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  • Correlation formula explanation needed d3.js

    - by divakar
    function getCorrelation(xArray, yArray) { alert(xArray); alert(yArray); function sum(m, v) {return m + v;} function sumSquares(m, v) {return m + v * v;} function filterNaN(m, v, i) {isNaN(v) ? null : m.push(i); return m;} // clean the data (because we know that some values are missing) var xNaN = _.reduce(xArray, filterNaN , []); var yNaN = _.reduce(yArray, filterNaN , []); var include = _.intersection(xNaN, yNaN); var fX = _.map(include, function(d) {return xArray[d];}); var fY = _.map(include, function(d) {return yArray[d];}); var sumX = _.reduce(fX, sum, 0); var sumY = _.reduce(fY, sum, 0); var sumX2 = _.reduce(fX, sumSquares, 0); var sumY2 = _.reduce(fY, sumSquares, 0); var sumXY = _.reduce(fX, function(m, v, i) {return m + v * fY[i];}, 0); var n = fX.length; var ntor = ( ( sumXY ) - ( sumX * sumY / n) ); var dtorX = sumX2 - ( sumX * sumX / n); var dtorY = sumY2 - ( sumY * sumY / n); var r = ntor / (Math.sqrt( dtorX * dtorY )); // Pearson ( http://www.stat.wmich.edu/s216/book/node122.html ) var m = ntor / dtorX; // y = mx + b var b = ( sumY - m * sumX ) / n; // console.log(r, m, b); return {r: r, m: m, b: b}; } I have finding correlation between the points i plot using this function which is not written by me. my xarray=[120,110,130,132,120,118,134,105,120,0,0,0,0,137,125,120,127,120,160,120,148] yarray=[80,70,70,80,70,62,69,70,70,62,90,42,80,72,0,0,0,0,78,82,68,60,58,82,60,76,86,82,70] I can t able to understand the function perfectly. Can anybody explain it with the data i pasted here. I also wanted to remove the zeros getting calculated from this function.

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  • calling startActivity() inside of a instance method - causing a NullPointerException

    - by Cole
    Heya - I'm trying to call startActivity() from a class that extends AsyncTask in the onPostExecute(). Here's the flow: Class that extends AsyncTask: protected void onPostExecute() { Login login = new Login(); login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); } Class that extends Activity: public void pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity() { // start the CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm Activity Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); **ERROR_HERE*** intent.setClassName(this, CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm.class.getName()); startActivity(intent); } And I get this error… every time: 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ContextWrapper.getPackageName(ContextWrapper.java:120) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ComponentName.(ComponentName.java:62) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.Intent.setClassName(Intent.java:4850) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at com.att.AppName.Login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(Login.java:47) For iOS developers - I'm just trying to push a new view controller on to a navigational controller's stack a la pushViewController:animated:. Which apparently - is hard to do on this platform. Any ideas? Thanks in advance! UPDATE - FIXED: per @Falmarri advice, i managed to resolve this issue. first of all, i'm no longer calling Login login = new Login(); to create a new login object. bad. bad. bad. no cookie. instead, when preparing to call .execute(), this tutorial suggests passing the applicationContext to the class the executes the AsyncTask, for my purposes, as shown below: CallWebServiceTask task = new CallWebServiceTask(); // pass the login object to the task task.applicationContext = login; // execute the task in the background, passing the required params task.execute(login); now, in onPostExecute(), i can get to my Login objects methods like so: ((Login) applicationContext).pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); ((Login) applicationContext).showLoginFailedAlert(result.get("httpResponseCode").toString()); ... hope this helps someone else out there! especially iOS developers transistioning over to Android...

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  • Supersized image captions - render outside of JavaScript

    - by Sol
    I am using the jQuery supersized script for a full screen slideshow (not the WordPress plugin as this didn't give me enough control). However, one issue that I am trying to tackle is how to render the image caption text outside of the javascript slides[ ] call - and instead, render them within the page div - to improve SEO on the page. My code works fine right now, images and the caption text are correctly displaying, but looking at the source code, there is very little text outside of the javascript (which is bad for SEO), so I would just like to improve it, if possible. I haven't been able to find any other topic on this subject and so far, I've been unsuccessful at improving on the current code, which is as follows; <!-- Supersized 3.2.7 - By Sam Dunn / One Mighty Roar (www.onemightyroar.com) Released under MIT License / GPL License --> <script type="text/javascript"> var slides=[]; <?php $my_query = new WP_Query ( array( 'post_status' => 'publish', 'post_type' => 'featured', //'numberposts' => 5, 'orderby' => 'menu_order', 'order' => 'ASC', 'showposts' => 50 )); while( $my_query->have_posts() ) : $my_query->the_post(); $slink = get_post_meta($post->ID,'FS_link',true); ?> slides.push({image : '<?php echo get_image_path(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_slideimage_src', true)); ?>', title : '<div class="slidecaptioninside"><h1><?php echo the_title(); ?></h1><p><?php echo strip_tags(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_fitemcaption', true)); ?>...<a href="<?php echo $slink;?>">find out more</a></p></div>', url : '<?php echo $slink;?>'}); <?php endwhile; ?> // start supersized JS $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(window).load(function() { $j.supersized({ //Functionality slideshow: 1, // ..... additional functions go here... slide_captions : 1, //Slide caption (Pull from "title" in slides array) slides : slides, slide_links : 'blank', progress_bar : 1, mouse_scrub: 1 }); }); </script> <div id="slidecontainer"> <div id="slidecaption"></div> <!--Thumbnail Navigation--> <div id="prevthumb"></div> <div id="nextthumb"></div> <!--additional tray divs here--> </div><!--slidecontainer--> I have tried to get Supersized to output the content into a parent div [div id="supersized"] using $j('#supersized').supersized({ but this doesn't appear to work. Has anyone managed to do this differently to improve page SEO?

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  • Issues accessing an object's array values - returns null or 0s

    - by PhatNinja
    The function below should return an array of objects with this structure: TopicFrequency = { name: "Chemistry", //This is dependent on topic data: [1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12] //This would be real data }; so when I do this: myData = this.getChartData("line"); it should return two objects: {name : "Chemistry", data : [1,2,3,4,51,12,0,0, 2,1,41, 31]} {name : "Math", data : [0,0,41,4,51,12,0,0, 2,1,41, 90]} so when I do console.log(myData); it's perfect, returns exactly this. However when I do console.log(myData[0].data) it returns all 0s, not the values. I'm not sure what this issues is known as, and my question is simple what is this problem known as? Here is the full function. Somethings were hardcoded and other variables (notable server and queryContent) removed. Those parts worked fine, it is only when manipulated/retreiving the returned array's values that I run into problems. Note this is async. so not sure if that is also part of the problem. getChartData: function (chartType) { var TopicsFrequencyArray = new Array(); timePairs = this.newIntervalSet("Month"); topicList = new Array("Chemistry", "Math");//Hard coded for now var queryCopy = { //sensitive information }; for (i = 0; i < topicList.length; i++) { var TopicFrequency = { name: null, data: this.newFilledArray(12, 0) }; j = 0; TopicFrequency.name = topicList[i]; while (j < timePairs.length) { queryCopy.filter = TopicFrequency.name; //additional queryCopy parameter changes made here var request = esri.request({ url: server, content: queryCopy, handleAs: "json", load: sucess, error: fail }); j = j + 1; function sucess(response, io) { var topicCountData = 0; query = esri.urlToObject(io.url); var dateString = query.query.fromDate.replace("%", " "); dateString = dateString.replace(/-/g, "/"); dateString = dateString.split("."); date = new Date(dateString[0]); dojo.forEach(response.features, function (feature) { if (feature.properties.count > 0) { topicCountData = feature.properties.count; } TopicFrequency.data[date.getMonth()] = topicCountData; }); } function fail(error) { j = j + 1; alert("There was an unspecified error with this request"); console.log(error); } } TopicsFrequencyArray.push(TopicFrequency); } },

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  • Count seconds and minutes with MCU timer/interrupt?

    - by arynhard
    I am trying to figure out how to create a timer for my C8051F020 MCU. The following code uses the value passed to init_Timer2() with the following formula: 65535-(0.1 / (12/2000000)=48868. I set up the timer to count every time it executes and for every 10 counts, count one second. This is based on the above formula. 48868 when passed to init_Timer2 will produce a 0.1 second delay. It would take ten of them per second. However, when I test the timer it is a little fast. At ten seconds the timer reports 11 seconds, at 20 seconds the timer reports 22 seconds. I would like to get as close to a perfect second as I can. Here is my code: #include <compiler_defs.h> #include <C8051F020_defs.h> void init_Clock(void); void init_Watchdog(void); void init_Ports(void); void init_Timer2(unsigned int counts); void start_Timer2(void); void timer2_ISR(void); unsigned int timer2_Count; unsigned int seconds; unsigned int minutes; int main(void) { init_Clock(); init_Watchdog(); init_Ports(); start_Timer2(); P5 &= 0xFF; while (1); } //============================================================= //Functions //============================================================= void init_Clock(void) { OSCICN = 0x04; //2Mhz //OSCICN = 0x07; //16Mhz } void init_Watchdog(void) { //Disable watchdog timer WDTCN = 0xDE; WDTCN = 0xAD; } void init_Ports(void) { XBR0 = 0x00; XBR1 = 0x00; XBR2 = 0x40; P0 = 0x00; P0MDOUT = 0x00; P5 = 0x00; //Set P5 to 1111 P74OUT = 0x08; //Set P5 4 - 7 (LEDs) to push pull (Output) } void init_Timer2(unsigned int counts) { CKCON = 0x00; //Set all timers to system clock divided by 12 T2CON = 0x00; //Set timer 2 to timer mode RCAP2 = counts; T2 = 0xFFFF; //655535 IE |= 0x20; //Enable timer 2 T2CON |= 0x04; //Start timer 2 } void start_Timer2(void) { EA = 0; init_Timer2(48868); EA = 1; } void timer2_ISR(void) interrupt 5 { T2CON &= ~(0x80); P5 ^= 0xF0; timer2_Count++; if(timer2_Count % 10 == 0) { seconds++; } if(seconds % 60 == 0 && seconds != 0) { minutes++; } }

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  • Create a Counter within a For-Loop?

    - by Todd Hartman
    I am a novice programmer and apologize upfront for the complicated question. I am trying to create a lexical decision task for experimental research, in which respondents must decide if a series of letters presented on the screen make a "word" or "not a word". Everything works reasonably well except for the bit where I want to randomly select a word (category A) or nonword (category B) for each of 80 trials from a separate input file (input.txt). The randomization works, but some elements from each list (category A or B) are skipped because I have used "round.catIndex = j;" where "j" is a loop for each successive trial. Because some trials randomly select from Category A and other from Category B, "j" does not move successively down the list for each category. Instead, elements from the Category A list may be selected from something like 1, 2, 5, 8, 9, 10, and so on (it varies each time because of the randomization). To make a long story short(!), how do I create a counter that will work within the for-loop for each trial, so that every word and nonword from Category A and B, respectively, will be used for the lexical decision task? Everything I have tried thus far does not work properly or breaks the javascript entirely. Below is my code snippet and the full code is available at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.js. Also, the full lexical decision task can be accessed at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.php. Thanks! function initRounds() { numlst = []; for (var k = 0; k<numrounds; k++) { if (k % 2 == 0) numlst[k] = 0; else numlst[k] = 1; } numlst.sort(function() {return 0.5 - Math.random()}) for (var j = 0; j<numrounds; j++) { var round = new LDTround(); if (numlst[j] == 0) { round.category = input.catA.datalabel; } else if (numlst[j] == 1) { round.category = input.catB.datalabel; } // pick a category & stimulus if (round.category == input.catA.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catA.itemtype; round.correct = 1; round.catIndex = j; } else if (round.category == input.catB.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catB.itemtype; round.correct = 2; round.catIndex = j; } roundArray[i].push(round); } return roundArray; }

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  • Visual Studio 2010 and Test Driven Development

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm making my first steps in Test Driven Development with Visual Studio. I have some questions regarding how to implement generic classes with VS 2010. First, let's say I want to implement my own version of an ArrayList. I start by creating the following test (I'm using in this case MSTest): [TestMethod] public void Add_10_Items_Remove_10_Items_Check_Size_Is_Zero() { var myArrayList = new MyArrayList<int>(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.Add(i); } for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.RemoveAt(0); } int expected = 0; int actual = myArrayList.Size; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } I'm using VS 2010 ability to hit ctrl + . and have it implement classes/methods on the go. I have been getting some trouble when implementing generic classes. For example, when I define an .Add(10) method, VS doesn't know if I intend a generic method(as the class is generic) or an Add(int number) method. Is there any way to differentiate this? The same can happen with return types. Let's assume I'm implementing a MyStack stack and I want to test if after I push and element and pop it, the stack is still empty. We all know pop should return something, but usually, the code of this test shouldn't care for it. Visual Studio would then think that pop is a void method, which in fact is not what one would want. How to deal with this? For each method, should I start by making tests that are "very specific" such as is obvious the method should return something so I don't get this kind of ambiguity? Even if not using the result, should I have something like int popValue = myStack.Pop() ? How should I do tests to generic classes? Only test with one generic kind of type? I have been using ints, as they are easy to use, but should I also test with different kinds of objects? How do you usually approach this? I see there is a popular tool called TestDriven for .NET. With VS 2010 release, is it still useful, or a lot of its features are now part of VS 2010, rendering it kinda useless? Thanks

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  • Can I have a workspace that is both a git workspace and a svn workspace?

    - by Troy
    I have checked out now a local working copy of a codebase that lives in an svn repo. It's a big Java project that I use Eclipse to develop in. Eclipse of course builds everything on the fly, in it's own way with all the binaries ending up in [project root]/bin. That's perfectly fine with me, for development, but when the build runs on the build server, it looks quite a lot different (maven build, binaries end up in a different directory structure, etc). Sometimes I need to recreate the build server environment on my local development system to debug the build or what have you, so I usually end up downloading an entirely new working copy into a new workspace and running the build from there (prevents cluttering my development workspace with all the build artifacts and dirtying up the working copy). Of course sometimes I'm interested in running the full build on code that I don't want to check in yet, so I will manually copy over the "development" workspace onto the "build" workspace. Besides taking a lot of extra time copying a lot of files that I don't actually need (just overlaying the new over the old), this also screws up my svn metadata, meaning that I can't check in changes from that "build workspace" working copy, and I often end up having to re-download the code to get it back into a known state. So I'm thinking I make my svn working copy a local git repo, then "check out" the in-development code from the svn working copy/git master, into the local build workspace. Then I can build, revert my changes, have all the advantages of a version controlled working copy in the build workspace. Then if I need to make changes to the build, push those back into the git master (which is also a svn working copy), then check them into the main svn repo. |-------------| |main svn repo| <------- |---------------------| |-------------| |svn working copy | <------- |--------------------| | (svn dev workspace/ | | non-svn-versioned | | git master) | | build workspace | |---------------------| | (git working copy) | |--------------------| Just switching everything to git would obviously be better, but, big company, too many people using svn, too costly to change everything, etc. We're stuck with svn as the main repo for now. BTW, I know there is a maven plugin for Eclipse and everything, I'm mainly interested to know if there is a way to maintain a workspace that is both a git working copy and an svn working copy. Actually any distributed version control system would probably work (hg possibly?). Advice? How does everybody else handle this situation of having a to manage both a "development" build process and a "production" build process?

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  • What is the proper way to change the UINavigationController transition effect

    - by Felipe Sabino
    I have seen lots of people asking on how to push/pop UINavigationControllers using other animations besides the default one, like flip or curl. The problem is that either the question/answer was relative old, which means the have some things like [UIView beginAnimations:] (example here) or they use two very different approaches. The first is to use UIView's transitionFromView:toView:duration:options:completion: selector before pushing the controller (with the animation flag set to NO), like the following: UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [UIView transitionFromView:self.view toView:ctrl.view duration:1 options:UIViewAnimationOptionTransitionFlipFromTop completion:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; Another one is to use CoreAnimation explicitly with a CATransaction like the following: // remember you will have to have the QuartzCore framework added to your project for this approach and also add <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> to the class this code is used CATransition* transition = [CATransition animation]; transition.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseIn]; transition.duration = 1.0f; transition.type = @"flip"; transition.subtype = @"fromTop"; [self.navigationController.view.layer removeAllAnimations]; [self.navigationController.view.layer addAnimation:transition forKey:kCATransition]; UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; There are pros and cons for both approaches. The first approach gives me a much cleaner code but restricts me from using animations like "suckEffect", "cube" and others. The second approach feels wrong just by looking at it. It starts by using undocumented transitions types (i.e. not present in the Common transition types documentation from CATransition Class Reference) which might get your app rejected from App Store (I mean might as I could not found any reference of apps being rejected because it was using this transactions, which I would also appreciate any clarification on this matter), but it gives you much more flexibility on your animations, as I can use other animation types such as "cameraIris", "rippleEffect" and so on. Regarding all that, do I really need to appeal for QuartzCore and CoreAnimation whenever I need a fancier UINavigationController transition? Is there any other way to accomplish the same effect using only UIKit? If not, will the use of string values like "flip" and "cube" instead of the pre-defined constants (kCATransitionFade, kCATransitionMoveIn, etc...) be an issue regarding my app approval in the App Store? Also, are there other pros and cons regarding both approaches that could help me deciding whether to choose each one of them?

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  • DataGridView validating old value insted of new value.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I have a DataGridView that is bound to a DataTable, it has a column that is a double and the values need to be between 0 and 1. Here is my code private void dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { if (e.ColumnIndex == dtxtPercentageOfUsersAllowed.Index) { double percentage; if(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value.GetType() == typeof(double)) percentage = (double)dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value; else if (!double.TryParse(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value.ToString(), out percentage)) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; return; } if (percentage < 0 || percentage > 1) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; } } } However my issue when dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating fires dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value will contain the old value before the edit, not the new value. For example lets say the old value was .1 and I enter 3. The above code runs when you exit the cell and dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value will be .1 for that run, the code validates and writes 3 the data to the DataTable. I click on it a second time, try to leave, and this time it behaves like it should, it raises the error icon for the cell and prevents me from leaving. I try to enter the correct value (say .7) but the the Value will still be 3 and there is now no way out of the cell because it is locked due to the error and my validation code will never push the new value. Any recommendations would be greatly appreciated. EDIT -- New version of the code based off of Stuart's suggestion and mimicking the style the MSDN article uses. Still behaves the same. private void dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { if (e.ColumnIndex == dtxtPercentageOfUsersAllowed.Index) { dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = String.Empty; double percentage; if (!double.TryParse(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].FormattedValue.ToString(), out percentage) || percentage < 0 || percentage > 1) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; return; } } }

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  • Multiple Timers with setTimeInterval

    - by visibleinvisibly
    I am facing a problem with setInterval being used in a loop. I have a function subscribeFeed( ) which takes an array of urls as input. It loops through the url array and subscribes each url to getFeedAutomatically() using a setInterval function. so if three URL's are there in the array, then 3 setInterval's will be called. The problem is 1)how to distinguish which setInterval is called for which URL. 2)it is causing Runtime exception in setInterval( i guess because of closure problem in javascript) //constructor function myfeed(){ this.feedArray = []; } myfeed.prototype.constructor= myfeed; myfeed.prototype.subscribeFeed =function(feedUrl){ var i=0; var url; var count = 0; var _this = this; var feedInfo = { url : [], status : "" }; var urlinfo = []; feedUrl = (feedUrl instanceof Array) ? feedUrl : [feedUrl]; //notifyInterval = (notifyInterval instanceof Array) ? notifyInterval: [notifyInterval]; for (i = 0; i < feedUrl.length; i++) { urlinfo[i] = { url:'', notifyInterval:5000,// Default Notify/Refresh interval for the feed isenable:true, // true allows the feed to be fetched from the URL timerID: null, //default ID is null called : false, position : 0, getFeedAutomatically : function(url){ _this.getFeedUpdate(url); }, }; urlinfo[i].url = feedUrl[i].URL; //overide the default notify interval if(feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval /*&& (feedUrl[i] !=undefined)*/){ urlinfo[i].notifyInterval = feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval; } // Trigger the Feed registered event with the info about URL and status feedInfo.url[i] = feedUrl[i].URL; //Set the interval to get the feed. urlinfo[i].timerID = setInterval(function(){ urlinfo[i].getFeedAutomatically(urlinfo[i].url); }, urlinfo[i].notifyInterval); this.feedArray.push(urlinfo[i]); } } // The getFeedUpate function will make an Ajax request and coninue myfeed.prototype.getFeedUpdate = function( ){ } I am posting the same on jsfiddle http://jsfiddle.net/visibleinvisibly/S37Rj/ Thanking you in advance

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  • Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

    - by Philip Daubmeier
    Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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  • is it possible that a greasemonkey script can work on one computer but not on another?

    - by plastic cloud
    i'm writing an greasemonkey script for somebody else. he is a moderator and i am not. and the script will help him do some moderating things. now the script works for me. as far as it can work for me.(as i am not a mod) but even those things that work for me are not working for him.. i checked his version of greasemonkey plugin and firefox and he is up to date. only thing that's really different is that i'm on a mac and he is pc, but i wouldn't think that would be any problem. this is one of the functions that is not working for him. he does gets the first and third GM_log message. but not the second one ("got some(1) .."). kmmh.trackNames = function(){ GM_log("starting to get names from the first "+kmmh.topAmount+" page(s) from leaderboard."); kmmh.leaderboardlist = []; for (var p=1; p<=(kmmh.topAmount); p++){ var page = "http://www.somegamesite.com/leaderboard?page="+ p; var boardHTML = ""; dojo.xhrGet({ url: page, sync: true, load: function(response){ boardHTML = response; GM_log("got some (1) => "+boardHTML.length); }, handleAs: "text" }); GM_log("got some (2) => "+boardHTML.length); //create dummy div and place leaderboard html in there var dummy = dojo.create('div', { innerHTML: boardHTML }); //search through it var searchN = dojo.query('.notcurrent', dummy).forEach(function(node,index){ if(index >= 10){ kmmh.leaderboardlist.push(node.textContent); // add names to array } }); } GM_log("all names from "+ kmmh.topAmount +" page(s) of leaderboard ==> "+ kmmh.leaderboardlist); does anyone have any idea what could be causing this ?? EDIT: i know i had to write according to what he would see on his mod screen. so i asked him to copy paste source of pages and so on. and besides that, this part of the script is not depending on being a mod or not. i got everything else working for him. just this function still doesn't on neither of his pc's.

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  • How do i know in the detail view what cell in tableview was selected?

    - by Daniel Rotaru
    how can i know what tableview cell was selected?(being in the detail view) The problem is that. I have an table view controller. Here are parsed from the internet entries to the table. So it's a dynamic tabe view that loads from internet. I will not know how many entries will be in the table so i will not know what details view to call when i click a row. So i have maked one view. This view contains an calendar. On this calendar(wich is the detail iew) i will parse data from internet depending on the selected row. For exemple: i have table: entry 1, entry 2,entry 3,entry 4 When i click entry 2 i need to call a php with the argument entry 2. The php will know what entry on the table i have selected and will generate me the correct xml that i will parse. Here is my tableview didSelectRow function: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic -- create and push a new view controller if(bdvController == nil) bdvController = [[BookDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BookDetailView" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; Villa *aVilla = [appDelegate.villas objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:bdvController animated:YES] And here is my self view function on detailviewcontroller: -(void)loadView { [super loadView]; self.title=@"Month" UIBarButtonItem *addButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"ListView" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleDone target:self action:@selector(add:)]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = addButtonItem; calendarView = [[[KLCalendarView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 373.0f) delegate:self] autorelease]; appDelegate1 = (XMLAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; myTableView=[[UITableView alloc]initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 260, 320, 160)style:UITableViewStylePlain]; myTableView.dataSource=self; myTableView.delegate=self; UIView *myHeaderView=[[UIView alloc]initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, myTableView.frame.size.width,2)]; myHeaderView.backgroundColor=[UIColor grayColor]; [myTableView setTableHeaderView:myHeaderView]; [self.view addSubview:myTableView]; [self.view addSubview:calendarView]; [self.view bringSubviewToFront:myTableView]; } I think that here in self load i need to make the if procedure.. If indexPath.row=x parse fisier.php?variabila=title_of_rowx but the question is how i know the indexPath variable?

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  • How can I remove rows with unique values? As in only keeping rows with duplicate values?

    - by user1456405
    Here's the conundrum, I'm a complete and utter noob when it comes to programming. I understand the basics, but am still learning javascript. I have a spreadsheet of surveys, in which I need to see how particular users have varied over time. As such, I need to disregard all rows with unique values in a particular column. The data looks like this: Response Date Response_ID Account_ID Q.1 10/20/2011 12:03:43 PM 23655956 1168161 8 10/20/2011 03:52:57 PM 23660161 1168152 0 10/21/2011 10:55:54 AM 23672903 1166121 7 10/23/2011 04:28:16 PM 23694471 1144756 9 10/25/2011 06:30:52 AM 23732674 1167449 7 10/25/2011 07:52:28 AM 23734597 1087618 5 I've found a way to do so in VBA, which sucks as I have to use excel, per below: Sub Del_Unique() Application.ScreenUpdating = False Columns("B:B").Insert Shift:=xlToRight Columns("A:A").Copy Destination:=Columns("B:B") i = Application.CountIf(Range("A:A"), "<>") + 50 If i > 65536 Then i = 65536 Do If Application.CountIf(Range("B:B"), Range("A" & i)) = 1 Then Rows(i).Delete End If i = i - 1 Loop Until i = 0 Columns("B:B").Delete Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub But that requires mucking about. I'd really like to do it in Google Spreadsheets with a script that won't have to be changed. Closest I can get is retrieving all duplicate user ids from the range, but can't associate that with the row. That code follows: function findDuplicatesInSelection() { var activeRange = SpreadsheetApp.getActiveRange(); var values = activeRange.getValues(); // values that appear at least once var once = {}; // values that appear at least twice var twice = {}; // values that appear at least twice, stored in a pretty fashion! var final = []; for (var i = 0; i < values.length; i++) { var inner = values[i]; for (var j = 0; j < inner.length; j++) { var cell = inner[j]; if (cell == "") continue; if (once.hasOwnProperty(cell)) { if (!twice.hasOwnProperty(cell)) { final.push(cell); } twice[cell] = 1; } else { once[cell] = 1; } } } if (final.length == 0) { Browser.msgBox("No duplicates found"); } else { Browser.msgBox("Duplicates are: " + final); } } Anyhow, sorry if this is the wrong place or format, but half of what I've found so far has been from stack, I thought it was a good place to start. Thanks!

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  • Google Map + MarkerClusterer only takes place when map completely zooms out

    - by user415795
    The clustering works but somehow it only takes place at the maximum zoom out(the largest view with all nations), the moment I zoom in by 1 value, the clustering icon changes back to markers. I try with all kinds of values on the maxZoom and gridSize clusterer options with no help. Can someone please kindly advice. Thanks. <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var markersArray = []; var mc = null; var markersArray = []; var mc = null; var map; var mapOptions; var geocoder; var infoWindow; var http_request = false; var lat = 0; var lng = 0; var startingZoom = 7; var lowestZoom = 1; // The lower the number, the more places can be seen on within the bounds. var highestZoom = 8; function mapLoad() { geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); infoWindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow(); mapOptions = { zoomControl: true, zoom: 2, minZoom: lowestZoom, maxzoom: highestZoom, draggable: true, scrollwheel: true, disableDoubleClickZoom: true, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('map'), mapOptions); } $(document).ready(function () { var searchUrl; var locations; // Place the user's current location marker on the map var Location = new google.maps.LatLng(1.340319, 103.743744); var Location2 = new google.maps.LatLng(1.322347, 103.757881); createMarker('1', Location, 'My Location', '', '', '', '/Images/home.png'); createMarker('1', Location2, 'My Location', '', '', '', '/Images/bb.png'); var bounds = new google.maps.LatLngBounds(); bounds.extend(gameLocation); map.fitBounds(bounds); }); // Create the marker with address information function createMarker(actId, point, address1, address2, town, postcode, icon) { var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, icon: icon, position: point, title: address1, animation: google.maps.Animation.DROP }); marker.metadata = { id: actId }; markersArray.push(marker); mc = new MarkerClusterer(map, markersArray); return marker; } </script>

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  • Best way to ask confirmation from user before leaving the page

    - by JohnathanKong
    Hey Everyone, I am currently building a registration page where if the user leaves, I want to pop up a CSS box asking him if he is sure or not. I can accomplish this feat using confirm boxes, but the client says that they are too ugly. I've tried using unload and beforeunload, but both cannot stop the page from being redirected. Using those to events, I return false, so maybe there's a way to cancel other than returning false? Another solution that I've had was redirecting them to another page that has my popup, but the problem with that is that if they do want to leave the page, and it wasn't a mistake, they lose the page they were originally trying to go to. If I was a user, that would irritate me. The last solution was real popup window. The only thing I don't like about that is that the main winow will have their destination page while the pop will have my page. In my opinion it looks disjoint. On top of that, I'd be worried about popup blockers. Just to add to everyones comments. I understand that it is irritating to prevent users from exiting the page, and in my opinion it should not be done. Right now I am using a confirm box at this point. What happens is that it's not actually "preventing" the user from leaving, what the client actually wants to do is make a suggestion if the user is having doubts about registering. If the user is halfway through the registraiton process and leaves for some reason, the client wants to offer the user a free coupon to a seminar (this client is selling seminars) to hopefully persuade the user to register. The client is under the impression that since the user is already on the form, he is thinking of registering, and therefore maybe a seminar of what he is registering for would be the final push to get the user to register. Ideally I don't have to prevent the user from leaving, what would be just as good, and in my opinion better is if I can pause the unload process. Maybe a sleep command? I don't really have to keep the user on the page because either way they will be leaving to go to a different page. Also, as people have stated, this is a terriable title, so if someone knows a better one, I'd really appreciate it if they could change the title to something no so spammer inviting.

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  • Improved way to build nested array of unique values in javascript

    - by dualmon
    The setup: I have a nested html table structure that displays hierarchical data, and the individual rows can be hidden or shown by the user. Each row has a dom id that is comprised of the level number plus the primary key for the record type on that level. I have to have both, because each level is from a different database table, so the primary key alone is not unique in the dom. example: id="level-1-row-216" I am storing the levels and rows of the visible elements in a cookie, so that when the page reloads the same rows the user had open are can be shown automatically. I don't store the full map of dom ids, because I'm concerned about it getting too verbose, and I want to keep my cookie under 4Kb. So I convert the dom ids to a compact json object like this, with one property for each level, and a unique array of primary keys under each level: { 1:[231,432,7656], 2:[234,121], 3:[234,2], 4:[222,423], 5:[222] } With this structure stored in a cookie, I feed it to my show function and restore the user's previous disclosure state when the page loads. The area for improvement: I'm looking for better option for reducing my map of id selectors down to this compact format. Here is my function: function getVisibleIds(){ // example dom id: level-1-row-216-sub var ids = $("tr#[id^=level]:visible").map(function() { return this.id; }); var levels = {}; for(var i in ids ) { var id = ids[i]; if (typeof id == 'string'){ if (id.match(/^level/)){ // here we extract the number for level and row var level = id.replace(/.*(level-)(\d*)(.*)/, '$2'); var row = id.replace(/.*(row-)(\d*)(.*)/, '$2'); // *** Improvement here? *** // This works, but it seems klugy. In PHP it's one line (see below): if(levels.hasOwnProperty(level)){ if($.inArray(parseInt(row, 10) ,levels[level]) == -1){ levels[level].push(parseInt(row, 10)); } } else { levels[level] = [parseInt(row, 10)]; } } } } return levels; } If I were doing it in PHP, I'd build the compact array like this, but I can't figure it out in javascript: foreach($ids as $id) { if (/* the criteria */){ $level = /* extract it from $id */; $row = /* extract it from $id */; $levels[$level][$row]; } }

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  • Communicate progress from local Service

    - by kpdvx
    An application I'm building uses a local Service for downloading files from the web to the phone's SD card. In this app users can browse lists of books, and read them while online. A user can also download a pdf copy of a book for offline viewing. To handle downloads I'm using a locally bound Service. I do not want this Service to run all the time, only when downloading files. So that the Service can shut itself down when its tasks are complete, I am not binding to the service, rather I'm sending an "enqueue for download" command through the Intent passed to Context.startService. Books available for download are shown in a list. A user can choose to download a book by clicking on its row in the list. On download, I need to show download progress using a ProgressBar on the actual book list row. I need to also show, on the rows, if a book is enqueued for download, or if its download has completed or failed. The books can be shown in different activities throughout the application--in search, or in the user's list of favorite books, for example. When the books are shown in different places, these are not the same objects, but they are uniquely identified by their bookId. Because I do not want to bind to the service from every Activity, my tentative plan was to use a public static final HashMap on the Service class itself to contain a mapping of bookId to download status, an enum of enqueued, downloading, cancelled, etc. Each book view, when displayed, would check this static HashMap, and if the bookId is in the map, retrieve and display its status. I don't particularly like this idea, but at the moment it's the only way I can think of to retrieve status from the Service without having to bind to it and start it. Additionally I need to retrieve download progress percent from the Service, for a given bookId, if it is the active download. Again I'd rather not bind to the service from every activity, so I'm not sure how to go about retrieving current progress from the Service. My current plan is to use some sort of singleton mediator, that the Service will push updates to, and the views can read from. But I'm not terribly happy with this idea. The reason I'd like to avoid binding to the Service from each Activity is 1.) I'm already running another Service and 2.) binding is verbose and I'd like to avoid needing to pass around a reference to the Service (but admittedly this isn't too much of a problem). Perhaps binding to the local Service isn't expensive enough to warrant this other setup? Should I not be concerned about binding to it from each Activity? Maybe this is a non-issue?

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  • Is this the correct way to build a Perl hash that utilizes arrays?

    - by Structure
    This is the first time I have manipulated hashes and arrays in this way -- and it is working. Basically, for every key there are multiple values that I want to record and then print out in the form "key -- value -- value -- val..." My code is as follows. I am surprised that it works, so concerned that it works "by mistake". Is this the correct way to accomplish this task, or is there a more efficient or appropriate method? while ($source =~ m/(regex)/g) { #Get all key names from source $listkey = $1; #Set current list key to the current regex result. $list{$listkey} = ++$i unless $list{$listkey}; #Add the key to the hash unless it already exists. $list{$listkey} = [] unless exists $list{$listkey}; #Add an array for the hash unless the hash already exists. while ($loopcount==0) { if ($ifcount==0) { $listvalue=result_of_some_function_using_list_key; #Get the first list value from the list key. $ifcount++; #Increment so we only get the first list value once. } else { $listvalue=result_of_some_function_using_list_value; #Update the last list value. } if ($listvalue) { #If the function returned a value... push @{$list{$listkey}}, $listvalue; #...then add the value to the hash array for the key. } else { #There are no more values and we need a new key. $listkey=0; #Reset variable. $domain=0; #Reset variable. $loopcount++; #Increment loop counter to exit loop. } } $ifcount=0; #Reset count variable so the next listvalue can be generated from the new key. $loopcount=0; #Reset count variable so another loop can begin for a new key. } foreach $listkey (keys %list) { #For each key in the hash. print "$listkey --> "; #Print the key. @values = @{$list{$listkey}}; #Reference the arrays of the hash. print join ' --> ', @values; #Print the values. print "\n"; #Print new line. }

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  • string and z-depth animation, as3

    - by VideoDnd
    How do I pass this string to my children? formatCount(fcount) is the value I'm trying to pass to children timer is the value the children are recieving now Timer that loops through an array of displayObjects var timer:Timer = new Timer(100); var count:int = 0; var fcount:int = 0; timer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, countdown); function countdown(event:TimerEvent) { count++; fcount=int(count*count/1000); //myText.text = formatCount(fcount); //LOOPS THROUGH MY LIST ITEMS 'see array at bottom' var currentFrame:int = timer.currentCount % frames.length; for (var i:int = 0; i < frames.length; ++i) { frames[i].visible = (i == currentFrame); } } timer.start(); //SUBSTRING AND ZERO PLACEHOLDER function formatCount(i:int):String { var fraction:int = i % 100; var whole:int = i / 100; return ("0000000" + whole).substr(-7, 7) + "." + (fraction < 10 ? "0" + fraction : fraction); } //PASS MATH TO SPRITE HANDLER function spriteHandler(e:Event):void { numbers.setTime(formatCount(fcount)); } //LOST ARGUMENT==>GOES TO NUMBERSVIEW //var numbers:NumbersView; var numbers:*; //MY ARRAY 'list of numbers, one-to-zero' var frames:Array = [new Frame1(),new Frame2(),new Frame3(), new Frame4(),new Frame5(),new Frame6(),new Frame7(),new Frame8(),new Frame9(), new Frame0()]; for each (var frame:Sprite in frames) { addChild(frame); } Example of NumbersView 'increment and place display objects across the stage' function NumbersView() { _listItems = new Array(); previousNums = new Array(); var item:NumberImage; for (var i:Number = 0; i <= 9; i++) { item = new NumberImage(); addChild(item); item.x = i * item.width; _listItems.push(item); } }

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  • How can I make Google Maps icon to always appear in the center of map - when clicked?

    - by JHM_67
    For simplicity sake, lets use the XML example on Econym's site. http://econym.org.uk/gmap/example_map3.htm Once clicked, I would like icon balloon to be displayed in the middle of the map. What might I need to add to Mike's code to get this to work? I apologize for asking a lot.. Thanks in advance. <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { side_bar var side_bar_html = ""; var gmarkers = []; function createMarker(point,name,html) { var marker = new GMarker(point); GEvent.addListener(marker, "click", function() { marker.openInfoWindowHtml(html); }); gmarkers.push(marker); side_bar_html += '<a href="javascript:myclick(' + (gmarkers.length-1) + ')">' + name + '<\/a><br>'; return marker; } function myclick(i) { GEvent.trigger(gmarkers[i], "click"); } var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); map.setCenter(new GLatLng( 43.907787,-79.359741), 9); GDownloadUrl("example.xml", function(doc) { var xmlDoc = GXml.parse(doc); var markers = xmlDoc.documentElement.getElementsByTagName("marker"); for (var i = 0; i < markers.length; i++) { // obtain the attribues of each marker var lat = parseFloat(markers[i].getAttribute("lat")); var lng = parseFloat(markers[i].getAttribute("lng")); var point = new GLatLng(lat,lng); var html = markers[i].getAttribute("html"); var label = markers[i].getAttribute("label"); var marker = createMarker(point,label,html); map.addOverlay(marker); } document.getElementById("side_bar").innerHTML = side_bar_html; }); } else { alert("Sorry, the Google Maps API is not compatible with this browser"); } //]]> </script>

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  • jquery: find common elements in 2 sets of divs

    - by tsiger
    For a markup like this: <div id="set1"> <div id="100">a div</div> <div id="101">another div</div> <div id="102">another div 2</div> <div id="120">same div</div> </div> <div id="set2"> <div id="105">a different div> <div id="101">another div</div> <div id="110">more divs</div> <div id="120">same div</div> </div> As you can see both #set1 and #set2 contain 2 divs with the same id (101, 120). Is it possible somehow with jQuery to find the common elements and add a class to the divs in #set1 that have the same id with divs in #set2? In other words after the script run the above code would look like this: <div id="set1"> <div id="100">a div</div> <div id="101" class="added">another div</div> <div id="102">another div 2</div> <div id="120" class="added">same div</div> </div> <div id="set2"> <div id="105">a different div> <div id="101">another div</div> <div id="110">more divs</div> <div id="120">same div</div> </div> EDIT playing around with it i did something but i am not sure it can go anywhere. I created an array with the ids in both sets and in Firebug i can see an array with the values var arrEl = []; $('#set1 div, #set2 div').each( function(index) { var id = $(this).attr('id'); arrEl.push(id); //maybe somehow check the array for the values that appear twice, and add the class to the //matching divs? });

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  • Line Graph CGPoints from NSMutableArray

    - by Mattog1456
    I have been trying to adapt the code from the accelerometer example such that when the user depresses a uibutton a point is added to a line graph. Working on the converting two floats, which are the result of calculate as below into a CGPoint and converting the CGPoint into an NSValue and then adding this to a NSMutableArray with the following -(IBAction)calculate:(id)sender { self.points = [NSMutableArray array]; CGPoint pt = CGPointMake(d, c); [self.points addObject:[NSValue valueWithCGPoint:pt]]; NSLog(@"%@", NSStringFromCGPoint(pt)); NSLog(@"%@", [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d points", self.points.count ]); } But for some reason I am only getting one object stored in the array, it seems everytime push the calculate button the object pt gets overwritten, on the plus side it has the correct x,y coords. Any ideas on this one? UPDATE Removed self.points = [NSMutableArray array]; and placed it in view did load, also set the first points to 0,0. so that is working ok. Now the next problem is that I have a Graph subclass where the CG Drawing is taking place. I am trying to figure out a simple way to be able to access the above NSMutableArray which is in a ViewController class from the graph class. Am so close to the end but am really stuck, any help would be great. Still trying to draw a line graph on a UIView which is on a UIScrollview. The draw rect method is in the UIView Subclass and everything is working there, I have gridlines and labels on the axis and I can draw manually onto it. But the problem I have is that I cannot read the NSMutableArray of the CGPoints, which are the x and y coords. The ViewController performs a calculation and the results are written to the NSMutable array and this is all working fine as well, I can see the CGpoints and their values being written with NSLogs in the ViewController. I have tried various ways to set the NSMutableArray up as a global but to no avail, everything runs but while I can see the points being written in the ViewController they are just not visible to the UIView Subclass. I have also tried to use the addObserver and observeValueForKeyPath methods and once again while everything runs the subclass cannot see the array. Any ideas, suggestions, tips or thoughts would be great

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  • Improving performance for WRITE operation on Oracle DB in Java

    - by Lucky
    I've a typical scenario & need to understand best possible way to handle this, so here it goes - I'm developing a solution that will retrieve data from a remote SOAP based web service & will then push this data to an Oracle database on network. Also, this will be a scheduled task that will execute every 15 minutes. I've event queues on remote service that contains the INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE operations that have been done since last retrieval, & once I retrieve the events for last 15 minutes, it again add events for next retrieval. Now, its just pushing data to Oracle so all my interactions are INSERT & UPDATE statements. There are around 60 tables on Oracle with some of them having 100+ columns. Moreover, for every 15 minutes cycle there would be around 60-70 Inserts, 100+ Updates & 10-20 Deletes. This will be an executable jar file that will terminate after operation & will again start on next 15 minutes cycle. So, I need to understand how should I handle WRITE operations (best practices) to improve performance for this application as whole ? Current Test Code (on every cycle) - Connects to remote service to get events. Creates a connection with DB (single connection object). Identifies the type of operation (INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE) & table on which it is done. After above, calls the respective method based on type of operation & table. Uses Preparedstatement with positional parameters, & retrieves each column value from remote service & assigns that to statement parameters. Commits the statement & returns to get event class to process next event. Above is repeated till all the retrieved events are processed after which program closes & then starts on next cycle & everything repeats again. Thanks for help !

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