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• Error using Session in IIS7

  - by flashnik

  After deployment of my website to IIS I'm getting a following error message when trying to access session: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. I access it in Page_Load or PreRender events (I tried both versions). With VS Dev Server it works without a problem. I tried both InProc an SessionState storage, 1 and multiple woker processes. I added a enableSessionState = "true" to my webpage explicitly. Here is part of web.config: <system.web> <globalization culture="ru-RU" uiCulture="ru-RU" /> <compilation debug="true" defaultLanguage="c#"> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Core, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> <add assembly="System.Data.DataSetExtensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> <add assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add assembly="System.Xml.Linq, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> <add assembly="System.Web.Extensions.Design, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add assembly="System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B03F5F7F11D50A3A" /> <add assembly="System.Windows.Forms, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> </assemblies> </compilation> <pages enableEventValidation="false" enableSessionState="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </controls> </pages> <httpHandlers> <remove verb="*" path="*.asmx" /> <add verb="*" path="*.asmx" validate="false" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" validate="false" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" validate="false" /> </httpHandlers> <httpModules> <add name="ScriptModule" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="SearchUrlRewriter" type="Synonymizer.SearchUrlRewriter, Synonymizer, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral" /> <add name="Session" type="System.Web.SessionStateModule" /> </httpModules> <sessionState cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName="My_SessionId" mode="InProc" stateNetworkTimeout="5" /> <customErrors mode="Off" /> </system.web> What else do I need to do to make it work?? UPD I tried to monitor if IIS accesses aspnet_client folder with ProcMon and didn't get any access.

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• Trying get dynamic content hole-punched through Magento's Full Page Cache

  - by rlflow

  I am using Magento Enterprise 1.10.1.1 and need to get some dynamic content on our product pages. I am inserting the current time in a block to quickly see if it is working, but can't seem to get through full page cache. I have tried a variety of implementations found here: http://tweetorials.tumblr.com/post/10160075026/ee-full-page-cache-hole-punching http://oggettoweb.com/blog/customizations-compatible-magento-full-page-cache/ http://magentophp.blogspot.com/2011/02/magento-enterprise-full-page-caching.html (http://www.exploremagento.com/magento/simple-custom-module.php - custom module) Any solutions, thoughts, comments, advice is welcome. here is my code: app/code/local/Fido/Example/etc/config.xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <config> <modules> <Fido_Example> <version>0.1.0</version> </Fido_Example> </modules> <global> <blocks> <fido_example> <class>Fido_Example_Block</class> </fido_example> </blocks> </global> </config> app/code/local/Fido/Example/etc/cache.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <config> <placeholders> <fido_example> <block>fido_example/view</block> <name>example</name> <placeholder>CACHE_TEST</placeholder> <container>Fido_Example_Model_Container_Cachetest</container> <cache_lifetime>86400</cache_lifetime> </fido_example> </placeholders> </config> app/code/local/Fido/Example/Block/View.php <?php /** * Example View block * * @codepool Local * @category Fido * @package Fido_Example * @module Example */ class Fido_Example_Block_View extends Mage_Core_Block_Template { private $message; private $att; protected function createMessage($msg) { $this->message = $msg; } public function receiveMessage() { if($this->message != '') { return $this->message; } else { $this->createMessage('Hello World'); return $this->message; } } protected function _toHtml() { $html = parent::_toHtml(); if($this->att = $this->getMyCustom() && $this->getMyCustom() != '') { $html .= '<br />'.$this->att; } else { $now = date('m-d-Y h:i:s A'); $html .= $now; $html .= '<br />' ; } return $html; } } app/code/local/Fido/Example/Model/Container/Cachetest.php <?php class Fido_Example_Model_Container_Cachetest extends Enterprise_PageCache_Model_Container_Abstract { protected function _getCacheId() { return 'HOMEPAGE_PRODUCTS' . md5($this->_placeholder->getAttribute('cache_id') . $this->_getIdentifier()); } protected function _renderBlock() { $blockClass = $this->_placeholder->getAttribute('block'); $template = $this->_placeholder->getAttribute('template'); $block = new $blockClass; $block->setTemplate($template); return $block->toHtml(); } protected function _saveCache($data, $id, $tags = array(), $lifetime = null) { return false; } } app/design/frontend/enterprise/[mytheme]/template/example/view.phtml <?php /** * Fido view template * * @see Fido_Example_Block_View * */ ?> <div> <?php echo $this->receiveMessage(); ?> </span> </div> snippet from app/design/frontend/enterprise/[mytheme]/layout/catalog.xml <reference name="content"> <block type="catalog/product_view" name="product.info" template="catalog/product/view.phtml"> <block type="fido_example/view" name="product.info.example" as="example" template="example/view.phtml" />

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• Error using Session in IIS

  - by flashnik

  After deployment of my website to IIS I'm getting a following error message when trying to access session: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. I access it in Page_Load or PreRender events (I tried both versions). With VS Dev Server it works without a problem. I tried both InProc an SessionState storage, 1 and multiple woker processes. I added a enableSessionState = "true" to my webpage explicitly. Here is part of web.config: <system.web> <globalization culture="ru-RU" uiCulture="ru-RU" /> <compilation debug="true" defaultLanguage="c#"> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Core, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> <add assembly="System.Data.DataSetExtensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> <add assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add assembly="System.Xml.Linq, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> <add assembly="System.Web.Extensions.Design, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add assembly="System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B03F5F7F11D50A3A" /> <add assembly="System.Windows.Forms, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> </assemblies> </compilation> <pages enableEventValidation="false" enableSessionState="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </controls> </pages> <httpHandlers> <remove verb="*" path="*.asmx" /> <add verb="*" path="*.asmx" validate="false" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" validate="false" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" validate="false" /> </httpHandlers> <httpModules> <add name="ScriptModule" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="SearchUrlRewriter" type="Synonymizer.SearchUrlRewriter, Synonymizer, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral" /> <add name="Session" type="System.Web.SessionStateModule" /> </httpModules> <sessionState cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName="My_SessionId" mode="InProc" stateNetworkTimeout="5" /> <customErrors mode="Off" /> </system.web> What else do I need to do to make it work??

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• Grabbing all <a> tags in a specific div and displaying them

  - by Taylor Swyter

  So I'v got a small problem with my portfolio site (you can see it at here) When you click on a portfolio piece, a top section opens up to reveal the details (Title, year, role, description) as well as the photos. I'v been able to get each project to replace all the text data, but I can't seem to get the images to load into the thumbnails. I have been able to get the last image i'm looking for in all of the images on the site, but not display each photo for each project. Here's the HTML i'm working with: <section id="details"> <div class="pagewrapper"> <section id="main-img"> <article id="big-img"> <img src="" alt="big-img" /> </article> <article class="small-img-container"> <a href="#"><img src="#" alt="smallimg" class="small-img" /></a> </article> </section> <section id="description"> <h3></h3> <h4></h4> <h5></h5> <p></p> </section> </div> <div class="clear"></div> </section> <section id="portfolio"> <div class="pagewrapper"> <h2 class="sectionTitle">Portfolio</h2> <div class="thumb"> <a class="small" href="#" title="David Lockwood Music" data-year="2010" data-role="Sole Wordpress Developer" data-description="David Lockwood is a musician and an educator based in New Hampshire who came to me needing a website for his musical career. I fully developed his site using Wordpress as a CMS, creating a custom template based on the design by Jeremiah Louf. Jeremiah and I worked together on the website's UX design."><img src="images_original/davidcover.png" alt="thumb" /> <div class="hide"> <a href="images/davidlockwood/homepage.png" ></a> <a href="images/davidlockwood/blog.png"></a> <a href="images/davidlockwood/shows.png"></a> <a href="images/davidlockwood/bio.png"></a> <a href="images/davidlockwood/photos.png"></a> </div> <h3>David Lockwood Music</h3> <div class="clear"></div> </a> </div><!--thumb--> and here's the jQuery: $(document).ready(function(){ var proj = {}; $('.thumb a').click(function() { $('#details').slideDown(1000); $('.hide a').each(function() { proj.img = $(this).attr("href"); $('.small-img-container img').attr('src',proj.img); }); alert("the image is " + proj.img);//is it getting the image URLS? proj.title = $(this).attr("title"); proj.year = $(this).attr("data-year"); proj.role = $(this).attr("data-role"); proj.description = $(this).attr("data-description"); $('#description h3').text(proj.title); $('#description h4').text(proj.year); $('#description h5').text(proj.role); $('#description p').text(proj.description); }); }); Anyone have any idea how I grab just the images for the specific project, display them all as thumbnails and then make those thumbnail clickable to see the bigger image? Thanks!

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• Silverlight animation not smooth

  - by Andrej

  Hi, When trying to animate objects time/frame based in Silverlight (in contrast to using something like DoubleAnimation or Storyboard, which is not suitable e.g. for fast paced games), for example moving a spaceship in a particular direction every frame, the movement is jumpy and not really smooth. The screen even seems to tear. There seems to be no difference between CompositionTarget and DistpatcherTimer. I use the following approach (in pseudocode): Register Handler to Tick-Event of a DispatcherTimer In each Tick: Compute the elapsed time from the last frame in milliseconds Object.X += movementSpeed * ellapsedMilliseconds This should result in a smooth movement, right? But it doesn't. Here is an example (Controls: WASD and Mouse): Silverlight Game. Although the effect I described is not too prevalent in this sample, I can assure you that even moving a single rectangle over a canvas produces a jumpy animation. Does someone have an idea how to minimize this. Are there other approaches to to frame based animation exept using Storyboards/DoubleAnimations which could solve this? Edit: Here a quick and dirty approach, animating a rectangle with minimum code (Controls: A and D) Animation Sample Xaml: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="Black"> <Canvas Width="1000" Height="400" Background="Blue"> <Rectangle x:Name="rect" Width="48" Height="48" Fill="White" Canvas.Top="200" Canvas.Left="0"/> </Canvas> </Grid> C#: private bool isLeft = false; private bool isRight = false; private DispatcherTimer timer = new DispatcherTimer(); private double lastUpdate; public Page() { InitializeComponent(); timer.Interval = TimeSpan.FromMilliseconds(1); timer.Tick += OnTick; lastUpdate = Environment.TickCount; timer.Start(); } private void OnTick(object sender, EventArgs e) { double diff = Environment.TickCount - lastUpdate; double x = Canvas.GetLeft(rect); if (isRight) x += 1 * diff; else if (isLeft) x -= 1 * diff; Canvas.SetLeft(rect, x); lastUpdate = Environment.TickCount; } private void UserControl_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key == Key.D) isRight = true; if (e.Key == Key.A) isLeft = true; } private void UserControl_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key == Key.D) isRight = false; if (e.Key == Key.A) isLeft = false; } Thanks! Andrej

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• Error when logging in with Machinist in Shoulda test

  - by user303747

  I am having some trouble getting the right usage of Machinist and Shoulda in my testing. Here is my test: context "on POST method rating" do p = Product.make u = nil setup do u = login_as post :vote, :rating => 3, :id => p end should "set rating for product to 3" do assert_equal p.get_user_vote(u), 3 end And here's my blueprints: Sham.login { Faker::Internet.user_name } Sham.name { Faker::Lorem.words} Sham.email { Faker::Internet.email} Sham.body { Faker::Lorem.paragraphs(2)} User.blueprint do login password "testpass" password_confirmation { password } email end Product.blueprint do name {Sham.name} user {User.make} end And my authentication test helper: def login_as(u = nil) u ||= User.make() @controller.stubs(:current_user).returns(u) u end The error I get is: /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/validations.rb:1090:in `save_without_dirty!': Validation failed: Login has already been taken, Email has already been taken (ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid) from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/dirty.rb:87:in `save_without_transactions!' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in `save!' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/database_statements.rb:136:in `transaction' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:182:in `transaction' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in `save!' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:208:in `rollback_active_record_state!' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in `save!' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist/active_record.rb:55:in `make' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/test/blueprints.rb:37 from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist.rb:77:in `generate_attribute_value' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist.rb:46:in `method_missing' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/test/blueprints.rb:37 from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist.rb:20:in `instance_eval' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist.rb:20:in `run' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist/active_record.rb:53:in `make' from ./test/functional/products_controller_test.rb:25:in `__bind_1269805681_945912' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:293:in `call' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:293:in `merge_block' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:288:in `initialize' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:169:in `new' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:169:in `context' from ./test/functional/products_controller_test.rb:24 I can't figure out what it is I'm doing wrong... I have tested the login_as with my auth (Authlogic) in my user_controller testing. Any pointers in the right direction would be much appreciated!

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• Properly clean up excel interop objects revisited: Wrapper objects

  - by chiccodoro

  Hi all, Excel 2007 Hangs When Closing via .NET How to properly clean up Excel interop objects in C# How to properly clean up interop objects in C# All of these struggle with the problem that C# does not release the Excel COM objects properly after using them. There are mainly two directions of working around this issue: Kill the Excel process when Excel is not used anymore. Take care to assign each COM object used explicitly to a variable and to Marshal.ReleaseComObject all of these. Some have stated that 2 is too tedious and there is always some uncertainty whether you forget to stick to this rule at some places in the code. Still 1 seems dirty and dangerous to me, also I could imagine that in an environment with restricted access killing processes is not allowed. So I've been thinking about solving 2 by creating another proxy object model which mimics the Excel object model (for me, it would suffice to implement the objects I actually need). The principle would look as follows: Each Excel Interop class has its proxy which wraps an object of that class. The proxy releases the COM object in its destructor. The proxy mimics the interface of the Interop class (maybe by inheriting it). Any methods that usually return another COM object return a proxy instead. The other methods simply delegate the implementation to the inner COM object. This is a rough sketch of the code: public class Application : Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application { private Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application innerApplication = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application innerApplication(); ~Application() { Marshal.ReleaseCOMObject(innerApplication); } public Workbooks Workbooks { get { return new Workbooks(innerApplication.Workbooks); } } } public class Workbooks { private Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Workbooks innerWorkbooks; Workbooks(Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Workbooks innerWorkbooks) { this.innerWorkbooks = innerWorkbooks; } ~Workbooks() { Marshal.ReleaseCOMObject(innerWorkbooks); } } My questions to you are in particular: Who finds this a bad idea and why? Who finds this a gread idea? If so, why hasn't anybody implemented/published such a model yet? Just due to the effort, or am I missing a killing problem with that idea? Is it impossible/bad/dangerous to do the ReleaseCOMObject in the destructor? (I've only seen proposals to put it in a Dispose() rather than in a destructor - why?) If the approach makes sense, any suggestions to improve it?

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• Detecting which UIButton was pressed in a UITableView

  - by rein

  Hi, I have a UITableView with 5 UITableViewCells. Each cell contains a UIButton which is set up as follows: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *identifier = @"identifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:identifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableView alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:identifier]; [cell autorelelase]; UIButton *button = [[UIButton alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(10, 5, 40, 20)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressedAction:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [button setTag:1]; [cell.contentView addSubview:button]; [button release]; } UIButton *button = (UIButton *)[cell viewWithTag:1]; [button setTitle:@"Edit" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; return cell; } My question is this: in the buttonPressedAction: method, how do I know which button has been pressed. I've considered using tags but I'm not sure this is the best route. I'd like to be able to somehow tag the indexPath onto the control. - (void)buttonPressedAction:(id)sender { UIButton *button = (UIButton *)sender; // how do I know which button sent this message? // processing button press for this row requires an indexPath. } What's the standard way of doing this? Edit: I've kinda solved it by doing the following. I would still like to have an opinion whether this is the standard way of doing it or is there a better way? - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *identifier = @"identifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:identifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableView alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:identifier]; [cell autorelelase]; UIButton *button = [[UIButton alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(10, 5, 40, 20)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressedAction:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [cell.contentView addSubview:button]; [button release]; } UIButton *button = (UIButton *)[cell.contentView.subViews objectAtIndex:0]; [button setTag:indexPath.row]; [button setTitle:@"Edit" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; return cell; } - (void)buttonPressedAction:(id)sender { UIButton *button = (UIButton *)sender; int row = button.tag; } What's important to note is that I can't set the tag in the creation of the cell since the cell might be dequeued instead. It feels very dirty. There must be a better way.

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• Semi-complex aggregate select statement confusion

  - by Ian Henry

  Alright, this problem is a little complicated, so bear with me. I have a table full of data. One of the table columns is an EntryDate. There can be multiple entries per day. However, I want to select all rows that are the latest entry on their respective days, and I want to select all the columns of said table. One of the columns is a unique identifier column, but it is not the primary key (I have no idea why it's there; this is a pretty old system). For purposes of demonstration, say the table looks like this: create table ExampleTable ( ID int identity(1,1) not null, PersonID int not null, StoreID int not null, Data1 int not null, Data2 int not null, EntryDate datetime not null ) The primary key is on PersonID and StoreID, which logically defines uniqueness. Now, like I said, I want to select all the rows that are the latest entries on that particular day (for each Person-Store combination). This is pretty easy: --Figure 1 select PersonID, StoreID, max(EntryDate) from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) Where dbo.dayof() is a simple function that strips the time component from a datetime. However, doing this loses the rest of the columns! I can't simply include the other columns, because then I'd have to group by them, which would produce the wrong results (especially since ID is unique). I have found a dirty hack that will do what I want, but there must be a better way -- here's my current solution: select cast(null as int) as ID, PersonID, StoreID, cast(null as int) as Data1, cast(null as int) as Data2, max(EntryDate) as EntryDate into #StagingTable from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) update Target set ID = Source.ID, Data1 = Source.Data1, Data2 = Source.Data2, from #StagingTable as Target inner join ExampleTable as Source on Source.PersonID = Target.PersonID and Source.StoreID = Target.StoreID and Source.EntryDate = Target.EntryDate This gets me the correct data in #StagingTable but, well, look at it! Creating a table with null values, then doing an update to get the values back -- surely there's a better way to do this? A single statement that will get me all the values the first time? It is my belief that the correct join on that original select (Figure 1) would do the trick, like a self-join or something... but how do you do that with the group by clause? I cannot find the right syntax to make the query execute. I am pretty new with SQL, so it's likely that I'm missing something obvious. Any suggestions? (Working in T-SQL, if it makes any difference)

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• Unity framework DependencyAttribute only works for public properties?

  - by rally25rs

  I was trying to clean up some accessability stuff in my code, and inadvertently broke Unity dependency injection. After a while I realized that I marked some public properties that I didn't really want exposed outside my DLLs to internal. Then I started getting exceptions. So it seems that using the [Dependency] attribute in Unity only works for public properties. I suppose that makes sense since the internal and private props wouldnt be visible to the Unity assembly, but feels really dirty to have a bunch of public properties that you never want anyone to set or be able to set, other than Unity. Is there a way to let unity set internal or private properties too? Here is the unit test I'd like to see pass. Currently only the public prop test passes: [TestFixture] public class UnityFixture { [Test] public void UnityCanSetPublicDependency() { UnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType<HasPublicDep, HasPublicDep>(); container.RegisterType<TheDep, TheDep>(); var i = container.Resolve<HasPublicDep>(); Assert.IsNotNull(i); Assert.IsNotNull(i.dep); } [Test] public void UnityCanSetInternalDependency() { UnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType<HasInternalDep, HasInternalDep>(); container.RegisterType<TheDep, TheDep>(); var i = container.Resolve<HasInternalDep>(); Assert.IsNotNull(i); Assert.IsNotNull(i.dep); } [Test] public void UnityCanSetPrivateDependency() { UnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType<HasPrivateDep, HasPrivateDep>(); container.RegisterType<TheDep, TheDep>(); var i = container.Resolve<HasPrivateDep>(); Assert.IsNotNull(i); Assert.IsNotNull(i.depExposed); } } public class HasPublicDep { [Dependency] public TheDep dep { get; set; } } public class HasInternalDep { [Dependency] internal TheDep dep { get; set; } } public class HasPrivateDep { [Dependency] private TheDep dep { get; set; } public TheDep depExposed { get { return this.dep; } } } public class TheDep { } Updated: I noticed the call stack to set the property passed from: UnityCanSetPublicDependency() --> Microsoft.Practices.Unity.dll --> Microsoft.Practices.ObjectBuilder2.dll --> HasPublicDep.TheDep.set() So in an attempt to at least make the internal version work, I added these to my assembly's properties: [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("Microsoft.Practices.Unity")] [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration")] [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("Microsoft.Practices.ObjectBuilder2")] However, no change. Unity/ObjectBuilder still won't set the internal property

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• .NET RegEx "Memory Leak" investigation

  - by Kevin Pullin

  I recently looked into some .NET "memory leaks" (i.e. unexpected, lingering GC rooted objects) in a WinForms app. After loading and then closing a huge report, the memory usage did not drop as expected even after a couple of gen2 collections. Assuming that the reporting control was being kept alive by a stray event handler I cracked open WinDbg to see what was happening... Using WinDbg, the !dumpheap -stat command reported a large amount of memory was consumed by string instances. Further refining this down with the !dumpheap -type System.String command I found the culprit, a 90MB string used for the report, at address 03be7930. The last step was to invoke !gcroot 03be7930 to see which object(s) were keeping it alive. My expectations were incorrect - it was not an unhooked event handler hanging onto the reporting control (and report string), but instead it was held on by a System.Text.RegularExpressions.RegexInterpreter instance, which itself is a descendant of a System.Text.RegularExpressions.CachedCodeEntry. Now, the caching of Regexs is (somewhat) common knowledge as this helps to reduce the overhead of having to recompile the Regex each time it is used. But what then does this have to do with keeping my string alive? Based on analysis using Reflector, it turns out that the input string is stored in the RegexInterpreter whenever a Regex method is called. The RegexInterpreter holds onto this string reference until a new string is fed into it by a subsequent Regex method invocation. I'd expect similar behaviour by hanging onto Regex.Match instances and perhaps others. The chain is something like this: Regex.Split, Regex.Match, Regex.Replace, etc Regex.Run RegexScanner.Scan (RegexScanner is the base class, RegexInterpreter is the subclass described above). The offending Regex is only used for reporting, rarely used, and therefore unlikely to be used again to clear out the existing report string. And even if the Regex was used at a later point, it would probably be processing another large report. This is a relatively significant problem and just plain feels dirty. All that said, I found a few options on how to resolve, or at least work around, this scenario. I'll let the community respond first and if no takers come forward I will fill in any gaps in a day or two.

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• JSON Post To Rails From Android

  - by Stealthnh

  I'm currently working on an android app that interfaces with a Ruby on Rails app through XML and JSON. I can currently pull all my posts from my website through XML but I can't seem to post via JSON. My app currently builds a JSON object from a form that looks a little something like this: { "post": { "other_param": "1", "post_content": "Blah blah blah" } } On my server I believe the Create method in my Posts Controller is set up correctly: def create @post = current_user.posts.build(params[:post]) respond_to do |format| if @post.save format.html { redirect_to @post, notice: 'Post was successfully created.' } format.json { render json: @post, status: :created, location: @post } format.xml { render xml: @post, status: :created, location: @post } else format.html { render action: "new" } format.json { render json: @post.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } format.xml { render xml: @post.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end And in my android app I have a method that takes that JSON Object I posted earlier as a parameter along with the username and password for being authenticated (Authentication is working I've tested it, and yes Simple HTTP authentication is probably not the best choice but its a quick and dirty fix) and it then sends the JSON Object through HTTP POST to the rails server. This is that method: public static void sendPost(JSONObject post, String email, String password) { DefaultHttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); client.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials(new AuthScope(null,-1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials(email,password)); HttpPost httpPost = new HttpPost("http://mysite.com/posts"); JSONObject holder = new JSONObject(); try { holder.put("post", post); StringEntity se = new StringEntity(holder.toString()); Log.d("SendPostHTTP", holder.toString()); httpPost.setEntity(se); httpPost.setHeader("Content-Type","application/json"); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { Log.e("Error",""+e); e.printStackTrace(); } catch (JSONException js) { js.printStackTrace(); } HttpResponse response = null; try { response = client.execute(httpPost); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Log.e("ClientProtocol",""+e); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Log.e("IO",""+e); } HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if (entity != null) { try { entity.consumeContent(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e("IO E",""+e); e.printStackTrace(); } } } Currently when I call this method and pass it the correct JSON Object it doesn't do anything and I have no clue why or how to figure out what is going wrong. Is my JSON still formatted wrong, does there really need to be that holder around the other data? Or do I need to use something other than HTTP POST? Or is this just something on the Rails end? A route or controller that isn't right? I'd be really grateful if someone could point me in the right direction, because I don't know where to go from here.

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• who free's setvbuf buffer?

  - by Evan Teran

  So I've been digging into how the stdio portion of libc is implemented and I've come across another question. Looking at man setvbuf I see the following: When the first I/O operation occurs on a file, malloc(3) is called, and a buffer is obtained. This makes sense, your program should have a malloc in it for I/O unless you actually use it. My gut reaction to this is that libc will clean up its own mess here. Which I can only assume it does because valgrind reports no memory leaks (they could of course do something dirty and not allocate it via malloc directly... but we'll assume that it literally uses malloc for now). But, you can specify your own buffer too... int main() { char *p = malloc(100); setvbuf(stdio, p, _IOFBF, 100); puts("hello world"); } Oh no, memory leak! valgrind confirms it. So it seems that whenever stdio allocates a buffer on its own, it will get deleted automatically (at the latest on program exit, but perhaps on stream close). But if you specify the buffer explicitly, then you must clean it up yourself. There is a catch though. The man page also says this: You must make sure that the space that buf points to still exists by the time stream is closed, which also happens at program termination. For example, the following is invalid: Now this is getting interesting for the standard streams. How would one properly clean up a manually allocated buffer for them, since they are closed in program termination? I could imagine a "clean this up when I close flag" inside the file struct, but it get hairy because if I read this right doing something like this: setvbuf(stdio, 0, _IOFBF, 100); printf("hello "); setvbuf(stdio, 0, _IOLBF, 100); printf("world\n"); would cause 2 allocations by the standard library because of this sentence: If the argument buf is NULL, only the mode is affected; a new buffer will be allocated on the next read or write operation.

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• Would Apache running on port 8080 prevent dynamically loaded scripts in JavaScript?

  - by editor

  Had a nice PHP/HTML/JS prototype working on my personal Linode, then tried to throw it into a work machine. The page adds a script tag dynamically with some JavaScript. It's a bunch of Google charts that update based on different timeslices. That code looks something like this: // jQuery $.post to send the beginning and end timestamps $.post("channel_functions.php", data_to_post, function(data){ // the data that's returned is the javascript I want to load var script = document.createElement('script'); var head= document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; var script= document.createElement('script'); var text = document.createTextNode(data); script.type= 'text/javascript'; script.id = 'chart_data'; script.appendChild(text); // Adding script tag to page head.appendChild(script); // Call the function I know were present in the script tag loadTheCharts(); }); function loadTheCharts() { // These are the functions that were loaded dynamically // By this point the script tag is supposed be loaded, added and eval'd function1(); function2(); } Function1() and function2() don't exist until they get added to the dom, but I don't call loadTheCharts() until after the $.post has run so this doesn't seem to be a problem. I'm one of those dirty PHP coders you mother warned you about, so I'm not well versed in JavaScript beyond what I've read in the typical go-to O'Reilly books. But this code worked fine on my personal dev server, so I'm wondering why it wouldn't work on this new machine. The only difference in setup, from what I can tell, is that the new machine is running on port 8080, so it's 192.168.blah.blah:8080/index.php instead of nicedomain.com/index.php. I see the code was indeed added to the dom when I use webmaster tools to "view generated source" but in Firebug I get an error like "function2() is undefined" even though my understanding was that all script tags are eval'ed when added to . My question: Given what I've laid out, and that the machine is running on :8080, is there a reason anyone can think of as to why a dynamically loaded function like function2() would be defined on the Linode and not on the machine running Apache on 8080?

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• Queue ExternalInterface calls to Flash Object in UpdatePanel - Needs Improvement?

  - by Laramie

  A Flash (actually Flex) object is created on an ASP.Net page within an Update Panel using a modified version of the embedCallAC_FL_RunContent.js script so it can be written in dynamically. It is re-created with this script with each partial postback to that panel. There are also other Update Panels on the page. With some postbacks (partial and full), External Interface calls such as $get('FlashObj').ExternalInterfaceFunc('arg1', 0, true); are prepared server-side and added to the page using ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript. They're embedded in a function and stuffed into Sys.Application's load event, for example Sys.Application.add_load(funcContainingExternalInterfaceCalls). The problem is that because the Flash object's state state may change with each partial postback, the Flash (Flex) object and/or External Interface may not be ready or even exist yet in the DOM when the JavaScript - Flash External Interface call is made. It results in an "Object doesn't support this property or method" exception. I have a working strategy to make the ExternalInterface calls immediately if Flash is ready or else queue them until such time that Flash announces its readiness. //Called when the Flash object is initialized and can accept ExternalInterfaceCalls var flashReady = false; //Called by Flash when object is fully initialized function setFlashReady() { flashReady = true; //Make any queued ExternalInterface calls, then dequeue while (extIntQueue.length > 0) (extIntQueue.shift())(); } var extIntQueue = []; function callExternalInterface(flashObjName, funcName, args) { //reference to the wrapped ExternalInterface Call var wrapped = extWrap(flashObjName, funcName, args); //only procede with ExternalInterface call if the global flashReady variable has been set if (flashReady) { wrapped(); } else { //queue the function so when flashReady() is called next, the function is called and the aruments are passed. extIntQueue.push(wrapped); } } //bundle ExtInt call and hold variables in a closure function extWrap(flashObjName, funcName, args) { //put vars in closure return function() { var funcCall = '$get("' + flashObjName + '").' + funcName; eval(funcCall).apply(this, args); } } I set the flashReady var to dirty whenever I update the Update Panel that contains the Flash (Flex) object. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(parentContainer, parentContainer.GetType(), "flashReady", "flashReady = false;", true); I'm pleased that I got it to work, but it feels like a hack. I am still on the learning curve with respect to concepts like closures why "eval()" is apparently evil, so I'm wondering if I'm violating some best practice or if this code should be improved, if so how? Thanks.

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• Is READ UNCOMMITTED / NOLOCK safe in this situation?

  - by Ben Challenor

  I know that snapshot isolation would fix this problem, but I'm wondering if NOLOCK is safe in this specific case so that I can avoid the overhead. I have a table that looks something like this: drop table Data create table Data ( Id BIGINT NOT NULL, Date BIGINT NOT NULL, Value BIGINT, constraint Cx primary key (Date, Id) ) create nonclustered index Ix on Data (Id, Date) There are no updates to the table, ever. Deletes can occur but they should never contend with the SELECT because they affect the other, older end of the table. Inserts are regular and page splits to the (Id, Date) index are extremely common. I have a deadlock situation between a standard INSERT and a SELECT that looks like this: select top 1 Date, Value from Data where Id = @p0 order by Date desc because the INSERT acquires a lock on Cx (Date, Id; Value) and then Ix (Id, Date), but the SELECT acquires a lock on Ix (Id, Date) and then Cx (Date, Id; Value). This is because the SELECT first seeks on Ix and then joins to a seek on Cx. Swapping the clustered and non-clustered index would break this cycle, but it is not an acceptable solution because it would introduce cycles with other (more complex) SELECTs. If I add NOLOCK to the SELECT, can it go wrong in this case? Can it return: More than one row, even though I asked for TOP 1? No rows, even though one exists and has been committed? Worst of all, a row that doesn't satisfy the WHERE clause? I've done a lot of reading about this online, but the only reproductions of over- or under-count anomalies I've seen (one, two) involve a scan. This involves only seeks. Jeff Atwood has a post about using NOLOCK that generated a good discussion. I was particularly interested in a comment by Rick Townsend: Secondly, if you read dirty data, the risk you run is of reading the entirely wrong row. For example, if your select reads an index to find your row, then the update changes the location of the rows (e.g.: due to a page split or an update to the clustered index), when your select goes to read the actual data row, it's either no longer there, or a different row altogether! Is this possible with inserts only, and no updates? If so, then I guess even my seeks on an insert-only table could be dangerous. Update: I'm trying to figure out how snapshot isolation works. It seems to be row-based, where transactions read the table (with no shared lock!), find the row they are interested in, and then see if they need to get an old version of the row from the version store in tempdb. But in my case, no row will have more than one version, so the version store seems rather pointless. And if the row was found with no shared lock, how is it different to just using NOLOCK?

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• HTML wrapper div over embedded flash object cannot be "clickable" by jQuery

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: I've been trying to do as the client requested : redirect to campaign page then to destination page once a customer clicks on the top banner in swf format. You can check what's been done at :http://ausdcf.org If you are using Firefox, Chrome or Safari, I suspect you can reach the destination page. However, if you are using IE or Opera, I doubt it. I think to cause of such a weird problem is: The swf ojbects don't have a link to url, SO I have to hack the theme template file like this : <div id="header">'; /* * A quick and dirty way to put some swf into PHP, and rotate among them ... */ //available banners $banners = array( 'http://localhost/smf/flash/banner_fertalign_1.swf', 'http://localhost/smf/flash/banner_fertalign_2.swf', 'http://localhost/smf/flash/banner_fertalign_3.swf' ); //get random banner srand((double) microtime() * 1000000); $rand = rand(0,count($banners)-1); echo '<div id="top_banner_clickable">'; echo '<div id="top_banner_wrapper">'; echo '<object width="400" height="60">'; echo '<param name="wmode" value="transparent">'; echo '<embed wmode="transparent" src="'.$banners[$rand].'" '; echo 'width="400" height="60" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"'; echo 'pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/shockwave/download/index.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" />'; echo '</object>'; echo '</div>'; echo '</div>'; And the related jQuery code is like this: /* master.js */ $(document).ready(function() { $("#top_banner_clickable").click(function() { window.location ="http://ausdcf.org/campaign/"; }); }); I absolutely know nothing about Flash or embedded objects. I guess that's the cause of this problem. Plus, I don't know why it works with some browsers but not all... I even tried to add a z-index to the wrapper div in css like this: #top_banner_clickable { z-index : 100; } No this wouldn't do, either... Is there a way to go around this issue? Many thanks in advance.

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• Performance of looping over an Unboxed array in Haskell

  - by Joey Adams

  First of all, it's great. However, I came across a situation where my benchmarks turned up weird results. I am new to Haskell, and this is first time I've gotten my hands dirty with mutable arrays and Monads. The code below is based on this example. I wrote a generic monadic for function that takes numbers and a step function rather than a range (like forM_ does). I compared using my generic for function (Loop A) against embedding an equivalent recursive function (Loop B). Having Loop A is noticeably faster than having Loop B. Weirder, having both Loop A and B together is faster than having Loop B by itself (but slightly slower than Loop A by itself). Some possible explanations I can think of for the discrepancies. Note that these are just guesses: Something I haven't learned yet about how Haskell extracts results from monadic functions. Loop B faults the array in a less cache efficient manner than Loop A. Why? I made a dumb mistake; Loop A and Loop B are actually different. Note that in all 3 cases of having either or both Loop A and Loop B, the program produces the same output. Here is the code. I tested it with ghc -O2 for.hs using GHC version 6.10.4 . import Control.Monad import Control.Monad.ST import Data.Array.IArray import Data.Array.MArray import Data.Array.ST import Data.Array.Unboxed for :: (Num a, Ord a, Monad m) => a -> a -> (a -> a) -> (a -> m b) -> m () for start end step f = loop start where loop i | i <= end = do f i loop (step i) | otherwise = return () primesToNA :: Int -> UArray Int Bool primesToNA n = runSTUArray $ do a <- newArray (2,n) True :: ST s (STUArray s Int Bool) let sr = floor . (sqrt::Double->Double) . fromIntegral $ n+1 -- Loop A for 4 n (+ 2) $ \j -> writeArray a j False -- Loop B let f i | i <= n = do writeArray a i False f (i+2) | otherwise = return () in f 4 forM_ [3,5..sr] $ \i -> do si <- readArray a i when si $ forM_ [i*i,i*i+i+i..n] $ \j -> writeArray a j False return a primesTo :: Int -> [Int] primesTo n = [i | (i,p) <- assocs . primesToNA $ n, p] main = print $ primesTo 30000000

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• How to set text above and below a JButton icon?

  - by mre

  I want to set text above and below a JButton's icon. At the moment, in order to achieve this, I override the layout manager and use three JLabel instances (i.e. 2 for text and 1 for the icon). But this seems like a dirty solution. Is there a more direct way of doing this? Note -I'm not looking for a multi-line solution, I'm looking for a multi-label solution. Although this article refers to it as a multi-line solution, it actually seems to refer to a multi-label solution. EXAMPLE import java.awt.Component; import java.awt.FlowLayout; import javax.swing.BoxLayout; import javax.swing.Icon; import javax.swing.JButton; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JLabel; import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; import javax.swing.UIManager; public final class JButtonDemo { public static void main(String[] args) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable(){ @Override public void run() { createAndShowGUI(); } }); } private static void createAndShowGUI(){ final JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setLayout(new FlowLayout()); frame.add(new JMultiLabelButton()); frame.pack(); frame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); frame.setVisible(true); } private static final class JMultiLabelButton extends JButton { private static final long serialVersionUID = 7650993517602360268L; public JMultiLabelButton() { super(); setLayout(new BoxLayout(this, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); add(new JCenterLabel("Top Label")); add(new JCenterLabel(UIManager.getIcon("OptionPane.informationIcon"))); add(new JCenterLabel("Bottom Label")); } } private static final class JCenterLabel extends JLabel { private static final long serialVersionUID = 5502066664726732298L; public JCenterLabel(final String s) { super(s); setAlignmentX(Component.CENTER_ALIGNMENT); } public JCenterLabel(final Icon i) { super(i); setAlignmentX(Component.CENTER_ALIGNMENT); } } }

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• Is there a recommended approach to handle saving data in response to within-site navigation without

  - by Carvell Fenton

  Hello all, Preamble to scope my question: I have a web app (or site, this is an internal LAN site) that uses jQuery and AJAX extensively to dynamically load the content section of the UI in the browser. A user navigates the app using a navigation menu. Clicking an item in the navigation menu makes an AJAX call to php, and php then returns the content that is used to populate the central content section. One of the pages served back by php has a table form, set up like a spreadsheet, that the user enters values into. This table is always kept in sync with data in the database. So, when the table is created, is it populated with the relevant database data. Then when the user makes a change in a "cell", that change immediately is written back to the database so the table and database are always in sync. This approach was take to reassure users that the data they entered has been saved (long story...), and to alleviate them from having to click a save button of some kind. So, this always in sync idea is great, except that a user can enter a value in a cell, not take focus out of the cell, and then take any number of actions that would cause that last value to be lost: e.g. navigate to another section of the site via the navigation menu, log out of the app, close the browser, etc. End of preamble, on to the issue: I initially thought that wasn't a problem, because I would just track what data was "dirty" or not saved, and then in the onunload event I would do a final write to the database. Herein lies the rub: because of my clever (or not so clever, not sure) use of AJAX and dynamically loading the content section, the user never actually leaves the original url, or page, when the above actions are taken, with the exception of closing the browser. Therefore, the onunload event does not fire, and I am back to losing the last data again. My question, is there a recommended way to handle figuring out if a person is navigating away from a "section" of your app when content is dynamically loaded this way? I can come up with a solution I think, that involves globals and tracking the currently viewed page, but I thought I would check if there might be a more elegant solution out there, or a change I could make in my design, that would make this work. Thanks in advance as always!

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• Passing objects to a UITypeEditor

  - by Kath

  I am currently hoping to use a PropertyGrid to allow users to edit some of my classes, however I've hit a wall with passing objects to the UITypeEditor(s) they use. When the user presses the drop down I want to show a listbox of already loaded textures to choose from, if they want to use a texture the application hasn't loaded yet they can click a button to choose one from a file dialog. In case I make no sense here a mock of the form: . My problem: To fill the listbox I need access to the class that manages the list of resources from the UITypeEditor. Now I've solved this problem for my own classes by giving them a reference on creation to their managing object. In the UITypeEditor I then use that reference to access what I need. However I can't do this for classes I haven't written, such as the XNA Texture2D class. Here are what the classes I'm using look like: class StaticGeometryChunk { // Geometry data to draw with. Contains a reference to its managing // class for use in its UITypeEditor. public GeometryData { get; set; } .... } class Material { // These are XNA classes. I can't just add a reference to its managing // class (I think?). public Texture2D Texture1 { get; set; } public Texture2D Texture2 { get; set; } .... } I've been looking at my options and they seem to be: Make the managing classes static. I don't really want to do this. There are several managing classes as each resource is loaded differently. There are also classes that need to be created before these and are passed in. Make the managing classes singletons. I don't really want to do this either. It seems like a quick and dirty way to "hide" the problem instead of "solve" it. I also might want the option of having several managing classes in the future which the singletons eliminate. Create a wrapper class which holds the reference to a managing class and its target (such as the XNA Texture2D). This is currently what I'm thinking of doing. Its would be quite simple and quick to do but something about it nags me but I don't know what. Any thoughts on the above or other methods to pass what I need into the UITypeEditor? Thank you for reading.

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• Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

  - by magz2010

  Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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• Which is the "best" data access framework/approach for C# and .NET?

  - by Frans

  (EDIT: I made it a community wiki as it is more suited to a collaborative format.) There are a plethora of ways to access SQL Server and other databases from .NET. All have their pros and cons and it will never be a simple question of which is "best" - the answer will always be "it depends". However, I am looking for a comparison at a high level of the different approaches and frameworks in the context of different levels of systems. For example, I would imagine that for a quick-and-dirty Web 2.0 application the answer would be very different from an in-house Enterprise-level CRUD application. I am aware that there are numerous questions on Stack Overflow dealing with subsets of this question, but I think it would be useful to try to build a summary comparison. I will endeavour to update the question with corrections and clarifications as we go. So far, this is my understanding at a high level - but I am sure it is wrong... I am primarily focusing on the Microsoft approaches to keep this focused. ADO.NET Entity Framework Database agnostic Good because it allows swapping backends in and out Bad because it can hit performance and database vendors are not too happy about it Seems to be MS's preferred route for the future Complicated to learn (though, see 267357) It is accessed through LINQ to Entities so provides ORM, thus allowing abstraction in your code LINQ to SQL Uncertain future (see Is LINQ to SQL truly dead?) Easy to learn (?) Only works with MS SQL Server See also Pros and cons of LINQ "Standard" ADO.NET No ORM No abstraction so you are back to "roll your own" and play with dynamically generated SQL Direct access, allows potentially better performance This ties in to the age-old debate of whether to focus on objects or relational data, to which the answer of course is "it depends on where the bulk of the work is" and since that is an unanswerable question hopefully we don't have to go in to that too much. IMHO, if your application is primarily manipulating large amounts of data, it does not make sense to abstract it too much into objects in the front-end code, you are better off using stored procedures and dynamic SQL to do as much of the work as possible on the back-end. Whereas, if you primarily have user interaction which causes database interaction at the level of tens or hundreds of rows then ORM makes complete sense. So, I guess my argument for good old-fashioned ADO.NET would be in the case where you manipulate and modify large datasets, in which case you will benefit from the direct access to the backend. Another case, of course, is where you have to access a legacy database that is already guarded by stored procedures. ASP.NET Data Source Controls Are these something altogether different or just a layer over standard ADO.NET? - Would you really use these if you had a DAL or if you implemented LINQ or Entities? NHibernate Seems to be a very powerful and powerful ORM? Open source Some other relevant links; NHibernate or LINQ to SQL Entity Framework vs LINQ to SQL

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• Why are these two sql statements deadlocking? (Deadlock graph + details included).

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I've got the following deadlock graph that describes two sql statements that are deadlocking each other. I'm just not sure how to analyse this and then fix up my sql code to prevent this from happening. Main deadlock graph Click here for a bigger image. Left side, details Click here for a bigger image. Right side, details Click here for a bigger image. What is the code doing? I'm reading in a number of files (eg. lets say 3, for this example). Each file contains different data BUT the same type of data. I then insert data into LogEntries table and then (if required) I insert or delete something from the ConnectedClients table. Here's my sql code. using (TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert(new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection .. so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete(logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); } _unitOfWork.Commit(); transactionScope.Complete(); } Now each file has it's own UnitOfWork instance (which means it has it's own database connection, transaction and repository context). So i'm assuming this means there's 3 different connections to the db all happening at the same time. Finally, this is using Entity Framework as the repository, but please don't let that stop you from having a think about this problem. Using a profiling tool, the Isolation Level is Serializable. I've also tried ReadCommited and ReadUncommited, but they both error :- ReadCommited: same as above. Deadlock. ReadUncommited: different error. EF exception that says it expected some result back, but got nothing. I'm guessing this is the LogEntryId Identity (scope_identity) value that is expected but not retrieve because of the dirty read. Please help! PS. It's Sql Server 2008, btw.

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• MySQL Split Time Ranges into Smaller Chunks

  - by Neren

  Hello all, I've recently been tasked with finishing a PHP/MySQL web app when the developer quit last week. I'm no MySQL expert, so I apologize if this is an intensely simple question. I've searched SO for the better part of two days trying to find a relatively easy solution to my problem, which is as follows. Problem in a Nutshell: I have a MySQL table full of start and end datetime (GMT -5) & UNIX Timestamp values covering durations of irregular length and need to break/split/divide them into more-regular time chunks (5 minutes). I'm not after a count of row entries per time chunk/bucket/period, if that makes any sense. Data Example: started, ended, started_UNIX, ended_UNIX 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288033953, 1288036029 What I'm hoping to get: 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 1288033953, 1288037700 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 1288037700, 1288038000 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 1288038000, 1288038300 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 1288038300, 1288038600 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 1288038600, 1288038900 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 1288038900, 1288039200 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 1288039200, 1288039500 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288039500, 1288039629 If you're interested, here's the quick & dirty on the app and why I need the data: App overview: The application receives very simple POST requests generated by a basic sensor device when its input pins go to ground, which submits an INSERT query to the database where MySQL records a timestamp (as started). When the input pins return from a grounded state, the device submits a different POST request, which causes the PHP app to submit an UPDATE query, where a modification time timestamp is inserted (as ended). My employer recently changed the periodic reporting unit of measure from Seconds "On" Per Day to Seconds "On" Per 5 Minute Interval. I had formulated what I thought would be a workable solution, but when I looked at it on paper, it looked like Rube Goldberg's nightmare constructed in MySQL, so that was out. Any suggestions as to how to break these spans into 5 minute blocks? Keeping it all in MySQL would be my preference, though I'll take any suggestions. Thank you for any suggestions you may have. Again, I apologize if this is a no-brainer. If I ask any additional questions of the SO collective consciousness in the future, I'll try to word them a bit better. Any help will be happily welcomed. Thanks, Neren

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