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• What algorithm can I use to determine points within a semi-circle?

  - by khayman218

  I have a list of two-dimensional points and I want to obtain which of them fall within a semi-circle. Originally, the target shape was a rectangle aligned with the x and y axis. So the current algorithm sorts the pairs by their X coord and binary searches to the first one that could fall within the rectangle. Then it iterates over each point sequentially. It stops when it hits one that is beyond both the X and Y upper-bound of the target rectangle. This does not work for a semi-circle as you cannot determine an effective upper/lower x and y bounds for it. The semi-circle can have any orientation. Worst case, I will find the least value of a dimension (say x) in the semi-circle, binary search to the first point which is beyond it and then sequentially test the points until I get beyond the upper bound of that dimension. Basically testing an entire band's worth of points on the grid. The problem being this will end up checking many points which are not within the bounds.

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• NoSQL for filesystem storage organization and replication?

  - by wheaties

  We've been discussing design of a data warehouse strategy within our group for meeting testing, reproducibility, and data syncing requirements. One of the suggested ideas is to adapt a NoSQL approach using an existing tool rather than try to re-implement a whole lot of the same on a file system. I don't know if a NoSQL approach is even the best approach to what we're trying to accomplish but perhaps if I describe what we need/want you all can help. Most of our files are large, 50+ Gig in size, held in a proprietary, third-party format. We need to be able to access each file by a name/date/source/time/artifact combination. Essentially a key-value pair style look-up. When we query for a file, we don't want to have to load all of it into memory. They're really too large and would swamp our server. We want to be able to somehow get a reference to the file and then use a proprietary, third-party API to ingest portions of it. We want to easily add, remove, and export files from storage. We'd like to set up automatic file replication between two servers (we can write a script for this.) That is, sync the contents of one server with another. We don't need a distributed system where it only appears as if we have one server. We'd like complete replication. We also have other smaller files that have a tree type relationship with the Big files. One file's content will point to the next and so on, and so on. It's not a "spoked wheel," it's a full blown tree. We'd prefer a Python, C or C++ API to work with a system like this but most of us are experienced with a variety of languages. We don't mind as long as it works, gets the job done, and saves us time. What you think? Is there something out there like this?

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• python crc32 woes

  - by lazyr

  I'm writing a python program to extract data from the middle of a 6 GB bz2 file. A bzip2 file is made up of independently decryptable blocks of data, so I only need to find a block (they are delimited by magic bits), then create a temporary one-block bzip2 file from it in memory, and finally pass that to the bz2.decompress function. Easy, no? The bzip2 format has a crc32 checksum for the file at the end. No problem, binascii.crc32 to the rescue. But wait. The data to be checksummed does not necessarily end on a byte boundary, and the crc32 function operates on a whole number of bytes. My plan: use the binascii.crc32 function on all but the last byte, and then a function of my own to update the computed crc with the last 1-7 bits. But hours of coding and testing has left me bewildered, and my puzzlement can be boiled down to this question: how come crc32("\x00") is not 0x00000000? Shouldn't it be, according to the wikipedia article? You start with 0b00000000 and pad with 32 0's, then do polynomial division with 0x04C11DB7 until there are no ones left in the first 8 bits, which is immediately. Your last 32 bits is the checksum, and how can that not be all zeroes? I've searched google for answers and looked at the code of several crc32 implementations without finding any clue to why this is so.

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• Static Variables somehow maintaining state?

  - by gfoley

  I am working on an existing project, setup by another coder. I'm having some trouble understanding how state is being maintained between pages. There is a Class library which has some helper objects. Mostly these objects are just used for there static methods and rarely instantiated or inherited. This is an example class I'm testing with. public sealed class Application { public static string Test; } Now when i run something like the following in the base class of my page, I would expect the result to be "1: 2:Test" all the time (note that "1" is empty), but strangly its only this way the first time it is run. Then every time afterwards its "1:Test 2:Test". Somehow its maintaining the state of the static variable between pages and being refreshed?? Response.Write("1:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); SharedLibrary.Application.Test = "Test"; Response.Write(" 2:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); I need to create more classes like this, but want to understand why this is occurring in the first place. Many Thanks

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• How can I share an entity framework model across website users

  - by richardmoss

  Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

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• Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

  - by Piskvor

  I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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• How can I invoke a .Net DLL from a LabView 6.1 VI?

  - by tw1k

  I work in a manufacturing company that uses LabView for testing the devices we make. Most of the test engineers are using 7.1 which can natively reference a .Net assembly. However, there is a group that is stuck on LabView 6.1. I would like for them to be able to use my .Net assembly which is basically a proxy to some web services. I have created a test assembly that is nothing more than Hello World, and I'm trying to consume it in a VI. I made it COM visible, and registered it with regasm.exe and created a type library, which I'm not sure I need. I can see it in Visual Studio in the list of COM objects when I open the Add Reference window, so I know it's registered properly. I'm very unfamiliar with VI's. I'm only looking at it because no one I have spoken to in manufacturing knows anything about invoking a COM object in a VI. I'm basically looking for some names of controls or menu options to get the test engineers pointed in the right direction. I did a bunch of web searching on Google and the NI forums, but didn't find much. Alternatively, would it be easier to write a C or C++ DLL that acts as a proxy to my .Net DLL? Or is there a simple way to invoke a web service from a VI? That might obviate the need for a DLL altogether. I'm currently reading through this document from NI for help, but it obviously knows nothing about .Net and might not be able to help me choose the best path forward.

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• How to separate sets of numbers onto separate lines

  - by Fred

  About the script: The script below will create 300 sets of random characters. What is presently happening, is that it creates them but shows them all on one line, in one big chunk. With all the searching and testing I've done to try and achieve this, I have had no success. I would like to know which code and where to put it, so that each SET (300) of 15 characters long, will show and be saved to file. Here is my script: <?php function GetID($x){ $characters = array_merge(range('A','Z'),range('a','z'),range(2,9)); shuffle($characters); for($x=0;$x<=299;$x++){ } for (; strlen($ReqID)<$x;){ $ReqID .= $characters[mt_rand(0, count($characters))]; } return $ReqID; } $ReqID .= GetID(5); $ReqID .= "-"; $ReqID .= GetID(5); $ReqID .= "-"; $ReqID .= GetID(5); echo $ReqID; $fh = fopen("file.txt","a+"); fwrite($fh, ("$ReqID")."\n"); fclose($fh); ?>

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• How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

  - by KevinDeus

  I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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• asp.net on linux/mono broken? weird load then 404/resource error

  - by acidzombie24

  I am testing out my asp.net on mono's VM Ware Image using opensuse From the home page it says Trying out your own code You can test your own applications by connecting with the file manager on this machine to the machine hosting your application, and copying over the directory containing application and its associated files. To test your ASP.NET applications, copy your code to a new directory in /srv/www/htdocs , then visit the following url: http://localhost/directoryname/page.aspx Where directoryname is the directory where you deployed your application, and page.aspx is the initial page for your software, typically Default.aspx. Mirror: http://tortillaflatscafe.com/ I saw my app had errors. After i restarted the VM i can no longer run my app. Instead of getting error messages or anything i get this error instead. Server Error in '/myfoldername' Application The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /Default.aspx I tried /default.aspx, using sudo to set permissions to 777 recursively, restarting apache via terminal i could not get this error to go away. How do i fix this?

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• Negative number representation across multiple architechture

  - by Donotalo

  I'm working with OKI 431 micro controller. It can communicate with PC with appropriate software installed. An EEPROM is connected in the I2C bus of the micro which works as permanent memory. The PC software can read from and write to this EEPROM. Consider two numbers, B and C, each is two byte integer. B is known to both the PC software and the micro and is a constant. C will be a number so close to B such that B-C will fit in a signed 8 bit integer. After some testing, appropriate value for C will be determined by PC and will be stored into the EEPROM of the micro for later use. Now the micro can store C in two ways: The micro can store whole two byte representing C The micro can store B-C as one byte signed integer, and can later derive C from B and B-C I think that two's complement representation of negative number is now universally accepted by hardware manufacturers. Still I personally don't like negative numbers to be stored in a storage medium which will be accessed by two different architectures because negative number can be represented in different ways. For you information, 431 also uses two's complement. Should I get rid of the headache that negative number can be represented in different ways and accept the one byte solution as my other team member suggested? Or should I stick to the decision of the two byte solution because I don't need to deal with negative numbers? Which one would you prefer and why?

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• Unusual heap size limitations in VS2003 C++

  - by Shane MacLaughlin

  I have a C++ app that uses large arrays of data, and have noticed while testing that it is running out of memory, while there is still plenty of memory available. I have reduced the code to a sample test case as follows; void MemTest() { size_t Size = 500*1024*1024; // 512mb if (Size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) TRACE("Invalid Size"); void * mem = malloc(Size); if (mem == NULL) TRACE("allocation failed"); } If I create a new MFC project, include this function, and run it from InitInstance, it works fine in debug mode (memory allocated as expected), yet fails in release mode (malloc returns NULL). Single stepping through release into the C run times, my function gets inlined I get the following // malloc.c void * __cdecl _malloc_base (size_t size) { void *res = _nh_malloc_base(size, _newmode); RTCCALLBACK(_RTC_Allocate_hook, (res, size, 0)); return res; } Calling _nh_malloc_base void * __cdecl _nh_malloc_base (size_t size, int nhFlag) { void * pvReturn; // validate size if (size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) return NULL; ' ' And (size _HEAP_MAXREQ) returns true and hence my memory doesn't get allocated. Putting a watch on size comes back with the exptected 512MB, which suggests the program is linking into a different run-time library with a much smaller _HEAP_MAXREQ. Grepping the VC++ folders for _HEAP_MAXREQ shows the expected 0xFFFFFFE0, so I can't figure out what is happening here. Anyone know of any CRT changes or versions that would cause this problem, or am I missing something way more obvious?

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• How to decide between using PLINQ and LINQ at runtime?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  Or decide between a parallel and a sequential operation in general. It is hard to know without testing whether parallel or sequential implementation is best due to overhead. Obviously it will take some time to train "the decider" which method to use. I would say that this method cannot be perfect, so it is probabilistic in nature. The x,y,z do influence "the decider". I think a very naive implementation would be to give both 1/2 chance at the beginning and then start favoring them according to past performance. This disregards x,y,z, however. I suspect that this question would be better answered by academics than practitioners. Anyhow, please share your heuristic, your experience if any, your tips on this. Sample code: public interface IComputer { decimal Compute(decimal x, decimal y, decimal z); } public class SequentialComputer : IComputer { public decimal Compute( ... // sequential implementation } public class ParallelComputer : IComputer { public decimal Compute( ... // parallel implementation } public class HybridComputer : IComputer { private SequentialComputer sc; private ParallelComputer pc; private TheDecider td; // Helps to decide between the two. public HybridComputer() { sc = new SequentialComputer(); pc = new ParallelComputer(); td = TheDecider(); } public decimal Compute(decimal x, decimal y, decimal z) { decimal result; decimal time; if (td.PickOneOfTwo() == 0) { // Time this and save result into time. result = sc.Compute(...); } else { // Time this and save result into time. result = pc.Compute(); } td.Train(time); return result; } }

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• Zend Framework Form Element Validators - validate a field even if not required

  - by Jeremy Hicks

  Is there a way to get a validator to fire even if the form element isn't required? I have a form where I want to validate the contents of a texbox (make sure not empty) if the value of another form element, which is a couple of radio buttons, has a specific value selected. Right now I'm doing this by overriding the isValid() function of my form class and it works great. However, I'd like to move this to either its on validator or use the Callback validator. Here's what I have so far, but it never seems to get called unless I change the field to setRequired(true) which I don't want to do at all times, only if the value of the other form element is set to a specific value. // In my form class's init function $budget = new Zend_Form_Element_Radio('budget'); $budget->setLabel('Budget') ->setRequired(true) ->setMultiOptions($options); $budgetAmount = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('budget_amount'); $budgetAmount->setLabel('Budget Amount') ->setRequired(false) ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator(new App_Validate_BudgetAmount()); //Here is my custom validator (incomplete) but just testing to see if it even gets called. class App_Validate_BudgetAmount extends Zend_Validate_Abstract { const STRING_EMPTY = 'stringEmpty'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::STRING_EMPTY => 'please provide a budget amount' ); public function isValid($value) { echo 'validating...'; var_dump($value); return true; } }

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• Porting a web application to work in IE7

  - by Bears will eat you

  I'm developing a web application that uses lots of Javascript and CSS, both of my own creation and through third-party libraries. These include jQuery and Google Maps & Visualization JS APIs. I've been testing everything in Firefox 3. Things are peachy until it turns out the main target of this webapp is (cue sad trombone) IE7. I'm looking for caveats, advice, libraries, or other references to help make this transition as easy as possible (not that it's actually going to be easy). I've already tried IE7.js though it hasn't yet shown itself to be the silver bullet I was hoping for. I'm sure that it works as advertised, I think it's just not as all-encompassing as I'd like (example: colors like #4684EE and #DC3912, which are correctly rendered in FF3, are rendered as black in IE7, with or without IE7.js). Are there other libraries out there to help bring IE7 (more) in line with FF3? A corollary question: what debugger would you recommend for IE7? I'm currently using Firebug Lite, but it runs painfully slowly. Is there anything out there with similar features that I might have missed?

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• jquery callback functions failing to finish execution

  - by calumbrodie

  I'm testing a jquery app i've written and have come across some unexpected behaviour $('button.clickme').live('click',function(){ //do x (takes 2 seconds) //do y (takes 4 seconds) //do z (takes 0.5 seconds) }) The event can be triggered by a number of buttons. What I'm finding is that when I click each button slowly (allowing 10 seconds between clicks) - my callback function executes correctly (actions x, y & z complete). However If I rapidly click buttons on my page it appears that the function sometimes only completes up to step x or y before terminating. My question: Is it the case that if this function is fired by a clicking second DOM element, while the first callback function is completing - will jQuery terminate the first callback and start over again? Do I have to write my callback function explicitly outside the event handler and then call it?? function doStuff() { //do x //do y //do z ( } $('button.clickme).live('click',doStuff()) If this is the case can someone explain why this is happening or give me a link to some advice on best practice on closures etc - I'd like to know the BEST way to write jQuery to improve performance etc. Thanks

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• Wordpress inserting comments via wp_insert_comment()

  - by Cyber Junkie

  Hello all happy holidays! :) I'm trying to insert comments in my wordpress blog via the wp_insert_comment() function. It's for a plugin I'm trying to make. I have this code in my header for testing. It works every time I refresh the page. $agent = $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT']; $data = array( 'comment_post_ID' => 256, 'comment_author' => 'Dave', 'comment_author_email' => '[email protected]', 'comment_author_url' => 'http://www.someiste.com', 'comment_content' => 'Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet...', 'comment_author_IP' => '127.3.1.1', 'comment_agent' => $agent, 'comment_date' => date('Y-m-d H:i:s'), 'comment_date_gmt' => date('Y-m-d H:i:s'), 'comment_approved' => 1, ); $comment_id = wp_insert_comment($data); It successfully inserts comments into the database. The problem: Comments don't show via the Disqus comment system. I compared table rows and I noticed that user_agent differs. Normal comments use for example, Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv... and Disqus comments use Disqus/1.1(2.61):119598902 numbers are different for each comment. Does anyone know how to insert comments with wp_insert_comment() when Disqus is enabled?

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• Issues with simulating cell selection in Excel using PostMessage

  - by DD

  Hi all, So far I've tried drag/drop motion in many applications including Visualization software (moving time slider left/right), Photoshop-Paint (drawing) etc. I need some more testing before I make sure that my system works and it failed in Excel. I'm using the code below to send the input: m.x = 215; m.y = 200 + 36 + 9 * ( currentTime - 1 ); childH = findChild( w->getHandle(), m ); PostMessage( childH, WM_MOUSEMOVE, 0, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); PostMessage( childH, WM_LBUTTONDOWN, MK_LBUTTON, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); m.x = 215; m.y = 200 + 36 + 9 * ( currentTime ); childH = findChild( w->getHandle(), m ); PostMessage( childH, WM_MOUSEMOVE, MK_LBUTTON, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); PostMessage( childH, WM_LBUTTONUP, 0, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); I can click anywhere in Excel and select the cell, or activate buttons/menus anything. I can even drag a plot around (with the code above) but it doesn't work for clicking and dragging the mouse to select multiple cells. It just doesn't do anything. I can't use SendInput because the window doesn't have the focus and is in background. Thanks!

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• Accessing a struct collection property from within another collection

  - by paddyb

  I have a struct that I need to store in a collection. The struct has a property that returns a Dictionary. public struct Item { private IDictionary<string, string> values; public IDictionary<string, string> Values { get { return this.values ?? (this.values = new Dictionary<string, string>()); } } } public class ItemCollection : Collection<Item> {} When testing I've found that if I add the item to the collection and then try to access the dictionary the structs values property is never updated. var collection = new ItemCollection { new Item() }; // pre-loaded with an item collection[0].Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // KeyNotFoundException here However if I load up the item first and then add it to a collection the values field is maintained. var collection = new ItemCollection(); var item = new Item(); item.Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); collection.Add(item); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // ok I've already decided that a struct is the wrong option for this type, and when using a class the issue doesn't occur, but I'm curious what's different between the two methods. Can anybody explain what's happening?

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• Masonry js won't bunch images vertically

  - by user1449737

  The images are being aligned horizontally correctly but they are all spaced out vertically.. Take a look here http://brstudios.co.uk/testing to see what I mean properly.. My mark up is as followed (simplified): <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://masonry.desandro.com/jquery.masonry.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://raw.github.com/desandro/imagesloaded/master/jquery.imagesloaded.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var $container = $('.portfolio-container'); $container.imagesLoaded(function(){ $container.masonry({ itemSelector : '.break', columnWidth : 429 }); }); </script> <style type="text/css"> .break { float: left; width: 429px; margin: 10px 20px; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="portfolio-container"> <?php do { ?> <div class="break"> // Contents taken from MySQL // </div> <?php } while ($row_displayPosts = mysql_fetch_assoc($displayPosts)); ?> </div> </body> </html> I think part of it is working but as you can see by the link provided it isn't moving the elements together vertically. Does anyone have any pointers?

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• Rails 3, Devise and custom controller action

  - by Johnny Klassy

  routes.rb match 'agencies/stub' => 'agencies#stub', :via => :get resources :agencies Here's the rake routes dump agencies_stub GET /agencies/stub(.:format) {:controller=>"agencies", :action=>"stub"} agencies GET /agencies(.:format) {:action=>"index", :controller=>"agencies"} POST /agencies(.:format) {:action=>"create", :controller=>"agencies"} new_agency GET /agencies/new(.:format) {:action=>"new", :controller=>"agencies"} edit_agency GET /agencies/:id/edit(.:format) {:action=>"edit", :controller=>"agencies"} agency GET /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"show", :controller=>"agencies"} PUT /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"update", :controller=>"agencies"} DELETE /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"destroy", :controller=>"agencies"} Devise is setup to have all agenciesroutes only accessible as admin. The call I'm testing with is http://xyz:12345@localhost:3000/agencies/stub but it doesn't authenticate properly, ie, it doesn't recognize it as admin and throws me back to the Devise login page. The creds are a valid admin account. I'm baffled and have no idea why this is happening. Any insights will be much appreciated.

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• Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

  - by Randy

  Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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• Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

  - by DBase486

  Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

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• Attaching methods to prototype from within constructor function

  - by Matthew Taylor

  Here is the textbook standard way of describing a 'class' or constructor function in JavaScript, straight from the Definitive Guide to JavaScript: function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; } Rectangle.prototype.area = function() { return this.width * this.height; }; I don't like the dangling prototype manipulation here, so I was trying to think of a way to encapsulate the function definition for area inside the constructor. I came up with this, which I did not expect to work: function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; this.constructor.prototype.area = function() { return this.width * this.height; }; } I didn't expect this to work because the this reference inside the area function should be pointing to the area function itself, so I wouldn't have access to width and height from this. But it turns out I do! var rect = new Rectangle(2,3); var area = rect.area(); // great scott! it is 6 Some further testing confirmed that the this reference inside the area function actually was a reference to the object under construction, not the area function itself. function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; var me = this; this.constructor.prototype.whatever = function() { if (this === me) { alert ('this is not what you think');} }; } Turns out the alert pops up, and this is exactly the object under construction. So what is going on here? Why is this not the this I expect it to be?

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• How would I combine these two codes, PHP and HTML?

  - by user1887109

  This is what I have currently: <html> <body oncontextmenu="return false;" bgcolor="5385ab"> <p align=center><a href="test.php"><img src="image.png"/></a></p> </body> </html> I need the <body> part and to combine this PHP geo-redirect code with "test.php" also including the "image.png" Here is the PHP code: <?php require_once("geoip.inc"); $gi = geoip_open("/var/lib/GeoIP/GeoIP.dat",GEOIP_STANDARD); $country_code = geoip_country_code_by_addr($gi, $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']); geoip_close($gi); if($country_code == 'FR') { header('Location: http://www.test.php'); } else { header('Location: http://www.yahoo.com/'); } ?> I'm not familiar with PHP so I have no idea how to even go about testing these two together. Hope you can help! Thank you.

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