Search Results

Search found 12846 results on 514 pages for 'ghost answer'.

Page 443/514 | < Previous Page | 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450  | Next Page >

  • PHP Object Access Syntax Question with the $

    - by ImperialLion
    I've been having trouble searching for this answer because I am not quite sure how to phrase it. I am new to PHP and still getting my feet on the ground. I was writing a page with a class in it that had the property name. When I originally wrote the page there was no class so I just had a variable called $name. When I went to encapsulate it in a class I accidental changed it to be $myClass->$name. It tool me a while to realize that the syntax I needed was $myClass->name. The reason it took so long was the error I kept getting was "Attempt to access a null property" or something along those lines. The error lead me to believe it was a data population error. My question is does $myClass->$name have a valid meaning? In other words is there a time you would use this and a reason why it doesn't create a syntax error? If so what is the semantic meaning of that code? When would I use it if it is valid? If its not valid, is there a reason that it doesn't create a syntax error?

    Read the article

  • Java Enumeration of Musical Notes

    - by Crupler
    How would you create an enumeration of the musical notes in Java, with each notes having an octave and then a keyed variable? This is what I have so far... public enum Notes { c, cS, d, dS, e, f, fS, g, gS, a, aS, b; int octave; boolean isPlaying; } So when I access the enums in my code I write something like this... Notes.c.octave = 4; Notes.c.isPlaying = true; Now here is my question: How can I have an isPlaying boolean for each note in each octave? Like so: Notes.c.octave.isPlaying = true; Or would I have to go like: public enum Notes { c1, cS1, d1, dS1, e1, f1, fS1, g1, gS1, a1, aS1, b1 c2, cS2, d2, dS2, e2, f2, fS2, g2, gS2, a2, aS2, b2; etc... boolean isPlaying; } Thank you in advance for taking your time to answer this question!

    Read the article

  • Importing external .jar file to Android project

    - by robintw
    I've read various answers to similar questions on StackOverflow, so I apologise if I'm repeating another question, but I can't seem to get this to work. I have a standard java project in which I've written code to parse some BBC Radio XML data from the internet. The project is called BBCSchedules and the class I'm interested in is called BBCChannel. I'm now trying to use the BBCChannel class in an android application. How should I go about doing this? I've tried various things, following various bits of advice on the internet, and the place I've got to at the moment is compiling my BBCSchedules project to a .jar file, and importing that to the Android project using the Build Path/Library/Add External Jar option. However, Eclispe still doesn't recognise the BBCChannel class, and won't let me run the application because of this. I guess I've done something silly wrong, but what is it? Cheers, Robin UPDATE: I've tried the steps listed in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1334802/how-can-i-use-external-jars-in-an-android-project and various other StackOverflow questions I can find that seem to be related to this, but absolutely nothing seems to work. Any other ideas? UPDATE: The discussions I've had with the author of the first answer below suggest that it is something to do with how I am using Eclipse to attach the .jar file. The project he sent me with the .jar file already attached didn't work. Any other ideas anyone?

    Read the article

  • The way cores, processes, and threads work exactly?

    - by unknownthreat
    I need a bit of an advice for understanding how this whole procedure work exactly. If I am incorrect in any part described below, please correct me. In a single core CPU, it runs each process in the OS, jumping around from one process to another to utilize the best of itself. A process can also have many threads, in which the CPU core runs through these threads when it is running on the respective process. Now, on a multiple core CPU, Do the cores run in every process together, or can the cores run separately in different processes at one particular point of time? For instance, you have program A running two threads, can a duo core CPU run both threads of this program? I think the answer should be yes if we are using something like OpenMP. But while the cores are running in this OpenMP-embedded process, can one of the core simply switch to other process? For programs that are created for single core, when running at 100%, why the CPU utilization of each core are distributed? (ex. A duo core CPU of 80% and 20%. The utilization percentage of all cores always add up to 100% for this case.) Do the cores try help each other run each thread of each process in some ways? Frankly, I'm not sure how this works exactly. Any advice is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • TortoiseSVN Error: "OPTIONS of 'https://...' could not connect to server (...)"

    - by Zack Peterson
    I'm trying to setup a new computer to synchronize with my SVN repository that's hosted with cvsdude.com. I get this error: Here's what I did (these have worked in the past): Downloaded and installed TortoiseSVN Created a new folder C:\aspwebsite Right-clicked, chose SVN Checkout... Entered the following information, clicked OK: URL of repository: https://<reponame>-svn.cvsdude.com/aspwebsite Checkout directory: C:\aspwebsite Checkout depth: Fully recursive Omit externals: Unchecked Revision: HEAD revision Got TortoiseSVN error: OPTIONS of 'https://<reponame>-svn.cvsdude.com/aspwebsite': could not connect to server (https://<reponame>-svn.cvsdude.com) Rather than getting the error, TortoiseSVN should have asked for my username and password and then downloaded about 90MB. Why can't I checkout from my Subversion repository? Kent Fredric wrote: Either their security certificate has expired, or their hosting is broken/down. Contact CVSDude and ask them whats up. It could also be a timeout, because for me their site is exhaustively slow.. It errors after only a couple seconds. I don't think it's a timeout. Matt wrote: Try visiting https://[redacted]-svn.cvsdude.com/aspwebsite and see what happens. If you can visit it in your browser, you ought to be able to get the files in your SVN client and we can work from there. If it fails, then there's your answer. I can access the site in a web browser.

    Read the article

  • Solving quadratic programming using R

    - by user702846
    I would like to solve the following quadratic programming equation using ipop function from kernlab : min 0.5*x'*H*x + f'*x subject to: A*x <= b Aeq*x = beq LB <= x <= UB where in our example H 3x3 matrix, f is 3x1, A is 2x3, b is 2x1, LB and UB are both 3x1. edit 1 My R code is : library(kernlab) H <- rbind(c(1,0,0),c(0,1,0),c(0,0,1)) f = rbind(0,0,0) A = rbind(c(1,1,1), c(-1,-1,-1)) b = rbind(4.26, -1.73) LB = rbind(0,0,0) UB = rbind(100,100,100) > ipop(f,H,A,b,LB,UB,0) Error in crossprod(r, q) : non-conformable arguments I know from matlab that is something like this : H = eye(3); f = [0,0,0]; nsamples=3; eps = (sqrt(nsamples)-1)/sqrt(nsamples); A=ones(1,nsamples); A(2,:)=-ones(1,nsamples); b=[nsamples*(eps+1); nsamples*(eps-1)]; Aeq = []; beq = []; LB = zeros(nsamples,1); UB = ones(nsamples,1).*1000; [beta,FVAL,EXITFLAG] = quadprog(H,f,A,b,Aeq,beq,LB,UB); and the answer is a vector of 3x1 equals to [0.57,0.57,0.57]; However when I try it on R, using ipop function from kernlab library ipop(f,H,A,b,LB,UB,0)) and I am facing Error in crossprod(r, q) : non-conformable arguments I appreciate any comment

    Read the article

  • Using items in a list as arguments

    - by Travis Brown
    Suppose I have a function with the following type signature: g :: a -> a -> a -> b I also have a list of as—let's call it xs—that I know will contain at least three items. I'd like to apply g to the first three items of xs. I know I could define a combinator like the following: ($$$) :: (a -> a -> a -> b) -> [a] -> b f $$$ (x:y:z:_) = f x y z Then I could just use g $$$ xs. This makes $$$ a bit like uncurry, but for a function with three arguments of the same type and a list instead of a tuple. Is there a way to do this idiomatically using standard combinators? Or rather, what's the most idiomatic way to do this in Haskell? I thought trying pointfree on a non-infix version of $$$ might give me some idea of where to start, but the output was an abomination with 10 flips, a handful of heads and tails and aps, and 28 parentheses. (NB: I know this isn't a terribly Haskelly thing to do in the first place, but I've come across a couple of situations where it seems like a reasonable solution, especially when using Parsec. I'll certainly accept "don't ever do this in real code" if that's the best answer, but I'd prefer to see some clever trick involving the ((->) r) monad or whatever.)

    Read the article

  • How do I get Facebook Application Login to work

    - by Javaaaa
    I just started making an application for Facebook, however I ran into problem early on. The first step I want people to do is to give permission to access their profile. All over the web are examples of how to do this with: $user_id = $facebook->require_login(); However, this is the way it works using the Old PHP API. I have downloaded and installed the new one in my application folder and it is not working anymore. My question is (and i really have been searching for an answer for a long time) what is the code to do this with the new API? (and related question: is it better to use the old API, or learn to work with the new one when I am just starting making apps right now) I have this code now; <?php // Awesome Facebook Application // // Name: - // require_once 'facebook-php-sdk/src/facebook.php'; // Create our Application instance. $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => $app_id, 'secret' => $app_secret, 'cookie' => true )); $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(array( 'req_perms' => 'email,user_birthday,publish_stream,sms,status_update,user_location' )); echo "<p>hello, <fb:name uid=\"$user_id\" useyou=\"false\" />!</p>"; ?>

    Read the article

  • Compact data structure for storing a large set of integral values

    - by Odrade
    I'm working on an application that needs to pass around large sets of Int32 values. The sets are expected to contain ~1,000,000-50,000,000 items, where each item is a database key in the range 0-50,000,000. I expect distribution of ids in any given set to be effectively random over this range. The operations I need on the set are dirt simple: Add a new value Iterate over all of the values. There is a serious concern about the memory usage of these sets, so I'm looking for a data structure that can store the ids more efficiently than a simple List<int>or HashSet<int>. I've looked at BitArray, but that can be wasteful depending on how sparse the ids are. I've also considered a bitwise trie, but I'm unsure how to calculate the space efficiency of that solution for the expected data. A Bloom Filter would be great, if only I could tolerate the false negatives. I would appreciate any suggestions of data structures suitable for this purpose. I'm interested in both out-of-the-box and custom solutions. EDIT: To answer your questions: No, the items don't need to be sorted By "pass around" I mean both pass between methods and serialize and send over the wire. I clearly should have mentioned this. There could be a decent number of these sets in memory at once (~100).

    Read the article

  • How do I refer to a windows form control by name (C# / VB)

    - by Alex
    Suppose I have a label control on a windows form called "UserName". How can I refer to that label programmatically using the label name? For example I can do: For each ctrl as Control in TabPage.Controls If ctrl.Name = "UserName" Then ' Do something End If Next This seems quite inefficient. I would like to do something like: TabPage.Controls("UserName").Text = "Something" I did some googling but couldn't find a satisfactory answer. Most suggested looping, some said .NET 2005 doesn't support direct refenece using string name, and FindControl method was asp.net only... EDIT Thanks for the response so far. Here is a bit more detail. I have a windows form with three tabpages, all of which a very similar in design and function i.e. same drop down menus, labels, react in simlar way to events etc. Rather than write code for each event per tabpage I have built a class that controls the events etc. per tabpage. For example, on each tabpage there is a Label called "RecordCounter" that simply shows the number of rows in the datagridview when it is populated by selection of a variable in a drop down menu. So what I want to be able to do is, upon selection of a variable in the drop down menu, the datagridview populates itself with data, and then I simply want to display the number of rows in a label ("RecordCounter"). This is exactly the same process on each tabpage so what I am doing is passing the tabpage to the class and then I want to be able to refer to the "RecordCounter" and then update it. In my class I set the ActivePage property to be the TabPage that the user has selected and then want to be able to do something like: ActivePage.RecordCounter.Text = GetNumberOfRows()

    Read the article

  • Determining if an unordered vector<T> has all unique elements

    - by Hooked
    Profiling my cpu-bound code has suggested I that spend a long time checking to see if a container contains completely unique elements. Assuming that I have some large container of unsorted elements (with < and = defined), I have two ideas on how this might be done: The first using a set: template <class T> bool is_unique(vector<T> X) { set<T> Y(X.begin(), X.end()); return X.size() == Y.size(); } The second looping over the elements: template <class T> bool is_unique2(vector<T> X) { typename vector<T>::iterator i,j; for(i=X.begin();i!=X.end();++i) { for(j=i+1;j!=X.end();++j) { if(*i == *j) return 0; } } return 1; } I've tested them the best I can, and from what I can gather from reading the documentation about STL, the answer is (as usual), it depends. I think that in the first case, if all the elements are unique it is very quick, but if there is a large degeneracy the operation seems to take O(N^2) time. For the nested iterator approach the opposite seems to be true, it is lighting fast if X[0]==X[1] but takes (understandably) O(N^2) time if all the elements are unique. Is there a better way to do this, perhaps a STL algorithm built for this very purpose? If not, are there any suggestions eek out a bit more efficiency?

    Read the article

  • CSS positioning div above another div when not in that order in the HTML

    - by devmode
    Given a template where the HTML cannot be modified because of other requirements, how is it possible to display a div above another div when they are not in that order in the HTML and both divs contain data that could produce a varying height and width. HTML: <div id="wrapper"     <div id="firstDiv"         Content to be below in this situation     </div     <div id="secondDiv"         Content to be above in this situation     </div </div Other elements Hopefully it is obvious that the desired result is: Content to be above in this situation Content to be below in this situation Other elements When the dimensions are fixed it easy to position them where needed, but I need some ideas for when the content is variable. For the sake of this scenario, please just consider the width to be 100% on both. Edit: A CSS solution is the most ideal solution. Thank you for the Javascript options mentioned. Without getting too wordy about what or why (or who) ... I am specifically looking for a CSS only solution (and it will probably have to be met with other solutions if that doesn't pan out). One more ... there are other elements following this. A good suggestion was mentioned given the limited scenario I demonstrated -- given that it might be the best answer, but I am looking to also make sure elements following this aren't impacted.

    Read the article

  • Jquery find first visible element after horizontal scroll

    - by lolo flores
    I’m new (only two weeks old) in Jquery, so please bear with me. I know that a very similar question was asked some time ago but I do not know how to adapt the answer to my problem. I have a very wide multicolumn layout something like this: | aaaa | bbbb | cccc | … | | aaaa | b | cc | … | | aaa | cccc | ddd | … | The code looks like: <div id="container"> <p>aaaaaaaaaaa</p> <p>bbbbb</p> <p>ccccccccccc</p> <p>dddddddddd</p> ... <p>xxxxxx</p> </div> There is no vertical scrolling and the container width is set in such a way that only two columns are shown. The user scrolls left or right to see the relevant text. What I want is to get the position currently on display, store it (maybe in a cookie) and retrieve it the next time the user opens the page. I think that I need a way of finding out what paragraph is currently the left-top most, but other suggestions are very welcome. Any ideas? btw: this is an internal project, so Mozilla only :-) Thanks Lolo

    Read the article

  • There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

    Read the article

  • Initializing static pointer in templated class.

    - by Anthony
    This is difficult for me to formulate in a Google query (at least one that gives me what I'm looking for) so I've had some trouble finding an answer. I'm sure I'm not the first to ask though. Consider a class like so: template < class T > class MyClass { private: static T staticObject; static T * staticPointerObject; }; ... template < class T > T MyClass<T>::staticObject; // <-- works ... template < class T > T * MyClass<T>::staticPointerObject = NULL; // <-- cannot find symbol staticPointerObject. I am having trouble figuring out why I cannot successfully create that pointer object. Edit: The above code is all specified in the header, and the issue I mentioned is an error in the link step, so it is not finding the specific symbol.

    Read the article

  • Get the src part of a string [duplicate]

    - by Kay Lakeman
    This question already has an answer here: Grabbing the href attribute of an A element 7 answers First post ever here, and i really hope you can help. I use a database where a large piece of html is stored, now i just need the src part of the image tag. I already found a thread, but i just doesn't do the trick. My code: Original string: <p><img alt=\"\" src=\"http://domain.nl/cms/ckeditor/filemanager/userfiles/background.png\" style=\"width: 80px; height: 160px;\" /></p> How i start: $image = strip_tags($row['information'], '<img>'); echo stripslashes($image); This returns: <img alt="" src="http://domain.nl/cms/ckeditor/filemanager/userfiles/background.png" style="width: 80px; height: 160px;" /> Next step: extract the src part: preg_match('/< *img[^>]*src *= *["\']?([^"\']*)/i', $image, $matches); echo $matches ; This last echo returns: Array What is going wrong? Thanks in advance for your anwser.

    Read the article

  • Are Thread.stop and friends ever safe in Java?

    - by Stephen C
    The stop(), suspend(), and resume() in java.lang.Thread are deprecated because they are unsafe. The Sun recommended work around is to use Thread.interrupt(), but that approach doesn't work in all cases. For example, if you are call a library method that doesn't explicitly or implicitly check the interrupted flag, you have no choice but to wait for the call to finish. So, I'm wondering if it is possible to characterize situations where it is (provably) safe to call stop() on a Thread. For example, would it be safe to stop() a thread that did nothing but call find(...) or match(...) on a java.util.regex.Matcher? (If there are any Sun engineers reading this ... a definitive answer would be really appreciated.) EDIT: Answers that simply restate the mantra that you should not call stop() because it is deprecated, unsafe, whatever are missing the point of this question. I know that that it is genuinely unsafe in the majority of cases, and that if there is a viable alternative you should always use that instead. This question is about the subset cases where it is safe. Specifically, what is that subset?

    Read the article

  • Get active window title in X

    - by dutt
    I'm trying to get the title of the active window. The application is a background task so if the user has Eclipse open the function returns "Eclipse - blabla", so it's not getting the window title of my own window. I'm developing this in Python 2.6 using PyQt4. My current solution, borrowed and slightly modified from an old answer here at SO, looks like this: def get_active_window_title(): title = '' root_check = '' root = Popen(['xprop', '-root'], stdout=PIPE) if root.stdout != root_check: root_check = root.stdout for i in root.stdout: if '_NET_ACTIVE_WINDOW(WINDOW):' in i: id_ = i.split()[4] id_w = Popen(['xprop', '-id', id_], stdout=PIPE) for j in id_w.stdout: if 'WM_ICON_NAME(STRING)' in j: if title != j.split()[2]: return j.split("= ")[1].strip(' \n\"') It works for most windows, but not all. For example it can't find my kopete chat windows, or the name of the application i'm currently developing. My next try looks like this: def get_active_window_title(self): screen = wnck.screen_get_default() if screen == None: return "Could not get screen" window = screen.get_active_window() if window == None: return "Could not get window" title = window.get_name() return title; But for some reason window is always None. Does somebody have a better way of getting the current window title, or how to modify one of my ways, that works for all windows? Edit: In case anybody is wondering this is the way I found that seems to work for all windows. def get_active_window_title(self): root_check = '' root = Popen(['xprop', '-root'], stdout=PIPE) if root.stdout != root_check: root_check = root.stdout for i in root.stdout: if '_NET_ACTIVE_WINDOW(WINDOW):' in i: id_ = i.split()[4] id_w = Popen(['xprop', '-id', id_], stdout=PIPE) id_w.wait() buff = [] for j in id_w.stdout: buff.append(j) for line in buff: match = re.match("WM_NAME\((?P<type>.+)\) = (?P<name>.+)", line) if match != None: type = match.group("type") if type == "STRING" or type == "COMPOUND_TEXT": return match.group("name") return "Active window not found"

    Read the article

  • Is it getting to be time for C# to support compile-time macros?

    - by Robert Rossney
    Thus far, Microsoft's C# team has resisted adding formal compile-time macro capabilities to the language. There are aspects of programming with WPF that seem (to me, at least) to be creating some compelling use cases for macros. Dependency properties, for instance. It would be so nice to just be able to do something like this: [DependencyProperty] public string Foo { get; set; } and have the body of the Foo property and the static FooProperty property be generated automatically at compile time. Or, for another example an attribute like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public string Foo { get; set; } that would make the currently-nonexistent preprocessor produce this: private string _Foo; public string Foo { get { return _Foo; } set { _Foo = value; OnPropertyChanged("Foo"); } } You can implement change notification with PostSharp, and really, maybe PostSharp is a better answer to the question. I really don't know. Assuming that you've thought about this more than I have, which if you've thought about it at all you probably have, what do you think? (This is clearly a community wiki question and I've marked it accordingly.)

    Read the article

  • Multiple generic types in one container

    - by Lirik
    I was looking at the answer of this question regarding multiple generic types in one container and I can't really get it to work: the properties of the Metadata class are not visible, since the abstract class doesn't have them. Here is a slightly modified version of the code in the original question: public abstract class Metadata { } public class Metadata<T> : Metadata { // ... some other meta data public T Function{ get; set; } } List<Metadata> metadataObjects; metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<double,double>>()); metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<int,double>>()); metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<double,int>>()); foreach( Metadata md in metadataObjects) { var tmp = md.Function; // <-- Error: does not contain a definition for Function } The exact error is: error CS1061: 'Metadata' does not contain a definition for 'Function' and no extension method 'Function' accepting a first argument of type 'Metadata' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) I believe it's because the abstract class does not define the property Function, thus the whole effort is completely useless. Is there a way that we can get the properties?

    Read the article

  • Modify columns in a data frame in R more cleanly - maybe using with() or apply()?

    - by Mittenchops
    I understand the answer in R to repetitive things is usually "apply()" rather than loop. Is there a better R-design pattern for a nasty bit of code I create frequently? So, pulling tabular data from HTML, I usually need to change the data type, and end up running something like this, to convert the first column to date format (from decimal), and columns 2-4 from character strings with comma thousand separators like "2,400,000" to numeric "2400000." X[,1] <- decYY2YY(as.numeric(X[,1])) X[,2] <- as.numeric(gsub(",", "", X[,2])) X[,3] <- as.numeric(gsub(",", "", X[,3])) X[,4] <- as.numeric(gsub(",", "", X[,4])) I don't like that I have X[,number] repeated on both the left and ride sides here, or that I have basically the same statement repeated for 2-4. Is there a very R-style way of making X[,2] less repetitive but still loop-free? Something that sort of says "apply this to columns 2,3,4---a function that reassigns the current column to a modified version in place?" I don't want to create a whole, repeatable cleaning function, really, just a quick anonymous function that does this with less repetition.

    Read the article

  • Evaluate an expression tree

    - by Phronima
    Hi, This project that I'm working on requires that an expression tree be constructed from a string of single digit operands and operators both represented as type char. I did the implmentation and the program up to that point works fine. I'm able to print out the inorder, preorder and postorder traversals in the correct way. The last part calls for evaulating the expression tree. The parameters are an expression tree "t" and its root "root". The expression tree is ((3+2)+(6+2)) which is equal to 13. Instead I get 11 as the answer. Clearly I'm missing something here and I've done everything short of bashing my head against the desk. I would greatly appreciate it if someone can point me in the right direction. (Note that at this point I'm only testing addition and will add in the other operators when I get this method working.) public int evalExpression( LinkedBinaryTree t, BTNode root ) { if( t.isInternal( root ) ) { int x = 0, y = 0, value = 0; char operator = root.element(); if( root.getLeft() != null ) x = evalExpression(t, t.left( root ) ); if( root.getRight() != null ) y = evalExpression(t, t.right( root ) ); if( operator == '+' ) { value = value + Character.getNumericValue(x) + Character.getNumericValue(y); } return value; } else { return root.element(); } }

    Read the article

  • Prolog Beginner: How to make unique values for each Variable in a predicate.

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I have a prolog predicate: DoStuff( [A|B] ) :- <Stuff that I do> ... </Stuff that I do> It is all done except it needs to do return unique values. Ie if you do: ?- DoStuff(A,B,C,D). it should return: A=1; B=2; C=3; D=4. (Or something similar, the key point is that all of the values are unique). However you should be able to do this too: ?- DoStuff(A,A,B,B). And still get a valid answer. Ie: A=1; B=2. How can I do this? What I was planning on doing was something like this: DoStuff( [A|B] ) :- <Stuff that I do> ... </Stuff that I do> unique([A|B]). unique([]). unique([A|B]) :- A is not B. However I think that will make DoStuff([A,A,B]) not work because not all values will be unique.

    Read the article

  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails : How can i display data for the current view from a different table

    - by krishkule
    This might be a easy-to-answer question, but its a pain in the bum for me.... So... I have two tables - Chords - |id|chord|name|rating|artist_id| Artists - |id|artist| (the relations : chords : belongs_to :artist artists : has_many :chords ) And in the index page for "chords" i want to display chord,name,rating from Chords table AND artist from the Artists table this is the code for the chrod's index.html.erb : <table border="1"> <%@chords.each do |chord|%> <tr> <td><%=chord.artist.artist%></td> <td><%= link_to chord.name, chord %></td> <td><%=chord.rating%></td> <td><%= chord.created_at %></td> </tr> <%end%> </table> The error message is : undefined method `artist' for nil:NilClass Actually, at first it worked, but when i started to create the "new.html.erb" page and the create,new controllers, it stopped working - thats why this is so confusing for me! I will be glad to hear any critique and suggestions! Thank you

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450  | Next Page >