Search Results

Search found 14127 results on 566 pages for 'plz send me teh codez'.

Page 444/566 | < Previous Page | 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451  | Next Page >

  • IIS SMTP server (Installed on local server) in parallel to Google Apps

    - by shaharru
    I am currently using free version of Google Apps for hosting my email.It works great for my official mails my email on Google is [email protected]. In addition I'm sending out high volume mails (registrations, forgotten passwords, newsletters etc) from the website (www.mydomain.com) using IIS SMTP installed on my windows machine. These emails are sent from [email protected] My problem is that when I send email from the website using IIS SMTP to a mail address [email protected] I don’t receive the email to Google apps. (I only receive these emails if I install a pop service on the server with the [email protected] email box). It seems that the IIS SMTP is ignoring the domain MX records and just delivers these emails to my local server. Here are my DNS records for domain.com: mydomain.com A 82.80.200.20 3600s mydomain.com TXT v=spf1 ip4: 82.80.200.20 a mx ptr include:aspmx.googlemail.com ~all mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx2.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx3.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx4.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx5.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 1 exchange: aspmx.l.google.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 5 exchange: alt1.aspmx.l.google.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 5 exchange: alt2.aspmx.l.google.com 3600s Please help! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Vyatta internet connection + hosted site on same IP

    - by boburob
    Having a small issue setting up a vyatta. The company internet and two different websites are both on the same IP. Server 1 - Has websites hosted on ports 1000 and 3000 and also has a proxy server installed to provide internet connection to the domain Server 2 - Has a website hosted on ports 80 and 433 The vyatta is correctly natting the appropriate traffic to each server, and allowing the proxy to get internet traffic, however I have a problem getting to the websites hosted on these two servers inside the domain. I believe the problem is that the HTTP request is being sent with an IP, eg: 12.34.56.78. The request will reach the website and the server will attempt to send the request back to the IP, however this is the IP of the Vyatta, so it has nowhere else to go. I thought the solution would be something like this: rule 50 { destination { address 12.34.56.78 port 1000 } inbound-interface eth1 inside-address { address 10.19.2.3 } protocol tcp type destination } But this doesnt seem to do it! UPDATE I changed the rules to the following: rule 50 { destination { address 12.34.56.78 port 443 } outbound-interface eth1 protocol tcp source { address 10.19.2.3 } type masquerade } rule 51 { destination { address 12.34.56.78 port 443 } inbound-interface eth1 inside-address { address 10.19.2.2 } protocol tcp type destination } I am now seeing traffic going between the two with Wireshark, but the website will still fail to load.

    Read the article

  • Share Firefox/Thnderbird data between W7 and Linux Mint 12 in dual boot computer

    - by Albert
    I've just set up my laptop (where I had running only W7) with a dual boot to run Linux Mint 12 as well. I have a "Data" partition (apart from the required partitions for W7 and Linux) where I store pretty much everything that isn't software installations (music, videos, project files, etc). I seem to be able to access that NTFS partition totally fine from Mint (like I've always done with W7), which is cool because I can access all that stuff regardless of which OS I'm using. I would like to know if it's possible (and how) to go one step further and share programs data between the two OS. One example would be my Firefox and Thunderbird data. For example, in Firefox share my bookmarks (and if I could share history, autocomplete and all that stuff, that would be awesome). In thunderbird, be able to share my mail and configuration, seeing the same inbox, folders, message rules, etc... So if I receive/send an email from W7 and later switch to Mint, I can see that email as it had been received/sent from Mint, and vice versa. Is this even possible? Or am I asking for too much convenience? If it's possible, any clues on how to set it all up?

    Read the article

  • What kinds of protections against viruses does Linux provide out of the box for the average user?

    - by ChocoDeveloper
    I know others have asked this, but I have other questions related to this. In particular, I'm concerned about the damage that the virus can do the user itself (his files), not the OS in general nor other users of the same machine. This question came to my mind because of that ransomware virus that is encrypting machines all over the world, and then asking the user to send a payment in Bitcoin if he wants to recover his files. I have already received and opened the email that is supposed to contain the virus, so I guess I didn't do that bad because nothing happened. But would I have survived if I opened the attachment and it was aimed at Linux users? I guess not. One of the advantages is that files are not executable by default right after downloading them. Is that just a bad default in Windows and could be fixed with a proper configuration? As a Linux user, I thought my machine was pretty secure by default, and I was even told that I shouldn't bother installing an antivirus. But I have read some people saying that the most important (or only?) difference is that Linux is just less popular, so almost no one writes viruses for it. Is that right? What else can I do to be safe from this kind of ransomware virus? Not automatically executing random files from unknown sources seems to be more than enough, but is it? I can't think of many other things a user can do to protect his own files (not the OS, not other users), because he has full permissions on them.

    Read the article

  • Sign multiple domains with single Domain Key (dk-filter)

    - by Lashae
    Motivation The private shopping website GILT, send periodical update emails from giltgroupe.bounce.ed10.net however all of the mails are signed with domain keys of giltgroupe.com. mailed-by giltgroupe.bounce.ed10.net signed-by giltgroupe.com My Story I couldn't manage to sign x.com with y.com 's domain key using dk-filter under Debian Lenny with postfix. If I try to init dk-filter service with following arguments: DAEMON_OPTS="$DAEMON_OPTS -d x.com,y.com -c nofws -k -i /var/dk-filter/internal_hosts -s /etc/dk-keys.conf" dk-filter service signs with domain x.com (d=x.com) If I change the daemon arg.s as following: DAEMON_OPTS="$DAEMON_OPTS -d x.com -c nofws -k -i /var/dk-filter/internal_hosts -s /etc/dk-keys.conf" then emails sent From y.com is not being signed. the dk-keys.conf file is as follows: *:/var/dk-filter/y.com/mail I managed to do same thing with DKIM, works perfect. However DK doesn't seem to work. I don't have any problem signing y.com's emails with y.com's key and x.com's emails x.com's key, which indicates there is no configuration problem. Do you have any experience/advice to make it possible to sign emails from multiple domains by a specific chosen domain?

    Read the article

  • Setup Firefox to save .pages as .zip automatically

    - by Mike Dtrick
    What do I want to do? I would like Firefox to save files with the .pages extension as .zip files automatically. Scenario You are browsing through your emails and you notice your friend just sent you an email with a file attached (a .pages in this example). Unfortunately, you have a laptop that runs Windows. Your friend continues to send tons of emails with .pages files attached and you are tired of manually saving the files as a .zip file. Ultimately, you would like Firefox to be set up so that the download/file manager recognizes the .pages extension and automatically converts it to a .zip file. What have I done? I have saved files manually by selecting save as "All Files" and setting the extension to .zip. I've gone through Firefox and their documentation and have not found anything on how to complete this task. Why am I doing this? To save time (only a few seconds, not the main reason). I would like to setup a simple solution that "converts" a file automatically without having to recall steps on how to achieve the task manually (for clients who aren't exactly tech savvy). So that clients with Windows can access the files. IMPORTANT NOTE: I am not trying to save the web page, rather an Apple document equivalent to Microsoft Word. UPDATE: The really easy method would be to save one file, right click it, choose properties and open all .pages files up with WinRAR (or any other program that extracts files from a compressed folder). For the sake of learning, I am going to "neglect" this method and continue to do some research on Firefox add-ons. I would still like to have Firefox or the download manager to do the bulk of the work for converting the file.

    Read the article

  • HP Power Manager SMTP setup doesn't have space for username & password

    - by Martha
    Is there some way to configure HP Power Manager to not assume that there's an email server running locally? We recently acquired an HP T1500 G3 UPS, which we're trying to control using HP Power Manager 4.2. The main reason we wanted to get this particular UPS is because it says it's capable of sending notifications (of the "Yo, the power's out, you may want to look into it" type) via email, as opposed to SNMP. Turns out, that's not entirely true. The server is running Windows Server 2003. It is not running an email server of any sort - we do that via two different providers. Outlook email is provided by Verizon, and our SMTP email service is provided by a small local company. When we use CDO to send auto-generated notification emails, we have to provide the SMTP server name, port, username, and password. The HP Power Manager interface only allows us to enter the server name and the username. Thus, not surprisingly, the emails never go anywhere. Help?

    Read the article

  • Writing scripts that work with my emails

    - by queueoverflow
    I currently use Thunderbird as my email client and it has some filters, but that seems to be all I can program in it. On several occasions, I heard people talk about their automated email workflow. One example: When I do not get a reply to an email the script will send a “nag” email asking why I did not get a response yet. Or another one: I get so much mail that I cannot read them all. After a week, unread email is put on hold and the sender gets a “if it was important, reply to this email and it will be set to un-hold” email. The script then takes the answer and move it to back into the important folder. I read about FiltaQuilla which seems nice, but it does not seem to be the kind of programming that I am looking for. How can I write general purpose scripts like those? Do I need to write my own Python IMAP/SMTP client (if that is even possible) to to this or can I script it it, say JavaScript, in Thunderbird?

    Read the article

  • Undeliverable e-mail message from [email protected]

    - by QGfisher
    I am responsible for IT for a small charity and we have a problem with a few individuals who e-mail us on our hosted e-mail addresses. The individual is on btconnect and our server is also on BT broadband and using MSExchange. I understand that the message from [email protected] are generated by Exchange but can't tell whether this is a problem with our server (seems unlikely as most people send and receive e-mails perfectly well) or with the sender's server. I have copied a sample test message below and would be very grateful if somebody can explain what is causing this problem. I have * the personal details - hope that's acceptable but I don't want to compromise the individual's identity/security. ----- Original Message ----- From: "System Administrator" To: "****" <****.***@btconnect.com Sent: Tuesday, April 06, 2010 3:26 PM Subject: Undeliverable: Test Message Your message To: ***** Subject: Test Message Sent: Tue, 6 Apr 2010 15:25:59 +0100 did not reach the following recipient(s): ***@quiltersguild.org.uk on Tue, 6 Apr 2010 15:26:07 +0100 The e-mail account does not exist at the organization this message was sent to. Check the e-mail address, or contact the recipient directly to find out the correct address.

    Read the article

  • Can't access Port 80 from external

    - by dewacorp.alliances
    Hi there I have configuration like this: NETGEAR MODEM LINKSYS ROUTER SERVERS In the modem, I've setup as bridging and all the traffic is controlling by this ROUTER. Prior to this setup, I can access website from external (port 80) plus exchange servers (mail) and https. But now with this configuration, I can only send/receive using Exhcange servers and access OWA (Outlook web access using port 443) .... and no internal websites from outside. This is my config for LINKSYS ROUTER Application | Start | End | Protocol | IP Address Ms Exchange | 25 | 25 | Both (TCP/UDP) | 192.168.100.8 Internets | 80 | 80 | Both (TCP/UDP) | 192.168.100.11 SSL | 443 | 443 | Both (TCP/UDP) | 192.168.100.8 Exchange | 110 | 110 | Both (TCP/UDP) | 192.168.100.8 192.168.100.11 is a UBUNTU web server that running the apache which controlling the virtual name (extranet, cms, test) to redirect to the different servers. As you can see, the home internet is only allowing public IP address. Now I test this schenarion in internal network work nicely. For instance. If I type in extranet.XXX.local it goes to the right applicatios or if I try CMS.XXX.local again it goes to the right one. I also asked to ISP just in case if they are blocking the inbound port 80 for unknown reason. They said no. So I didn't understand why this happens. I suspect the configuration that I have between MODEM ROUTER but I counldn't work what it is. I don't have a documentation of previous settings and I don't know if there is a port that I need to open as well. I am appreciated your comment

    Read the article

  • Howto change Axis server-config.wsdd so that we don't expect a SOAPAction

    - by GKForcare
    The problem I'm facing is that the client of my service will never send me a SOAPAction header. How can I tell Axis to still map to the incomming call to my service implementation anyway. I did bump into tricks like adding a Handler like this: <handler name="ReportMapper" type="java:com.mycompany.project.ReportMapper"/> <transport name="http"> <requestFlow> <handler type="ReportMapper"/> <handler type="URLMapper"/> <handler type="java:org.apache.axis.handlers.http.HTTPAuthHandler"/> </requestFlow> <parameter name="qs:list" value="org.apache.axis.transport.http.QSListHandler"/> <parameter name="qs:wsdl" value="org.apache.axis.transport.http.QSWSDLHandler"/> <parameter name="qs.list" value="org.apache.axis.transport.http.QSListHandler"/> <parameter name="qs.method" value="org.apache.axis.transport.http.QSMethodHandler"/> <parameter name="qs:method" value="org.apache.axis.transport.http.QSMethodHandler"/> <parameter name="qs.wsdl" value="org.apache.axis.transport.http.QSWSDLHandler"/> </transport> but that did not help. The mapper is found during the creation of the WSDL but when calling the service, the invoke of the handler is not used. I do need to note that when I simulate the SOAP-call using @curl@ and I do add the SOAPAction header, the invoke is called. Any help would be most appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Malicious content on server - next steps advice [closed]

    - by Under435
    Possible Duplicate: My server's been hacked EMERGENCY I just got an e-mail from my hosting company that they got a report of malicious content being hosted on my vps. I was unaware of this and started looking into it. I discovered a file called /var/www/mysite.com/osc.htm. Soon after I discovered some weird php files wp-includes.php and ndlist.php both recognized as being PHP/WebShell.A.1 virus. I removed all these files but I'm unsure of what to do next. Can anyone help me analyze the output below of sudo netstat -A inet -p -e and give advice on what's best to do next. Thanks very much in advance Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State User Inode PID/Program name tcp 0 0 localhost.localdo:mysql localhost.localdo:37495 TIME_WAIT root 0 - tcp 0 1 mysite.com:50524 xnacreators.net:smtp SYN_SENT Debian-exim 69746 25848/exim4 tcp 0 0 mysite.com:www tha165.thehealtha:37065 TIME_WAIT root 0 - tcp 0 0 localhost.localdo:37494 localhost.localdo:mysql TIME_WAIT root 0 - udp 0 0 mysite.com:59447 merlin.ensma.fr:ntp ESTABLISHED ntpd 3769 2522/ntpd udp 0 0 mysite.com:36432 beast.syus.org:ntp ESTABLISHED ntpd 4357 2523/ntpd udp 0 0 mysite.com:48212 formularfetischiste:ntp ESTABLISHED ntpd 3768 2522/ntpd udp 0 0 mysite.com:46690 formularfetischiste:ntp ESTABLISHED ntpd 4354 2523/ntpd udp 0 0 mysite.com:35009 stratum-2-core-a.qu:ntp ESTABLISHED ntpd 4356 2523/ntpd udp 0 0 mysite.com:58702 stratum-2-core-a.qu:ntp ESTABLISHED ntpd 3770 2522/ntpd udp 0 0 mysite.com:49583 merlin.ensma.fr:ntp ESTABLISHED ntpd 4355 2523/ntpd udp 0 0 mysite.com:56290 beast.syus.org:ntp ESTABLISHED ntpd 3771 2522/ntpd

    Read the article

  • How ZFS handles online replacement in a RAID-Z (theoretical)

    - by Kevin
    This is a somewhat theoretical question about ZFS and RAID-Z. I'll use a three disk single-parity array as an example for clarity, but the problem can be extended to any number of disks and any parity. Suppose we have disks A, B, and C in the pool, and that it is clean. Suppose now that we physically add disk D with the intention of replacing disk C, and that disk C is still functioning correctly and is only being replaced out of preventive maintenance. Some admins might just yank C and install D, which is a little more organized as devices need not change IDs - however this does leave the array degraded temporarily and so for this example suppose we install D without offlining or removing C. Solaris docs indicate that we can replace a disk without first offlining it, using a command such as: zpool replace pool C D This should cause a resilvering onto D. Let us say that resilvering proceeds "downwards" along a "cursor." (I don't know the actual terminology used in the internal implementation.) Suppose now that midways through the resilvering, disk A fails. In theory, this should be recoverable, as above the cursor B and D contain sufficient parity and below the cursor B and C contain sufficient parity. However, whether or not this is actually recoverable depnds upon internal design decisions in ZFS which I am not aware of (and which the manual doesn't say in certain terms). If ZFS continues to send writes to C below the cursor, then we are fine. If, however, ZFS internally treats C as though it were gone, resilvering D only from parity between A and B and only writing A and B below the cursor, then we're toast. Some experimenting could answer this question but I was hoping maybe someone on here already knows which way ZFS handles this situation. Thank you in advance for any insight!

    Read the article

  • why altgr+p doesn't work, AUTOHOTKEY

    - by voodoomsr
    Hi guys, i try and i try to find the bug in this script but i can't . Maybe some of you can give me a hint... Problem. When i press altgr&p it suppose that the Delete key is triggered, but the weird thing is that after one succesfull delete, if i continue pressing altgr&p appears the p, and the delete isn't triggered anymore. in the meantime i test other solution move to the right and then delete with the backspace, that works, but when i have text selected this alternative isn't good.... here is the code #InstallKeybdHook ;characters very used RAlt & e:: SendInput []{Left} Return RAlt & w:: SendInput <>{Left} Return RAlt & d:: SendInput (){Left} Return RAlt & s:: SendRaw {} SendInput {Left} Return RAlt & x:: SendInput ""{Left} Return RAlt & c:: SendInput ''{Left} Return RAlt & f:: SendInput * Return RAlt & r:: SendRaw + Return RAlt & v:: SendInput - Return ;comienzo y fin de linea RAlt & a:: SendInput {Home} Return RAlt & z:: SendInput {End} Return ;movimientos InEditon /* RAlt & p:: SendInput {Right}{BackSpace} Return */ <^>!p:: Send {Del} Return RAlt & o:: SendInput {Up} Return RAlt & l:: SendInput {Down} Return RAlt & k:: SendInput {Left} Return RAlt & ñ:: SendInput {Right} Return RAlt & ,:: SendInput {Enter} Return RAlt & i:: SendInput {BackSpace} Return ;; clipx ^mbutton:: sendinput ^+{insert} Return ^+k::^+Left +k::+Left ^k::Left +l::+Down ^+l::^+Down ^l::^Down +ñ::+Right ^+ñ::^+Right ^ñ::^Right +o::+Up ^+o::^+Up ^o::^Up +a::+Home ^+a::^+Home +z::+End ^+z::^+End

    Read the article

  • Apache serving empty gzip with assets produced by Rails Asset Pipeline

    - by PizzaPill
    I followed the steps described on the blogpost The Asset Pipeline, from development to production and tweaked them to my environment. The two important files are: /etc/apache/site-available/example.com <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName example.com ServerAlias www.example.com DocumentRoot "/var/www/sites/example.com/current/public" ErrorLog "/var/log/apache2/example.com-error_log" CustomLog "/var/log/apache2/example.com-access_log" common <Directory "/var/www/sites/example.com/current/public"> Options All AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/var/www/sites/example.com/current/public/assets"> AllowOverride All </Directory> <LocationMatch "^/assets/.*$"> Header unset Last-Modified Header unset ETag FileETag none ExpiresActive On ExpiresDefault "access plus 1 year" </LocationMatch> RewriteEngine On # Remove the www RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.example.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://example.com/$1 [R=301,L] </VirtualHost> /var/www/sites/example.com/shared/assets/.htaccess RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP:Accept-Encoding} \b(x-)?gzip\b RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}.gz -s RewriteRule ^(.+) $1.gz [L] <FilesMatch \.css\.gz$> ForceType text/css Header set Content-Encoding gzip </FilesMatch> <FilesMatch \.js\.gz$> ForceType text/javascript Header set Content-Encoding gzip </FilesMatch> But apache seems to send empty gzip files because the testsite looses all styles and firebug doesnt find any content for the css files. Altough if I call the assets-path directly I get some gibberish that looks like binary data. If I move the htaccess-file everything is back to normal. How could I find out where/what went wrong or do you have any suggestions what error I made? > apache2 -v System: Server version: Apache/2.2.14 (Ubuntu) Server built: Mar 5 2012 16:42:17 > uname -a Linux node0 2.6.18-028stab094.3 #1 SMP Thu Sep 22 12:47:37 MSD 2011 x86_64 GNU/Linux

    Read the article

  • How to set up simple VPN for secure Internet connections over unencrypted Wi-Fi on Windows?

    - by Senseful
    I'm looking for a solution similar to the one in this question, except that I don't have a linux computer. I have windows computers that could be set up to accept VPN connections. Preferably I want to set this up on either Windows Server 2003 or Windows XP. I'd like to connect different devices (e.g. iPhone, iPad, laptops, etc.) that are on open unsecure wireless networks (e.g. the one's you see at places like Starbucks) to this VPN to ensure that all my data is secure. I found an article that shows that you can enable VPN connections on Windows XP. After following those steps, though, I'm not sure what to do. Which ports do I open on my firewall? Which VPN settings do I use on my devices such as the iPhone? Do I use L2TP, PPTP, or IPSec? What's the difference between these? Are there any other steps missing in that tutorial? I'm hoping that since Windows has this built in feature, that it will be much simpler to set up rather than having to deal with setting up something such as OpenVPN. If I follow those settings and enable port forwarding on port 1723, and then use the following settings on the iPhone: PPTP (IP Address) RSA SecurID: Off Encryption Level: Auto Send All Traffic: On Proxy: Off It shows "Connecting..." then "Disconnecting..." and the following error message: VPN Configuration A connection could not be established to the PPP server. Try reconnecting. If the problem continues, verify your settings and contact your Administrator. I'm using a user account that I enabled privileges to in the VPN settings on the Windows machine.

    Read the article

  • VLAN setup on my PC

    - by Surjya Narayana Padhi
    Hi Geeks, I am bit new to VLAN. I want my two computers communicate through VLAN. I have following queries. As I am new to it my queries may be somewhat vague in some points. But i would like to hear from experts for my basic queries. I have two PCs Computer A and Computer B in two different IP networks Network A and Network B Both my PC has windows OS installed. How to send a VLAN(#Number) tagged packet from Computer A to Computer B and how to detect and untag the packet at Computer B? (Please provide the steps for windows OS) For this action do I need to check if my ethernet card supports VLAN tagging/untagging? If yes how can I know if my card supports it or not? Is the VLAN applied for Wireless ethernet controllers also? Do I need any switch or router for this action? Experts please given your inputs so that I can have a strong basic. If anyone can give some inputs how i can detect those VLAN in wireshirk, it will be helpful me also. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Cisco 3560+ipservices -- IGMP snooping issue with TTL=1

    - by Jander
    I've got a C3560 with Enhanced (IPSERVICES) image, routing multicast between its VLANs with no external multicast router. It's serving a test environment where developers may generate multicast traffic on arbitrary addresses. Everything is working fine except when someone sends out multicast traffic with TTL=1, in which case the multicast packet suppression fails and the traffic is broadcast to all members of the VLAN. It looks to me like because the TTL is 1, the multicast routing subsystem doesn't see the packets, so it doesn't create a mroute table entry. If I send out packets with TTL=2 briefly, then switch to TTL=1 packets, they are filtered correctly until the mroute entry expires. My question: is there some trick to getting the switch to filter the TTL=1 packets, or am I out of luck? Below are the relevant parts of the config, with a representative VLAN interface. I can provide more info as needed. #show run ... ip routing ip multicast-routing distributed no ip igmp snooping report-suppression ! interface Vlan44 ip address 172.23.44.1 255.255.255.0 no ip proxy-arp ip pim passive ... #show ip igmp snooping vlan 44 Global IGMP Snooping configuration: ------------------------------------------- IGMP snooping : Enabled IGMPv3 snooping (minimal) : Enabled Report suppression : Disabled TCN solicit query : Disabled TCN flood query count : 2 Robustness variable : 2 Last member query count : 2 Last member query interval : 1000 Vlan 44: -------- IGMP snooping : Enabled IGMPv2 immediate leave : Disabled Multicast router learning mode : pim-dvmrp CGMP interoperability mode : IGMP_ONLY Robustness variable : 2 Last member query count : 2 Last member query interval : 1000

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 remote desktop encryption error every few minutes

    - by rfrankel
    Because of an error in data encryption, this session will now end. This is the error I've been getting more and more frequently over the past few days, to the point that I can't ignore it because it's happening consistently within 5 minutes of connecting - sometimes within a few seconds. Both the remote and local machines are Windows 7 Pro x64. The remote machine is behind a Linksys RV082, and I'm using UPnP to forward a remote port to the correct local port. This setup had been working fine for several months, and I can't think of any recent relevant changes that might have been made. Things I've already tried: Disabling unnecessary components of the network connection on the remote machine, until only IPv4 and Client for Microsoft Networks remain. Disabling TCP large send offload on both the remote and local machines. Confirming that the remote machine is not mentioned anywhere in any DMZ settings on the Linksys router. Confirming that there are no x509-related registry keys screwing things up (this is the suggested fix for a slightly different error anyway). These are the only solutions I've been able to find after about an hour of searching, and most of them apply to XP or Server 2003 in any case. If anyone could suggest something else, it would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Apache going straight to 100% mem usage on localhost

    - by Dennis Pedrie
    Hi, I'm running XAMPP on a OS X testing server... I'm the only person sending requests to the server. I've never messed with Apache config before, so I'm kinda without a paddle here. When I start Apache, I get ~10 httpd processes started, and 95% idle CPU. When I request a WordPress page, the CPU usage goes to 50%, and the page loads in about five seconds. It seems like once the page has finished loading, the CPU usage jumps to 100%, almost all of that httpd. A ton of processes get started, and they don't go away, and their CPU usage stays the same. I've changed the MaxRequestPerChild setting and so forth, but nothing seems to solve the problem. Even now, having not send any requests for about 15 minutes, the CPU usage is at 100%. Here's the applicable settings: Timeout 10 KeepAlive On MaxKeepAliveRequests 0 KeepAliveTimeout 3 <IfModule mpm_prefork_module> StartServers 5 MinSpareServers 0 MaxSpareServers 2 MaxClients 20 MaxRequestsPerChild 50 </IfModule> I had always thought that once the request was made, Apache killed the process. Is there anything I can do to bring down the CPU usage, or is this just something I'll have to deal with? Thanks for helping out an Apache idiot.

    Read the article

  • Using my own Postfix, filtering spam and getting all the mail into my ISP's inbox

    - by djechelon
    Hello, I currently own a domain bought via GoDaddy.com, which provides me a basic email setup for the most common needs. I configured it to forward all mail to [email protected] to [email protected]. I also own a virtual server with a running Postfix that I use for a specific website (all mail to somedomain.com gets forwarded via LMTP to a program written by me). Since I'm recently experiencing some harassing by spammers, since GoDaddy doesn't seem to filter spam, and since my Windows Phone's Pocket Outlook cannot filter spam, I would like to use SpamAssassin to filter inbound spam by changing my domain's MX records to my server My ideal setup is the following: All mail delivered to somedomain.com gets redirected via LMTP as usual via virtual transport without any spam check All mail to [email protected] gets redirected to [email protected] after a severe spam check I don't care about [email protected] since I use just one address for now I would like to train SpamAssassin with customized spam rules, possibly based on the presence of certain keywords (links to certain unsubscribe pages I found recurring) I currently configured Postfix with transport somedomain.com lmtp:[127.0.0.1]:8025 .somedomain.com error: Cannot accept mail for this domain relay somedomain.com OK (I guess I should add mydomain.com OK too) virtual @mydomain.com [email protected] (looks like a catch-all rule, it's OK as requirement 3) I installed SpamAssassin, I can do rcspamd start and set it to boot with the server, but I don't know if there is anything else to do for use in Postfix, and how to apply requirement 1 (only mail to mydomain.com gets filtered) I also tried to send an email via Telnet to make sure my settings are ready for MX change. I received the message into my account but I found that it gone through secureserver.net, like Postfix didn't rewrite the destination but simply relayed the message. Thank you in advance. I'm no expert in SpamAssassin, and I have little experience in Postfix (enough to avoid making my server an open relay)

    Read the article

  • Gathering buslogic SCSI hardware and virtual machine operating system

    - by Julian
    I'm trying to use Powershell to get SCSI hardware from several virtual servers and get the operating system of each specific server. I've managed to get the specific SCSI hardware that I want to find with my code, however I'm unable to figure out how to properly get the operating system of each of the servers. Also, I'm trying to send all the data that I find into a csv log file, however I'm unsure of how you can make a powershell script create multiple columns. Here is my code (almost works but something's wrong): $log = "C:\Users\me\Documents\Scripts\ScsiLog.csv" Get-VM | Foreach-Object { $vm = $_ Get-ScsiController -VM $vm | Where-Object { $_.Type -eq "VirtualBusLogic" } | Foreach-Object { get-VMGuest -VM $vm } | Foreach-Object{ Write-output $vm.Guest.VmName >> $log } } I don't receive any errors when I run this code however whenever I run it I'm only getting the name of the servers and not the OS. Also I'm not sure what I need to do to make the OS appear in a different column from the name of the server in the csv log that I'm creating. What do I need to change in my code to get the OS version of each virtual machine and output it in a different column in my csv log file? EDIT: Here's a more in depth look at things I've tried that have all failed: Get-VM | Foreach-Object { $vm = $_ $svm = Get-ScsiController -VM $vm | Where-Object { $_.Type -eq "VirtualBusLogic" } Foreach-Object {get-VMGuest -VM $svm } | Foreach-Object{Write-output $svm >> $log} } #Get-VM | Foreach-Object { # $vm = $_ # Get-ScsiController -VM $vm | Where-Object { $_.Type -eq "VirtualBusLogic"} #| write-host $vm # | Foreach-Object { # # #get-VMGuest -VM $_ | # #write-host $vm # #get-VMGuest -VM $vm } | Foreach-Object{ # #write-output $vm.VmName >> $log # #write-output $vm.guest.VmName, get-VmGuest -VM $vm >> $log NO GOOD # # Write-host $vm.Guest.VmName #+ get-vmGuest -vm $VM >> $log # # # } # } I'm not sure why get-VmGuest fails though. I'm getting the scsi hardware, filtering the hardware to only get buslogic, and then wanting to get the operating system of just the filtered VMs. I don't see where my code fails though.

    Read the article

  • Any program to help me check whether an ethernet channel can support full-length VLAN packet?

    - by Jimm Chen
    Sometimes, I have to face such a situation that I need to quickly and explicitly know whether a full length VLAN packet can traverse between two RJ45 ports. Yes, I mean 802.1Q ethernet frame with Etype=81 00 (diagram below). What I can do now is: Get two Windows PCs, for each PC, intall Intel Gigabit NIC and Intel specific driver to create a virtual NIC, with VLAN ID=3 assigned. Then connect the two PCs to each of the two RJ45 port. Finally execute ping to generate a full-length ethernet packet. ping -f -l 1472 <dest-IP> This way, I can be sure that the sent packet has the maximum "IP data payload" of 1500 bytes(8 bytes of ICMP header and 1472 bytes of ICMP data). If the ping gets reply, I know that the ethernet channel support full-length VLAN packet. From my experiment, some home switch or broad band routers(e.g. Linksys WRT54G) does not support full-length VLAN packet switching, so only ping -f -l 1468 succeeds. You see, I have to use an expensive Intel NIC to carry on that test, quite inconvenient. You know, for most laptop today, they do not equip an Intel NIC, and, even it is an Intel NIC, Intel VLAN driver, Intel has limitations on the models on which VLAN driver can be installed. So, my question is: Is there a small program that can let me send a full-length VLAN packet without installing a dedicated VLAN driver? Or better, the program has a stock feature that does the very job for my situation. Windows programs preferred, Linux solution welcome. Simpler the program, the better. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Monitor mode 802.11 captures on OSX

    - by Mike A
    I'm trying to determine the difference between capturing 802.11 frames in the following ways on OSX (10.8.5). It's a bit esoteric, but I use "Option 2" to capture frames for later analysis, and am wondering if I'm missing something. Option 1: use "airportd": $sudo /usr/libexec/airportd en0 sniff Option 2: use "airport" followed by tcpdump: sudo /System/Library/PrivateFrameworks/Apple80211.framework/Versions/Current/Resources/airport --channel= sudo tcpdump -I -P -i en0 -w /tmp/capture.pcap (or alternatvely eliminate the -w and watch packets real-time). From what I can tell: Both commands, according to the wifi icon on OSX, put the interface into 'monitor' mode. Both commands output a pcap file that is readable in both wireshark/tcpdump & Eye PA. Both commands appear to capture management, control and data frames. The rub: Option 1 disconnects you from the network. This is expected, when putting an interface into 'monitor' mode. Option 2 does NOT disconnect you, provided you've set the channel to the same channel your currently connected to. This has a distinct advantage of keeping your connection up while capturing in monitor mode. My question: Option 2 does not seem like it should work, or more specifically, it does not seem like I should be able to remain connected while also capturing frames in monitor mode. On a wired NIC, you can be 'promiscuous' and still send frames, though I didn't think the same was true for wireless NIC. I'm questioning the validity of capturing frames w/ Option 2?

    Read the article

  • Upstart can't determine my process' pid

    - by sirlark
    I'm writing an upstart script for a small service I've written for my colleagues. My upstart job can start the service, but when it does it only outputs queryqueue start/running; note the lack of a pid as given for other services. #/etc/init/queryqueue.conf description "Query Queue Daemon" author "---" start on started mysql stop on stopping mysql expect fork env DEFAULTFILE=/etc/default/queryqueue umask 007 kill timeout 30 pre-start script #if [ -f "$DEFAULTFILE" ]; then # . "$DEFAULTFILE" #fi [ ! -f /var/run/queryqueue.sock ] || rm -rf /var/run/queryqueue.sock #exec /usr/local/sbin/queryqueue -s /var/run/queryqueue.sock -d -l /tmp/upstart.log -p $PIDFILE -n $NUM_WORKERS $CLEANCACHE $FLUSHCACHE $CACHECONN end script script #Originally this stanza didn't exist at all if [ -f "$DEFAULTFILE" ]; then . "$DEFAULTFILE" fi exec /usr/local/sbin/queryqueue -s /var/run/queryqueue.sock -d -l /tmp/upstart.log -p $PIDFILE -n $NUM_WORKERS $CLEANCACHE $FLUSHCACHE $CACHECONN end script post-start script for i in `seq 1 5` ; do [ -S /var/run/queryqueue.sock ] && exit 0 sleep 1 done exit 1 end script The service in question is a python script, which when run without error, forks using the code below right after checking command line options and basic environmental sanity, so I tell upstart to expect fork. pid = os.fork() if pid != 0: sys.exit(0) The script is executable, and has a python shebang. I can send the TERM signal to the process manually, and it quits gracefully. But running stop queryqueue claims queryqueue stop/waiting but the process is still alive and well. Also, it's logs indicate it never received the kill signal. I'm guessing this is because upstart doesn't know which pid it has. I've also tried expect daemon and leaving the expect clause out entirely, but there's no change in behaviour. How can I get upstart to determine the pid of the exec'd process

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451  | Next Page >