an expensive call for me. I would rather forgo the benefits of pagination and would display all the results in the same page, except for it would be a bit clumsy During the postback RadGrid1.Items.Count happens to be the number of items getting paginated (25- in my case) which is expected as all the items in the datasource are not getting bound. This of course is not an issue. The real issue is that we have some checkboxes which get checked based on some business condition. We add this to our business object/DB later. So if the user has not navigated all the pages, these "checked" items do not get added as pagination limits the "Items" in the grid to those which get bound for that particular page index. My Thoughts: I would rather have some sort of client side pagination, where we can hide/show contents than going to the server and doing a databind every time. Though it will return all the results, the UI will not be clumsy and the grid would have "all the items" during postback Is there a way to do it ? If it were a regular asp.net gridView, can someone point me to a good article which would serve my purpose Ram PS: who else think radgrid is crazy ? (unfortunately I did not make this choice)

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  • Advice Please: SQL Server Identity vs Unique Identifier keys when using Entity Framework

    - by c.batt
    I'm in the process of designing a fairly complex system. One of our primary concerns is supporting SQL Server peer-to-peer replication. The idea is to support several geographically separated nodes. A secondary concern has been using a modern ORM in the middle tier. Our first choice has always been Entity Framework, mainly because the developers like to work with it. (They love the LiNQ support.) So here's the problem: With peer-to-peer replication in mind, I settled on using uniqueidentifier with a default value of newsequentialid() for the primary key of every table. This seemed to provide a good balance between avoiding key collisions and reducing index fragmentation. However, it turns out that the current version of Entity Framework has a very strange limitation: if an entity's key column is a uniqueidentifier (GUID) then it cannot be configured to use the default value (newsequentialid()) provided by the database. The application layer must generate the GUID and populate the key value. So here's the debate: abandon Entity Framework and use another ORM: use NHibernate and give up LiNQ support use linq2sql and give up future support (not to mention get bound to SQL Server on DB) abandon GUIDs and go with another PK strategy devise a method to generate sequential GUIDs (COMBs?) at the application layer I'm leaning towards option 1 with linq2sql (my developers really like linq2[stuff]) and 3. That's mainly because I'm somewhat ignorant of alternate key strategies that support the replication scheme we're aiming for while also keeping things sane from a developer's perspective. Any insight or opinion would be greatly appreciated.

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  • postgresql help with php loop....

    - by KnockKnockWhosThere
    I keep getting an "Notice: Undefined index: did" error with this query, and I'm not understanding why... I'm much more used to mysql, so, maybe the syntax is wrong? This is the php query code: function get_demos() { global $session; $demo = array(); $result = pg_query("SELECT DISTINCT(did,vid,iid,value) FROM dv"); if(pg_num_rows($result) > 0) { while($r = pg_fetch_array($result)) { switch($r['did']) { case 1: $demo['a'][$r['vid']] = $r['value']; break; case 2: $demo['b'][$r['vid']] = $r['value']; break; case 3: $demo['c'][$r['vid']] = $r['value']; break; } } } else { $session->session_setMessage(2); } return $demo; } When I run that query at the pg prompt, I get results: "(1,1,1,"A")" "(1,2,2,"B")" "(1,3,3,"C")" "(1,4,4,"D")" "(1,5,5,"E")" "(1,6,6,"F")" "(1,7,7,"G")" "(1,8,8,"H")" "(1,9,9,"I")" "(1,10,A,"J")" "(1,11,B,"K")" "(1,12,C,"L")" "(1,13,D,"M")" "(2,14,1,"A")" "(2,15,2,"B")" "(2,16,0,"C")" "(3,17,1,"A")" "(3,18,2,"B")" "(3,19,3,"C")" "(3,20,4,"D")" "(3,21,5,"E")" "(3,22,6,"F")" "(3,23,7,"G")"

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by burnt_hand
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • Using ASP.NET SQL Membership Provider, how do I store my own per-user data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I'm using the ASP.NET SQL Membership Provider. So, there's an aspnet_Users table that has details of each of my users. (Actually, the aspnet_Membership table seems to contain most of the actual data). I now want to store some per-user information in my database, so I thought I'd just create a new table with a UserId (GUID) column and an FK relationship to aspnet_Users. However, I then discovered that I can't easily get access to the UserId since it's not exposed via the membership API. (I know I can access it via the ProviderUserKey, but it seems like the API is abstracting away the internal UserID in favor of the UserName, and I don't want to go too far against the grain). So, I thought I should instead put a LoweredUserName column in my table, and create an FK relationship to aspnet_Users using that. Bzzzt. Wrong again, because while there is a unique index in aspnet_Users that includes the LoweredUserName, it also includes the ApplicationId - so in order to create my FK relationship, I'd need to have an ApplicationId column in my table too. At first I thought: fine, I'm only dealing with a single application, so I'll just add such a column and give it a default value. Then I realised that the ApplicationId is a GUID, so it'd be a pain to do this. Not hard exactly, but until I roll out my DB I can't predict what the GUID is going to be. I feel like I'm missing something, or going about things the wrong way. What am I supposed to do?

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  • is an instance variable in an action of a controller available for all the controllers view?

    - by fenec
    I am just trying to printout the parameters that have been entered into my form. basically i create a new bet then i display the parameters: MIGRATION enter code here class CreateBets < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bets do |t| t.integer :accepted ,:default = 0 t.integer :user_1_id #proposer t.integer :user_2_id #receiver t.integer :team_1_id #proposer's team t.integer :team_2_id #receiver's team t.integer :game_id t.integer :winner t.integer :amount t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :bets end end CONTROLLER bets_controller.erb enter code here class BetsController < ApplicationController def index redirect_to new_bet_path end def new @b=Bet.new end def create @@points=params[:points] @@winner=params[:winner] end end VIEWS New.erb New Bet <% facebook_form_for Bet.new do |f| %> <%= f.text_field :amount, :label=>"points" %> <%= f.text_field :winner, :label=>"WinningTeam" %> <%= f.buttons "Bet" %> <% end %> create.erb enter code here points:<%= @@points %> <br> winner:<%= @@winner %>

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  • php funciton problem

    - by Holian
    Hello, i have this little script, which should ping the IPs in the host_to_ping array. This php is called with JS in the index.html. But somethin' wrong, 'coz the $rval is always 1 (which mean the host is unreachable). But i know that the first two host is alive. So i print the $res variable, and i see the message: Need to give the IP. I dont understand why dont replace the $host variable to the actual IP address in the function. <?php function ping($host) { exec(sprintf('ping -n 4', escapeshellarg($host)), $res, $rval); print_r($res); return $rval === 0; } $hosts_to_ping = array('10.54.23.254', '10.22.23.254', '10.23.66.134'); ?> <ul> <?php foreach ($hosts_to_ping as $host): ?> <li> <?php echo $host; ?> <?php $up = ping($host); ?> (<img src="<?php echo $up ? 'on' : 'off'; ?>" alt="<?php echo $up ? 'up' : 'down'; ?>">) </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul>

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  • Javascript callback with AJAX + jQuery

    - by Fred
    Hey! I have this jQuery code (function () { function load_page (pagename) { $.ajax({ url: "/backend/index.php/frontend/pull_page/", type: "POST", data: {page: pagename}, success: function (json) { var parsed = $.parseJSON(json); console.log(parsed); return parsed; }, error: function (error) { $('#content').html('Sorry, there was an error: <br>' + error); return false; } }); } ... var json = load_page(page); console.log(json); if (json == false) { $('body').fadeIn(); } else { document.title = json.pagename + ' | The Other Half | freddum.com'; $("#content").html(json.content); $('#header-navigation-ul a:Contains('+page+')').addClass('nav-selected'); $('body').fadeIn(); } })(); and, guessed it, it doesn't work. The AJAX fires fine, the server returns valid JSON but the console.log(json); returns undefined and the js crashes when it gets to json.pagename. The first console.log(parsed) also returns good data so it's just a problem with the return (I think). I knew I was clutching at straws and would be extremely if this worked, but it doesn't. To be honest, I don't know how to program callback functions for this situation. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • rspec and ruby 1.9.1: problem with dummy controller and routes

    - by giorgian
    I want to test a module that basically executes some verify statements, to ensure that actions are invoked with the correct method. # /lib/rest_verification.rb module RestVerification def self.included(base) # :nodoc: base.extend(ClassMethods) end module ClassMethods def verify_rest_actions verify :method => :post, :only => [:create], :redirect_to => { :action => :new } ... end end end I tried this: describe RestVerification do class FooController < ActionController::Base include RestVerification verify_rest_actions def new ; end def index ; end def create ; end def edit ; end def update ; end def destroy ; end end # controller_name 'foo' # this only works with ruby 1.8.7 : 1.9.1 says "uninitialized constant FooController" tests FooController # this works with both before(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :foo end end after(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.reload! end it ':create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' do [:get, :put, :delete].each do |verb| send verb, :create response.should redirect_to(new_foo_url) end end ... end When testing: $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i486-linux] $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb Finished in 0.175586 seconds $ rvm use 1.9.1 Using ruby 1.9.1 p378 $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb (FAILED - 1) 1) 'RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' FAILED expected redirect to "http://test.host/foo/new", got redirect to "http://test.host/spec/rails/example/controller_example_group/subclass_1/foo/new" Is this a known issue? Is there a workaround?

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  • Redirecting users after destroy

    - by mathee
    I have 3 models: Questions, Answers, and Profiles (I know, it should be called "Users"). When you view a question Q, I query the database for the answers to Q. (They are linked by id.) In the view, the current user has the option to delete his answer by clicking on the destroy link displayed next to his answer: %table %tr %td Answers: - @answers.each do |a| %tr %td - @provider = Profile.find(a.provider) %i #{h @provider.username} said: %br #{h a.description} %td = link_to 'View full answer', a %td - if a.provider == @profile.id #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete} The problem is that when the user clicks on the destroy link, it redirects to the /answers/index. I want it to redirect to /questions/Q. What's the best way to do this? I know that there's a redirect_to method, but I don't know how to implement it when I want to redirect to an action for a different controller. It also needs to remember the question from which the answer is being deleted. I tried passing something like :question_id in link_to as: #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :question_id => @question.id, :method => :delete} In AnswersController#destroy: def destroy @answer = Answer.find(params[:id]) @answer.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(answers_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) redirect_to question_path(@question) end The :question_id information is not passed to the destroy method, so I get this error: Couldn't find Question without an ID To confirm, I added a puts call before Question.find, and it returned nil.

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  • A GUID as the MySQL table's Primary Key or as a separate column

    - by Ben
    I have a multi-process program that performs, in a 2 hour period, 5-10 million inserts to a 34GB table within a single Master/Slave MySQL setup (plus an equal number of reads in that period). The table in question has only 5 fields and 3 (single field) indexes. The primary key is auto-incrementing. I am far from a DBA, but the database appears to be crippled during this two hour period. So, I have a couple of general questions. 1) How much bang will I get out of batching these writes into units of 10? Currently, I am writing each insert serially because, after writing, I immediately need to know, in my program, the resulting primary key of each insert. The PK is the only unique field presently and approximating the order of insertion with something like a Datetime field or a multi-column value is not acceptable. If I perform a bulk insert, I won't know these IDs, which is a problem. So, I've been thinking about turning the auto-increment primary key into a GUID and enforcing uniqueness. I've also been kicking around the idea of creating a new column just for the purposes of the GUID. I don't really see the what that achieves though, that the PK approach doesn't already offer. As far as I can tell, the big downside to making the PK a randomly generated number is that the index would take a long time to update on each insert (since insertion order would not be sequential). Is that an acceptable approach for a table that is taking this number of writes? Thanks, Ben

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  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

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  • How to bind to another event after ajax call in jquery

    - by robert
    Hi, I'm creating a graph using flot javascript library. I have enabled clickable event and the div is binded to plotclick event. So, when a datapoint is clicked, an ajax call is made and the result is used to replace the current div. After this i need to bind the div to a new event. I tried to call bind, but it is still bound to old callback. When i call unbind and bind, the new callback is not called. var handleTeacherClick = function( event, pos, item ) { if( typeof item != "undefined" && item ) { var user_id = jQuery( 'input[name="id' + item.datapoint[0] + '"]' ).val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: BASEPATH + 'index.php/ajax/home/latest', data: { "user_id": user_id }, dataType: 'json', success: function ( result ) { jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_prog'), result.progress_data, result.progress_options); jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_perf'), result.performance_data, result.performance_options); jQuery('.stats_title'). html('<span class="stats_title">'+ ' >> Chapter '+Math.ceil(item.datapoint[0])+'</span>'); jQuery('#stats_prog')./*unbind("plotclick").*/ bind('plotclick', statClickHandler ); jQuery('#stats_perf')./*unbind("plotclick"). */ bind( 'plotclick', statClickHandler ); }, }); } }

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  • Adding defaults and indexes to a script/generate command in a Rails Template?

    - by charliepark
    I'm trying to set up a Rails Template that would allow for comprehensive set-up of a specific Rails app. Using Pratik Naik's overview (http://m.onkey.org/2008/12/4/rails-templates), I was able to set up a couple of scaffolds and models, with a line that looks something like this ... generate("scaffold", "post", "title:string", "body:string") I'm now trying to add in Delayed Jobs, which normally has a migration file that looks like this: create_table :delayed_jobs, :force => true do |table| table.integer :priority, :default => 0 # Allows some jobs to jump to the front of the queue table.integer :attempts, :default => 0 # Provides for retries, but still fail eventually. table.text :handler # YAML-encoded string of the object that will do work table.text :last_error # reason for last failure (See Note below) table.datetime :run_at # When to run. Could be Time.now for immediately, or sometime in the future. table.datetime :locked_at # Set when a client is working on this object table.datetime :failed_at # Set when all retries have failed (actually, by default, the record is deleted instead) table.string :locked_by # Who is working on this object (if locked) table.timestamps end So, what I'm trying to do with the Rails template, is to add in that :default = 0 into the master template file. I know that the rest of the template's command should look like this: generate("migration", "createDelayedJobs", "priority:integer", "attempts:integer", "handler:text", "last_error:text", "run_at:datetime", "locked_at:datetime", "failed_at:datetime", "locked_by:string") Where would I put (or, rather, what is the syntax to add) the :default values in that? And if I wanted to add an index, what's the best way to do that?

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  • Third party multipart request in playframework

    - by Brian
    I'm making an application to post photos to yfrog and twitpic and I am having a little trouble figuring out how to set the parameters. Here is my code: public static Result index() { HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); WSRequestHolder holder = WS.url("http://api.twitpic.com/2/upload.json"); holder.setHeader("Authorization", ""); return async(holder.post("").map(new Function<WS.Response, Result>() { public Result apply(WS.Response response) { return ok(response.getBody()); } })); } Now, I don't expect this to actually get an ok response from the server, as I am just testing the responses that I get back from the server, and that is one that says I need to provide the api key. I figured as much, but I'm not sure of the syntax for providing that parameter, as I need to also give the name of the file and the file. I tried setting holder.post("key=somekey"), with the hope that I would get a different error message (like the key you provided is invalid) but I just get the same error. I'm assuming that I probably need to send it in the for of a multipart request, but I am not very experienced with this kind of request and can't find any play documentation on how to create a multipart request, other than in an html form. Any suggestions and help will be much appreciated. And fyi, I do know that there are yfrog and twitpic java classes to handle this kind of stuff, but I want to do it myself, more so for learning how to do this kind of stuff. Thanks in advance!

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  • Managing multiple customer databases in ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Robert Harvey
    I am building an application that requires separate SQL Server databases for each customer. To achieve this, I need to be able to create a new customer folder, put a copy of a prototype database in the folder, change the name of the database, and attach it as a new "database instance" to SQL Server. The prototype database contains all of the required table, field and index definitions, but no data records. I will be using SMO to manage attaching, detaching and renaming the databases. In the process of creating the prototype database, I tried attaching a copy of the database (companion .MDF, .LDF pair) to SQL Server, using Sql Server Management Studio, and discovered that SSMS expects the database to reside in c:\program files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.1\MSSQL\DATA\MyDatabaseName.MDF Is this a "feature" of SQL Server? Is there a way to manage individual databases in separate directories? Or am I going to have to put all of the customer databases in the same directory? (I was hoping for a little better control than this). NOTE: I am currently using SQL Server Express, but for testing purposes only. The production database will be SQL Server 2008, Enterprise version. So "User Instances" are not an option.

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  • Lookup table size reduction

    - by Ryan
    Hello: I have an application in which I have to store a couple of millions of integers, I have to store them in a Look up table, obviously I cannot store such amount of data in memory and in my requirements I am very limited I have to store the data in an embebedded system so I am very limited in the space, so I would like to ask you about recommended methods that I can use for the reduction of the look up table. I cannot use function approximation such as neural networks, the values needs to be in a table. The range of the integers is not known at the moment. When I say integers I mean a 32 bit value. Basically the idea is use some copmpression method to reduce the amount of memory but without losing many precision. This thing needs to run in hardware so the computation overhead cannot be very high. In my algorithm I have to access to one value of the table do some operations with it and after update the value. In the end what I should have is a function which I pass an index to it and then I get a value, and after I have to use another function to write a value in the table. I found one called tile coding http://www.cs.ualberta.ca/~sutton/book/8/node6.html, this one is based on several look up tables, does anyone know any other method?. Thanks.

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  • 'LINQ query plan' horribly inefficient but 'Query Analyser query plan' is perfect for same SQL!

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I have a LINQ to SQL query that generates the following SQL : exec sp_executesql N'SELECT COUNT(*) AS [value] FROM [dbo].[SessionVisit] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[VisitedStore] = @p0) AND (NOT ([t0].[Bot] = 1)) AND ([t0].[SessionDate] > @p1)',N'@p0 int,@p1 datetime', @p0=1,@p1='2010-02-15 01:24:00' (This is the actual SQL taken from SQL Profiler on SQL Server 2008.) The query plan generated when I run this SQL from within Query Analyser is perfect. It uses an index containing VisitedStore, Bot, SessionDate. The query returns instantly. However when I run this from C# (with LINQ) a different query plan is used that is so inefficient it doesn't even return in 60 seconds. This query plan is trying to do a key lookup on the clustered primary key which contains a couple million rows. It has no chance of returning. What I just can't understand though is that the EXACT same SQL is being run - either from within LINQ or from within Query Analyser yet the query plan is different. I've ran the two queries many many times and they're now running in isolation from any other queries. The date is DateTime.Now.AddDays(-7), but I've even hardcoded that date to eliminate caching problems. Is there anything i can change in LINQ to SQL to affect the query plan or try to debug this further? I'm very very confused!

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