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  • How do I change the application background color at run-time in a Flex 3.5 application?

    - by Adam Tuttle
    I have a Flex 3.5 application that will serve multiple purposes, and as part of the visual changes that I'd like to make to indicate which mode the application is in, I want to change its background color. Currently, the application tag looks like this: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns:com="ventures.view.component.*" xmlns:views="ventures.view.*" layout="absolute" preinitialize="onPreInitialize()" creationComplete="onCreationComplete()" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete()" click="onClick(event)" enabled="{(!chainController.generalLocked)}" backgroundGradientColors="[0xFFFFFF, 0xFFFFFF]" > I've tried using a binding, for both the backgroundColor and backgroundGradientColors attributes: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundColor="{app_background_color}" > —and— <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundGradientColors="{app_background_color}" > but for the former binding is not allowed, and for the latter there is a warning that: Data binding will not be able to detect assignments to "app_background_color". I also ran across this page which seems to indicate that I could do it with the setStyle() method, but the documentation seems to indicate that this method is only available for components, not the main canvas. I suppose I could wrap everything in a <mx:Canvas></mx:Canvas> specificially for this purpose, but that seems wasteful—like Div-itis in HTML or something. What's the best way to change the main application background color at run-time?

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  • Cant install .NET application in Clients PC

    - by Niraj Doshi
    Hello all, My client's PC runs Windows 7 Ultimate with .netframework 4 client profile. I am unable to install my application developed in VS2008. I tried uninstalling .NET Framework 4 From his PC and running the Clean up tool provided by Microsoft. But still I am unable to install it successfully. It provides Error 1001. I tried running the program as administrator. I also tried to Turn on .net 3.5 feature from add or remove program. Thanks in advance. :) Edit: The error what i get is shown here. Furthermore, I have confirmed that it is a 32bit processor and i run x86 release version of setup The application is developed in a Windows 7 OS with .NET Framework 3.5 I have installed this application in 7 PCs which have .NET 3.5 installed in them and having OS Windows XP,Vista and Windows 7; and all are working fine. In clients PC, when I try to install .NET 3.5 again, the installer starts but then it disappears suddenly without doing anything I have tried turning on .NET 3.5 framework feature from control panel Program and Features. I have tried running the program as Administrator I have tried setting the application setup in Windows XP and Vista compatible mode. But still the issue persists. Thanks :)

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  • unicode convertion problem

    - by bhoomi-nature
    Hai frnds i am bhoomi new to php,i am having having below problem in my coding please can you help anyone 1.first i want to open one word document which is having content and i wann to edit it 2.for that i am opening word document from the server and at that time its opening with garbage value(i thing its not converting to utf8 format) 3.wen i delete that garbage value and insert something from textarea to that file it is going to insert and next time onwords its its getting open properly. 4.actually i wann that doc file should open with english words wats there in that doc instead of garbage value..first time opening only its giving problem. i am using below code for that please do the needful $filename = 'test.doc'; if(isset($_REQUEST['Submit'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened file. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else{ // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, 'r'); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); ? Edit file

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  • gem install giving error that I can't change permissions.. chown and chmod not working

    - by user2321289
    so I am trying to install hmac gem install ruby-hmac -v 0.4.0 I am getting the following error message: You don't have write permissions into the /opt/rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1 directory So the output from ls -l is as such: ubuntu@ip-10-38-121-211:~/workspace/cf-release$ sudo ls -l /opt/rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/ I perform a chown on this directory: sudo chown -R ubuntu:ubuntu /opt/rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/ Try to install the gem: ubuntu@ip-10-38-121-211:~/workspace/cf-release$ sudo chown -v ubuntu:ubuntu /opt/rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/ ownership of `/opt/rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/' retained as ubuntu:ubuntu I do another ls -l on the directory: ubuntu@ip-10-38-121-211:~/workspace/cf-release$ ls -l /opt/rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/ total 4 d--------- 8 ubuntu ubuntu 4096 Nov 1 20:43 1.9.1 Doing a chmod 777 to make the directory writeable: ubuntu@ip-10-38-121-211:~/workspace/cf-release$ sudo chmod -v 777 /opt/rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/ mode of `/opt/rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/' retained as 0777 (rwxrwxrwx) ubuntu@ip-10-38-121-211:~/workspace/cf-release$ ls -l /opt/rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/ total 4 d--------- 8 ubuntu ubuntu 4096 Nov 1 20:43 1.9.1 Any idea as to why this would be acting up like this? I am at a loss here.. any help appreciated

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  • How to detect .NET WPF memory leak or GC long run?

    - by Néstor Sánchez A.
    I have the next very strange situation and problem: .NET 4.0 application for diagram editing (WPF). Runs ok in my PC: 8GM RAM, 3.0GHz, i7 quad-core. While creating objects (mostly diagram nodes and connectors, plus all the undo/redo information) the TaskManager show, as expected, some memory usage "jumps" (up and down). These mem-usage "jumps" also remains executing AFTER user interaction ended. Maybe this is the GC cleaning/regorganizing memory? To see what is going on, I've used the Ants mem profiler, but somewhat it prevents those "jumps" to happen after user interaction. PROBLEM: It Freezes/Hangs after seconds or minutes of usage in some slow/weak laptos/netbooks of my beta testers (under 2GHz of speed and under 2GB of RAM). I was thinking of a memory leak, but... EDIT: Also, there is the case that the memory usage grows and grows until collapse (only in slow machines). In a Windows XP Mode machine (VM in Win 7) with only 512MB of RAM Assigned it works fine without mem-usage "jumps" after user interaction (no GC cleaning?!). So, I really have a big trouble because I cannot reproduce the error, only see these strange behaviour (mem jumps), and the tool supposed to show me what is happening is hiding the problem (like the "observer's paradox"). Any ideas on what's happening and how to solve it?

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  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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  • C# error casting from double to int32

    - by orfix
    using NUF = NUnit.Framework; [NUF.Test]public void DifferentCastingTest() { NUF.Assert.That((int)0.499999D, NUF.Is.EqualTo(0)); NUF.Assert.That((int)0.500000D, NUF.Is.EqualTo(0)); // !!! row 1 NUF.Assert.That((int)1.499999D, NUF.Is.EqualTo(1)); NUF.Assert.That((int)1.500000D, NUF.Is.EqualTo(1)); // !!! row 2 NUF.Assert.That(System.Convert.ToInt32(0.499999D), NUF.Is.EqualTo(0)); NUF.Assert.That(System.Convert.ToInt32(0.500000D), NUF.Is.EqualTo(0)); // !!! NUF.Assert.That(System.Convert.ToInt32(1.499999D), NUF.Is.EqualTo(1)); NUF.Assert.That(System.Convert.ToInt32(1.500000D), NUF.Is.EqualTo(2)); //!!! row 3 } The same double value (1.5D) is converted in different way by casting and Convert.ToInt32 (see row 2 and 3), and two double with same mantissa (0.5 and 1.5) is rounded in different mode (see row 1 and 2). Is it a bug?

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  • Give Gridview cell font colour according to condition

    - by vim
    How can I give colour to gridview's cell text according to condition. I have a below gridview and I am taking data in gridview by code behind. <asp:GridView ID="GridView3" runat="server" AllowPaging="true" PageSize="5" AutoGenerateColumns="false" Width="100%" OnPageIndexChanging="GridView3_PageIndexChanging" CssClass="Grid"> <RowStyle CssClass="GridRow"/> <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="No" DataField="id" Visible="false"/> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Scenario" DataField="Scenario"/> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Type" DataField="Type"/> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Station Name" DataField="StationName"/> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Parameter" DataField="PARAM"/> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Value" DataField="Value" SortExpression="Value" DataFormatString="{0:F2}"/> </Columns> <PagerStyle BackColor="White" Height="40px" Font-Bold="true" Font- Size="Medium" ForeColor="Green" HorizontalAlign="Center"/> <PagerSettings FirstPageText="First" LastPageText="Last" Mode="NumericFirstLast" PageButtonCount="3" /> <HeaderStyle BackColor="#ABDB78" ForeColor="Black" Height="35px" Font- Size="13px" Font-Names="verdana"/> </asp:GridView> I am binding data with this grid by code behind. protected void ReservGridBind() { string name = Request.QueryString[1].ToString(); string query = "SELECT SD.id,SD.Scenario,SD.Value,PR.Type,PR.StationName,PR.PARAM from sgwebdb.param_reference as PR Inner join sgwebdb.scenario_data as SD ON PR.Param_Id=SD.Param_Id INNER JOIN sgwebdb.qualicision_detail as Q ON SD.SCENARIO=Q.Alternative where PR.Type='Reservoirs' and Q.Alternative='" + name +"'"; this.GridView1.DataSource = PSI.DataAccess.Database.DatabaseManager .GetConnection().GetData(query); GridView1.DataBind(); condition : if text < 0 then blue colour , text > 0 && text < 4 then green colour, text > 4 then red colour. Please help me for this gridview's cell text colour.

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  • How can I incorporate a data bound list of MenuItems to another MenuItem in WPF?

    - by Julien Poulin
    I have a 'File' MenuItem were I would like to display a list of recently opened files. Here is the xaml I have now: <MenuItem Header="File}"> <MenuItem Header="Preferences..." Command="{Binding ShowOptionsViewCommand}" /> <Separator /> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding RecentFiles}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <MenuItem Header="{Binding DisplayPath}" CommandParameter="{Binding}" Command="{Binding Path=DataContext.OpenRecentFileCommand, RelativeSource={RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"> </MenuItem> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> <Separator /> <MenuItem Header="Exit" Command="{Binding CloseCommand}" /> </MenuItem> However, when I use this code, there is a weird offset around the MenuItems and it looks like there is a container around them. How can I get rid of that? Here is a screenshot of what it looks like:

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  • Dealloc'd Predicate crashing iPhone App!

    - by DVG
    To preface, this is a follow up to an inquiry made a few days ago: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2981803/iphone-app-crashes-when-merging-managed-object-contexts Short Version: EXC_BAD_ACCESS is crashing my app, and zombie-mode revealed the culprit to be my predicate embedded within the fetch request embedded in my Fetched Results Controller. How does an object within an object get released without an explicit command to do so? Long Version: Application Structure Platforms View Controller - Games View Controller (Predicated upon platform selection) - Add Game View Controller When a row gets clicked on the Platforms view, it sets an instance variable in Games View for that platform, then the Games Fetched Results Controller builds a fetch request in the normal way: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController{ if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } //build the fetch request for Games NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Game" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [request setEntity:entity]; //predicate NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"platform == %@", selectedPlatform]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; //sort based on name NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; //fetch and build fetched results controller NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; [predicate release]; [request release]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; return fetchedResultsController; } At the end of this method, the fetchedResultsController's _fetch_request - _predicate member is set to an NSComparisonPredicate object. All is well in the world. By the time - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section gets called, the _predicate is now a Zombie, which will eventually crash the application when the table attempts to update itself. I'm more or less flummoxed. I'm not releasing the fetched results controller or any of it's parts, and the only part getting dealloc'd is the predicate. Any ideas?

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  • Moving UITableView cells and maintaining consistent data

    - by Mark F
    I've enabled editing mode and moving cells around to allow users to position table view content in the order they please. I'm using Core Data as the data source, which sorts the content by the attribute "userOrder". When content is first inserted, userOrder is set to a random value. The idea is that when the user moves a cell around, the userOrder of that cell changes to accomodate its new position. The following are problems I am running into while trying to accomplish this: Successfully saving the the new location of the cell and adjusting all changed locations of influenced cells. Getting the data to be consistent. For example, the TableView handles the movement fine, but when i click on the new location of the cell, it displays data for the old cell that used to be that location. Data of all influenced cells gets messed up as well. I know I have to implement this in: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView moveRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)sourceIndexPath toIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)destinationIndexPath {} I just don't know how. The apple docs are not particularly helpful if you are using Core Data, as in my situation. Any guidance greatly appreciated!

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  • Issue changing innodb_log_file_size

    - by savageguy
    I haven't done much tweaking in the past so this might be relatively easy however I am running into issues. This is what I do: Stop MySQL Edit my.cnf (changing innodb_log_file_size) Remove ib_logfile0/1 Start MySQL Starts fine however all InnoDB tables have the .frm file is invalid error, the status shows InnoDB engine is disabled so I obviously go back, remove the change and everything works again. I was able to change every other variable I've tried but I can't seem to find out why InnoDB fails to start even after removing the log files. Am I missing something? Thanks. Edit: Pasting of the log below - looks like it still seems to find the log file even though they are not there? Shutdown: 090813 10:00:14 InnoDB: Starting shutdown... 090813 10:00:17 InnoDB: Shutdown completed; log sequence number 0 739268981 090813 10:00:17 [Note] /usr/sbin/mysqld: Shutdown complete Startup after making the changes: InnoDB: Error: log file ./ib_logfile0 is of different size 0 5242880 bytes InnoDB: than specified in the .cnf file 0 268435456 bytes! 090813 11:00:18 [Warning] 'user' entry '[email protected]' ignored in --skip-name-resolve mode. 090813 11:00:18 [Note] /usr/sbin/mysqld: ready for connections. Version: '5.0.81-community-log' socket: '/var/lib/mysql/mysql.sock' port: 3306 MySQL Community Edition (GPL) 090813 11:00:19 [ERROR] /usr/sbin/mysqld: Incorrect information in file: './XXXX/User.frm' 090813 11:00:19 [ERROR] /usr/sbin/mysqld: Incorrect information in file: './XXXX/User.frm' 090813 11:00:19 [ERROR] /usr/sbin/mysqld: Incorrect information in file: './XXXX/User.frm' Its just a spam of the same error until I correct it When it did start after it recreated the log files so it must be looking in the same spot I am.

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  • Reference problem when returning an object from array in PHP

    - by avastreg
    I've a reference problem; the example should be more descriptive than me :P I have a class that has an array of objects and retrieve them through a key (string), like an associative array: class Collection { public $elements; function __construct() { $this->elements = array(); } public function get_element($key) { foreach($this->elements as $element) { if ($element->key == $key) { return $element; break; } } return null; } public function add_element ($element) { $this->elements[] = $element; } } Then i have an object (generic), with a key and some variables: class Element { public $key; public $another_var; public function __construct($key) { $this->key = $key; $this->another_var = "default"; } } Now, i create my collection: $collection = new Collection(); $collection->add_element(new Element("test1")); $collection->add_element(new Element("test2")); And then i try to change variable of an element contained in my "array": $element = $collection->get_element("test1"); $element->another_var = "random_string"; echo $collection->get_element("test1")->another_var; Ok, the output is random_string so i know that my object is passed to $element in reference mode. But if i do, instead: $element = $collection-get_element("test1"); $element = null; //or $element = new GenericObject(); $element-another_var = "bla"; echo $collection-get_element("test1")-another_var; the output is default like if it lost the reference. So, what's wrong? I have got the references to the variables of the element and not to the element itself? Any ideas?

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  • Is it possible to anti alias using Copy swap effect?

    - by Nor
    I'm developing an application in VB.Net using Managed DirectX that runs in windowed mode and renders onto a picture box that is smaller than the form. Whenever I resize the form, the back buffer is streched to fit the picture box. This is not what I would like. The backbuffer size is the same as screen size, however, I only want to render a part of the back buffer, whose size is controlled by the size of the picture box into which I'm rendering. Resetting the device with new presentation parameters is something I would like to avoid. I'm aware that I can use an overload of Device.Present if I set the swap effect to copy, but this doesn't allow me to use Multi Sample Anti Alias (which requires the Discard swap effect). It seems to me that the overload Device.Present is not usable with any other swap effect than copy, and throws an exception. An other alternative I considered is the PresentFlags.DeviceClip, however it seems that it works only for Windows XP. I'm using Windows 7 and it doesn't seem to be doing anything. So, is it even possible that I use anti-aliasing in this situation?

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  • Javascript access object variables from functions

    - by Parhs
    function init_exam_chooser(id,mode) { this.id=id; this.table=$("#" + this.id); this.htmlRowOrder="<tr>" + $("#" + this.id + " tbody tr:eq(0)").html() + "</tr>"; this.htmlRowNew="<tr>" + $("#" + this.id + " tbody tr:eq(1)").html() + "</tr>"; $("#" + this.id + " tbody tr").remove(); //Arxikopoiisi var rowNew=$(this.htmlRowNew); rowNew.find("input[type='text']").eq(0).autocomplete({ source: function (req,resp) { $.ajax({ url: "/medilab/prototypes/exams/searchQuick", cache: false, dataType: "json", data:{codeName:req.term}, success: function(data) { resp(data); } }); }, focus: function(event,ui) { return false; }, minLength :2 }); rowNew.find("input[type='text']").eq(1).autocomplete({ source: function (req,resp) { $.ajax({ url: "/medilab/prototypes/exams/searchQuick", cache: false, dataType: "json", data:{name:req.term}, success: function(data) { resp(data); } }); }, focus: function(event,ui) { return false; }, minLength :2 }); rowNew.find("input[type='text']").bind( "autocompleteselect", function(event, ui) { alert(htmlRowOrder); var row=$(htmlRowOrder); $(table).find("tbody tr:last").before(row); alert(ui.item.id); }); rowNew.appendTo($(this.table).find("tbody")); //this.htmlRowNew } The problem is at ,how i can access htmlRowOrder? I tried this.htmlRowOrder and didnt work.... Any ideas?? rowNew.find("input[type='text']").bind( "autocompleteselect", function(event, ui) { alert(htmlRowOrder); var row=$(htmlRowOrder); $(table).find("tbody tr:last").before(row); alert(ui.item.id); });

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  • In Firefox, how do I bring an existing popup window with multiple tabs to the front using javascript

    - by brahn
    I would like to have a button on a web page with the following behavior: On the first click, open a pop-up. On later clicks, if the pop-up is still open, just bring it to the front. If not, re-open. The below code generally works in Firefox, Safari, and IE8 (see here for Chrome woes). However, I have found a failure mode in Firefox that I don't know how to deal with: If for some reason the user has opened a second tab in the pop-up window and that second tab has focus within that window, the popupWindow.focus() command fails to have any effect. (If the first tab has focus within that window, everything works just great.) So, how can I focus the popup and the desired tab in Firefox? <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var popupWindow = null; var doPopup = function () { if (popupWindow && !popupWindow.closed) { popupWindow.focus(); } else { popupWindow = window.open("http://google.com", "_blank", "width=200,height=200"); } }; </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="doPopup(); return false"> create a pop-up </button> </body>

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  • Finding out the windows group by virtue of which a user is able to access a database in sql server?

    - by Raghu Dodda
    There is a SQL Server 2005 database with mixed-mode authentication. Among others, we have the following logins on the server: our-domain\developers-group-1, and our-domain\developers-group-2 which are AD groups. The our-domain\developer-group-2 is added to the sysadmin role on the server, by virture of which all domain users of that group can access any database as SQL Server implictly maps the sysadmin role to the dbo user in each database. There are two users our-domain\good-user and our-domain\bad-user The issue is the following: Both the good-user and the bad-user have the exact same AD group memberships. They are both members of our-domain\developers-group-1 and our-domain\developers-group-2. The good-user is able to access all the databases, and the bad-user is not. The bad-user is able to login, but he is unable access any databases. By the way, I am the good-user. How do I go about finding out why? Here's what I tried so far: When I do print current_user, I get dbo When I do print system_user, I get my-domain\good-user When I do select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I see permissions. But if do execute as user='my-domain\good-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. And When I do, execute as user='my-domain\bad-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. Also, I was wondering if there is a sql command that will tell me, "hey! the current database user is able to access this database because he is a member such-and-such ad-group, which is a login that is mapped to such-and-such user in this database".

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  • Android SDK: Hello World won't run !

    - by RedRoses
    Hello, This is a very very beginner question regarding Android Development I am trying to create and run the Hello world example from the Android SDK website, but I can't see anything appearing on the screen. It appears to me that Eclipse just hangs at this point: [2010-11-05 09:55:47 - HelloAndroid] ------------------------------ [2010-11-05 09:55:47 - HelloAndroid] Android Launch! [2010-11-05 09:55:47 - HelloAndroid] adb is running normally. [2010-11-05 09:55:47 - HelloAndroid] Performing com.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid activity launch [2010-11-05 09:55:48 - HelloAndroid] Automatic Target Mode: launching new emulator with compatible AVD 'AVD2' [2010-11-05 09:55:48 - HelloAndroid] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'AVD2' [2010-11-05 09:55:51 - HelloAndroid] New emulator found: emulator-5554 [2010-11-05 09:55:51 - HelloAndroid] Waiting for HOME ('android.process.acore') to be launched... [2010-11-05 09:57:10 - HelloAndroid] WARNING: Application does not specify an API level requirement! [2010-11-05 09:57:10 - HelloAndroid] Device API version is 8 (Android 2.2) [2010-11-05 09:57:10 - HelloAndroid] HOME is up on device 'emulator-5554' [2010-11-05 09:57:10 - HelloAndroid] Uploading HelloAndroid.apk onto device 'emulator-5554' [2010-11-05 09:57:12 - HelloAndroid] Installing HelloAndroid.apk... [2010-11-05 09:59:33 - HelloAndroid] Success! [2010-11-05 09:59:33 - HelloAndroid] Starting activity com.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid on device emulator-5554 So it says "Starting activity ..." but nothing ever starts and it's already been more than 30 mins. What could be wrong?? Thanks !

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  • find and replace values in csv using PHP

    - by peirix
    I'd think there was a question on this already, but I can't find one. Maybe the solution is too easy... Anyway, I have a csv and want to let the user change the values based on a name. I've already sorted out creating new name+value-pairs using the fopen('a') mode, using jQuery to send the AJAX call with newValue and newName. But say the content looks like this: host|http:www.stackoverflow.com folder|/questions/ folder2|/users/ And now I want to change the folder value. So I'll send in folder as oldName and /tags/ as newValue. What's the best way to overwrite the value? The order in the list doesn't matter, and the name will always be on the left, followed by a |(pipe), the value and then a new-line. My first thought was to read the list, store it in an array, search all the [0]'s for oldName, then change the [1] that belongs to it, and then write it back to a file. But I feel there is a better way around this? Any ideas? Maybe regex?

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  • Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

    - by user193655
    I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

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  • Disable/Enable applicationbar Button in runtime with event textchanged (Windows Phone)

    - by user3621634
    In this part of the code is the event TextChanged to enable the button in te applicationbar Code in C# private void Textbox_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { ApplicationBarIconButton btn_guardar = ApplicationBar.Buttons[0] as applicationBarIconButton; if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(txt_nom_usuario.Text) && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(txt_edad_usuario.Text) && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(txt_peso_usuario.Text)) { btn_guardar.IsEnabled = true; } else btn_guardar.IsEnabled = false; } Code XAML <phone:PhoneApplicationPage.ApplicationBar> <shell:ApplicationBar Mode="Default" IsVisible="True"> <shell:ApplicationBarIconButton x:Name="btn_guardar" IconUri="/icons/appbar.save.rest.png" Text="Guardar" Click="btn_guardar_Click" IsEnabled="False" /> <shell:ApplicationBarIconButton x:Name="btn_atras" IconUri="/icons/appbar.back.rest.png" Text="Atrás" Click="btn_atras_Click" /> </shell:ApplicationBar> </phone:PhoneApplicationPage.ApplicationBar> <TextBlock x:Name="lbl_ingresanombre" Height="39" Margin="60,28,0,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="248" FontSize="29.333" FontFamily="{StaticResource Helvetica}"><Run Text="Ingresa "/><Run Text="tu nombre"/></TextBlock> <TextBox x:Name="txt_nom_usuario" Height="63" Margin="47,58,69,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="&#xa;" FontSize="21.333" VerticalAlignment="Top" IsEnabled="True" /> <TextBlock x:Name="lbl_edad" Height="38" Margin="60,117,0,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="Ingresa tu edad" VerticalAlignment="Top" FontSize="29.333" HorizontalAlignment="Left" FontFamily="{StaticResource Helvetica}"/> <TextBox x:Name="txt_edad_usuario" InputScope="TelephoneLocalNumber" Height="63" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="&#xa;" FontSize="21.333" Margin="47,147,69,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" MaxLength="3" />

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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  • WPF Binding Path=/ not working?

    - by Mark
    I've set up my DataContext like this: <Window.DataContext> <c:DownloadManager /> </Window.DataContext> Where DownloadManager is Enumerable<DownloadItem>. Then I set my DataGrid like this: <DataGrid Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=/}" ... So that it should list all the DownloadItems, right? So I should be able to set my columns like: <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Uri, Mode=OneWay}" Where Uri is a property of the DownloadItem. But it doesn't seem to like this. In the visual property editor, it doesn't recognize Uri is a valid property, so I'm guessing I'm doing something wrong. It was working before, when I had the data grid binding to Values, but then I took that enumerable out of the DownloadManager and made itself enumerable. How do I fix this? PS: By "doesn't work" I mean it doesn't list any items. I've added some to the constructor of the DM, so it shouldn't be empty.

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  • Session scoped bean as class attribute of Spring MVC Controller

    - by Sotirios Delimanolis
    I have a User class: @Component @Scope("session") public class User { private String username; } And a Controller class: @Controller public class UserManager { @Autowired private User user; @ModelAttribute("user") private User createUser() { return user; } @RequestMapping(value = "/user") public String getUser(HttpServletRequest request) { Random r = new Random(); user.setUsername(new Double(r.nextDouble()).toString()); request.getSession().invalidate(); request.getSession(true); return "user"; } } I invalidate the session so that the next time i got to /users, I get another user. I'm expecting a different user because of user's session scope, but I get the same user. I checked in debug mode and it is the same object id in memory. My bean is declared as so: <bean id="user" class="org.synchronica.domain.User"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> I'm new to spring, so I'm obviously doing something wrong. I want one instance of User for each session. How?

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  • Problem using find function in Matlab

    - by Peter Etchells
    Hi all, I have two arrays of data that I'm trying to amalgamate. One contains actual latencies from an experiment in the first column (e.g. 0.345, 0.455... never more than 3 decimal places), along with other data from that experiment. The other contains what is effectively a 'look up' list of latencies ranging from 0.001 to 0.500 in 0.001 increments, along with other pieces of data. Both data sets are X-by-Y doubles. What I'm trying to do is something like... for i = 1:length(actual_latency) row = find(predicted_data(:,1) == actual_latency(i) full_set(i,1:4) = [actual_latency(i) other_info(i) predicted_info(row,2)... predicted_info(row,3)]; end ...in order to find the relevant row in predicted_data where the look up latency corresponds to the actual latency. I then use this to created an amalgamated data set, full_set. I figured this would be really simple, but the find function keeps failing by throwing up an empty matrix when looking for an actual latency that I know is in predicted_data(:,1) (as I've double-checked during debugging). Moreover, if I replace find with a for loop to do the same job, I get a similar error. It doesn't appear to be systematic - using different participant data sets throws it up in different places. Furthermore, during debugging mode, if I use find to try and find a hard-coded value of actual_latency, it doesn't always work. Sometimes yes, sometimes no. I'm really scratching my head over this, so if anyone has any ideas about what might be going on, I'd be really grateful.

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