Search Results

Search found 18695 results on 748 pages for 'query manipulation'.

Page 444/748 | < Previous Page | 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451  | Next Page >

  • Ordering by a max or a min from another table

    - by Paul Tomblin
    I have a table that consists of a unique id, and a few other attributes. It holds "schedules". Then I have another table that holds a list of all the times each schedule has or will "fire". This isn't the exact schema, but it's close: create table schedule ( id varchar(40) primary key, attr1 int, attr2 varchar(20) ); create table schedule_times ( id varchar(40) foreign key schedule(id), fire_date date ); I want to query the schedule table, getting the attributes and the next and previous fire_dates, in Java, sometimes ordering on one of the attributes, but sometimes ordering on either previous fire_date or the next fire_date. Ordering by the attributes is easy, I just stick an "order by" into the string while I'm building my prepared statement. I'm not even sure how to go about selecting the last fire_date and the next one in a single query - I know that I can find the next fire_date for a given id by doing a SELECT min(fire_date) FROM schedule_times WHERE id = ? AND fire_date > sysdate; and the similar thing for previous fire_date using max() and fire_date < sysdate. I'm just drawing a blank on how to incorporate that into a single select from the schedule so I can get both next and previous fire_date in one shot, and also how to order by either of those attributes.

    Read the article

  • How can I strip Python logging calls without commenting them out?

    - by cdleary
    Today I was thinking about a Python project I wrote about a year back where I used logging pretty extensively. I remember having to comment out a lot of logging calls in inner-loop-like scenarios (the 90% code) because of the overhead (hotshot indicated it was one of my biggest bottlenecks). I wonder now if there's some canonical way to programmatically strip out logging calls in Python applications without commenting and uncommenting all the time. I'd think you could use inspection/recompilation or bytecode manipulation to do something like this and target only the code objects that are causing bottlenecks. This way, you could add a manipulator as a post-compilation step and use a centralized configuration file, like so: [Leave ERROR and above] my_module.SomeClass.method_with_lots_of_warn_calls [Leave WARN and above] my_module.SomeOtherClass.method_with_lots_of_info_calls [Leave INFO and above] my_module.SomeWeirdClass.method_with_lots_of_debug_calls Of course, you'd want to use it sparingly and probably with per-function granularity -- only for code objects that have shown logging to be a bottleneck. Anybody know of anything like this? Note: There are a few things that make this more difficult to do in a performant manner because of dynamic typing and late binding. For example, any calls to a method named debug may have to be wrapped with an if not isinstance(log, Logger). In any case, I'm assuming all of the minor details can be overcome, either by a gentleman's agreement or some run-time checking. :-)

    Read the article

  • Heterogeneous queries require the ANSI_NULLS

    - by Dezigo
    I wrote a trigger. USE [TEST] GO /****** Object: Trigger [dbo].[TR_POSTGRESQL_UPDATE_YC] Script Date: 05/26/2010 08:54:03 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[TR_POSTGRESQL_UPDATE_YC] ON [dbo].[BCT_CNTR_EVENTS] FOR INSERT AS BEGIN DECLARE @MOVE_TIME varchar(14); DECLARE @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED varchar(20); DECLARE @RELEASE_NOTE varchar(32); DECLARE @CMR_NUMBER varchar(15); DECLARE @MOVE_TYPE varchar(2); SELECT @MOVE_TIME = inserted.move_time ,@MOVE_TYPE = inserted.move_type ,@RELEASE_NOTE = inserted.release_note ,@CMR_NUMBER = inserted.cmr_number FROM inserted IF(@MOVE_TYPE = 'YC') BEGIN SET @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED = SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,1,4) + '-' + SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,5,2) + '-' + SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,7,2) + ' 00:00:00' --UPDATE OpenQuery(POSTGRESQL_SERV,'SELECT visit_cmr,visit_timestamp,visit_pin FROM VISIT') -- SET visit_cmr = @RELEASE_NOTE -- WHERE visit_timestamp = @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED -- AND visit_pin = right(@CMR_NUMBER,5) -- AND visit_cmr IS NULL END SET NOCOUNT ON; END When I have inserted a row,I have get an error **Heterogeneous queries require the ANSI_NULLS and ANSI_WARNINGS options to be set for the connection. This ensures consistent query semantics. Enable these options and then reissue your query.** Then I ofcourse SET SET ANSI_WARNINGS is ON but it`s not work for me. (trigger fo linked server postgresql) I have restarted a server. not work again.

    Read the article

  • How do I include a frameset under CGI.pm?

    - by neversaint
    I want to have a cgi-script that does two things. Take the input from a form. Generate results base on the input values on a frame. I also want the frame to exist only after the result is generated/printed. Below is the simplified code of what I want to do. But somehow it doesn't work. What's the right way to do it? #!/usr/local/bin/perl use CGI ':standard'; print header; print start_html('A Simple Example'), h1('A Simple Example'), start_form, "What's your name? ",textfield('name'), p, "What's the combination?", p, checkbox_group(-name=>'words', -values=>['eenie','meenie','minie','moe'], -defaults=>['eenie','minie']), p, "What's your favorite color? ", popup_menu(-name=>'color', -values=>['red','green','blue','chartreuse']), p, submit, end_form, hr; if (param()) { # begin create the frame print <<EOF; <html><head><title>$TITLE</title></head> <frameset rows="10,90"> <frame src="$script_name/query" name="query"> <frame src="$script_name/response" name="response"> </frameset> EOF # Finish creating frame print "Your name is: ",em(param('name')), p, "The keywords are: ",em(join(", ",param('words'))), p, "Your favorite color is: ",em(param('color')), hr; } print end_html;

    Read the article

  • Linq In Clause & Predicate building

    - by Michael G
    I have two tables. Report and ReportData. ReportData has a constraint ReportID. How can I write my linq query to return all Report objects where the predicate conditions are met for ReportData? Something like this in SQL: SELECT * FROM Report as r Where r.ServiceID = 3 and r.ReportID IN (Select ReportID FROM ReportData WHERE JobID LIKE 'Something%') This is how I'm building my predicate: Expression<Func<ReportData, bool>> predicate = PredicateBuilder.True<ReportData>(); predicate = predicate.And(x => x.JobID.StartsWith(QueryConfig.Instance.DataStreamName)); var q = engine.GetReports(predicate, reportsDataContext); reports = q.ToList(); This is my query construction at the moment: public override IQueryable<Report> GetReports(Expression<Func<ReportData, bool>> predicate, LLReportsDataContext reportDC) { if (reportDC == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("reportDC"); var q = reportDC.ReportDatas.Where(predicate).Where(r => r.ServiceID.Equals(1)).Select(r => r.Report); return q; }

    Read the article

  • How can I free all allocated memory at once?

    - by Tommy
    Here is what I am working with: char* qdat[][NUMTBLCOLS]; char** tdat[]; char* ptr_web_data; // Loop thru each table row of the query result set for(row_index = 0; row_index < number_rows; row_index++) { // Loop thru each column of the query result set and extract the data for(col_index = 0; col_index < number_cols; col_index++) { ptr_web_data = (char*) malloc((strlen(Data) + 1) * sizeof(char)); memcpy (ptr_web_data, column_text, strlen(column_text) + 1); qdat[row_index][web_data_index] = ptr_web_data; } } tdat[row_index] = qdat[col_index]; After the data is used, the memory allocated is released one at a time using free(). for(row_index = 0; row_index < number_rows; row_index++) { // Loop thru all columns used for(col_index = 0; col_index < SARWEBTBLCOLS; col_index++) { // Free memory block pointed to by results set array free(tdat[row_index][col_index]); } } Is there a way to release all the allocated memory at once, for this array? Thank You.

    Read the article

  • What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

    - by durandai
    I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

    Read the article

  • What is happening in this T-SQL code? (Concatenting the results of a SELECT statement)

    - by Ben McCormack
    I'm just starting to learn T-SQL and could use some help in understanding what's going on in a particular block of code. I modified some code in an answer I received in a previous question, and here is the code in question: DECLARE @column_list AS varchar(max) SELECT @column_list = COALESCE(@column_list, ',') + 'SUM(Case When Sku2=' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' - ' + Convert(varchar,Description) +'],' FROM OrderDetailDeliveryReview Inner Join InvMast on SKU2 = SKU and LocationTypeID=4 GROUP BY Sku2 , Description ORDER BY Sku2 Set @column_list = Left(@column_list,Len(@column_list)-1) Select @column_list ---------------------------------------- 1 row is returned: ,SUM(Case When Sku2=157 Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [157 -..., SUM(Case ... The T-SQL code does exactly what I want, which is to make a single result based on the results of a query, which will then be used in another query. However, I can't figure out how the SELECT @column_list =... statement is putting multiple values into a single string of characters by being inside a SELECT statement. Without the assignment to @column_list, the SELECT statement would simply return multiple rows. How is it that by having the variable within the SELECT statement that the results get "flattened" down into one value? How should I read this T-SQL to properly understand what's going on?

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

    - by Memor-X
    in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

    Read the article

  • Group / User based security. Table / SQL question

    - by Brett
    Hi, I'm setting up a group / user based security system. I have 4 tables as follows: user groups group_user_mappings acl where acl is the mapping between an item_id and either a group or a user. The way I've done the acl table, I have 3 columns of note (actually 4th one as an auto-id, but that is irrelevant) col 1 item_id (item to access) col 3 user_id (user that is allowed to access) col 3 group_id (group that is allowed to access) So for example item1, peter, , item2, , group1 item3, jane, , so either the acl will give access to a user or a group. Any one line in the ACL table with either have an item - user mapping, or an item group. If I want to have a query that returns all objects a user has access to, I think I need to have a SQL query with a UNION, because I need 2 separate queries that join like.. item - acl - group - user AND item - acl - user This I guess will work OK. Is this how its normally done? Am I doing this the right way? Seems a little messy. I was thinking I could get around it by creating a single user group for each person, so I only ever deal with groups in my SQL, but this seems a little messy as well..

    Read the article

  • LinqToSQL not updating database

    - by codegarten
    Hi. I created a database and dbml in visual studio 2010 using its wizards. Everything was working fine until i checked the tables data (also in visual studio server explorer) and none of my updates were there. using (var context = new CenasDataContext()) { context.Log = Console.Out; context.Cenas.InsertOnSubmit(new Cena() { id = 1}); context.SubmitChanges(); } This is the code i am using to update my database. At this point my database has one table with one field (PK) named ID. *INSERT INTO [dbo].Cenas VALUES (@p0) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 4.0.30319.1* This is LOG from the execution (printed the context log into the console). The problem i'm having is that these updates are not persistent in the database. I mean that when i query my database (visual studio server explorer - new query) i see the table is empty, every time. I am using a SQL Server database file (.mdf).

    Read the article

  • Server returns 500 error only when called by Java client using urlConnection/httpUrlConnection

    - by user455889
    Hi - I'm having a very strange problem. I'm trying to call a servlet (JSP) with an HTTP GET and a few parameters (http://mydomain.com/method?param1=test&param2=123). If I call it from the browser or via WGET in a bash session, it works fine. However, when I make the exact same call in a Java client using urlConnection or httpURLConnection, the server returns a 500 error. I've tried everything I have found online including: urlConn.setRequestProperty("Accept-Language", "en-us,en;q=0.5"); Nothing I've tried, however, has worked. Unfortunately, I don't have access to the server I'm calling so I can't see the logs. Here's the latest code: private String testURLConnection() { String ret = ""; String url = "http://localhost:8080/TestService/test"; String query = "param1=value1&param2=value2"; try { URLConnection connection = new URL(url + "?" + query).openConnection(); connection.setRequestProperty("Accept-Charset", "UTF-8"); connection.setRequestProperty("Accept-Language", "en-us,en;q=0.5"); BufferedReader bufferedReader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(connection.getInputStream())); String line; StringBuilder content = new StringBuilder(); while ((line = bufferedReader.readLine()) != null) { content.append(line + "\n"); } bufferedReader.close(); metaRet = content.toString(); log.debug(methodName + " return = " + metaRet); } catch (Exception ex) { log.error("Exception: " + ex); log.error("stack trace: " + getStackTrace(ex)); } return metaRet; } Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Greasemonkey script not executed when unusual content loading is being used

    - by Sam Brightman
    I'm trying to write a Greasemonkey script for Facebook and having some trouble with the funky page/content loading that they do (I don't quite understand this - a lot of the links are actually just changing the GET, but I think they do some kind of server redirect to make the URL look the same to the browser too?). Essentially the only test required is putting a GM_log() on its own in the script. If you click around Facebook, even with facebook.com/* as the pattern, it is often not executed. Is there anything I can do, or is the idea of a "page load" fixed in Greasemonkey, and FB is "tricking" it into not running by using a single URL? If I try to do some basic content manipulation like this: GM.log("starting"); var GM_FB=new Object; GM_FB.birthdays = document.evaluate("//div[@class='UIUpcoming_Item']", document, null, XPathResult.UNORDERED_NODE_SNAPSHOT_TYPE, null); for (i = GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotLength - 1; i >= 0; i--) { if (GM_FB.birthdayRegex.test(GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotItem(i).innerHTML)) { GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotItem(i).setAttribute('style','font-weight: bold; background: #fffe88'); } } The result is that sometimes only a manual page refresh will make it work. Pulling up the Firebug console and forcing the code to run works fine. Note that this isn't due to late loading of certain parts of the DOM: I have adding some code later to wait for the relevant elements and, crucially, the message never gets logged for certain transitions. For example, when I switch from Messages to News Feed and back.

    Read the article

  • Get the equivalent time between "dynamic" time zones

    - by doctore
    I have a table providers that has three columns (containing more columns but not important in this case): starttime, start time in which you can contact him. endtime, final hour in which you can contact him. region_id, region where the provider resides. In USA: California, Texas, etc. In UK: England, Scotland, etc starttime and endtime are time without timezone columns, but, "indirectly", their value has time zone of the region in which the provider resides. For example: starttime | endtime | region_id (time zone of region) | "real" st | "real" et ----------|----------|---------------------------------|-----------|----------- 03:00:00 | 17:00:00 | 1 (EGT => -1) | 02:00:00 | 16:00:00 Often I need to get the list of suppliers whose time range is within the current server time (taking into account the time zone conversion). The problem is that the time zones aren't "constant", ie, they may change during the summer time. However, this change is very specific to the region and not always carried out at the same time: EGT <= EGST, ART <= ARST, etc. The question is: 1. Is it necessary to use a webservice to update every so often the time zones in the regions? Does anyone know of a web service that can serve? 2. Is there a better approach to solve this problem? Thanks in advance. UPDATE I will give an example to clarify what I'm trying to get. In the table providers I found this records: idproviders | starttime | endtime | region_id ------------|-----------|----------|----------- 1 | 03:00:00 | 17:00:00 | 23 (Texas) 2 | 04:00:00 | 18:00:00 | 23 (Texas) If I execute the query in January, with this information: Server time (UTC offset) = 0 hours Texas providers (UTC offset) = +1 hour Server time = 02:00:00 I should get the following results: idproviders = 1 If I execute the query in June, with this information: Server time (UTC offset) = 0 hours Texas providers (UTC offset) = +2 hours (their local time has not changed, but their time zone has changed) Server time = 02:00:00 I should get the following results: idproviders = 1 and 2

    Read the article

  • Adjust static value into dynamic (javascript) value possible in Sharepoint allitems.aspx page?

    - by lerac
    <SharePoint:SPDataSource runat="server" IncludeHidden="true" SelectCommand="&lt;View&gt;&lt;Query&gt;&lt;OrderBy&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;EventDate&quot;/&gt;&lt;/OrderBy&gt;&lt;Where&gt;&lt;Contains&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;lawyer_x0020_1&quot;/&gt;&lt;Value Type=&quot;Note&quot;&gt;F. Sanches&lt;/Value&gt;&lt;/Contains&gt;&lt;/Where&gt;&lt;/Query&gt;&lt;/View&gt;" id="datasource1" DataSourceMode="List" UseInternalName="true"><InsertParameters><asp:Parameter DefaultValue="{ANUMBER}" Name="ListID"></asp:Parameter> This codeline is just one line of the allitems.aspx of a sharepoint list item. It only displays items where lawyer 1 = F. Sanches. Before I start messing around with the .ASPX page I wonder if it possible to change F. Sanches (in the code) into a dynamical variable (from a javascript value or something else that can be used to place the javascript value in there dynamically). If I put any javascript code in the line it will not work. P.S. Ignore ANUMBER part in code. Let say to make it simple I have javascript variable like this (now static but with my other code it is dynamic). It would be an achievement if it would place a static javascript variable. <SCRIPT type=text/javascript>javaVAR = "P. Janssen";</script> If Yes -- how? If No -- Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Multiple inequality conditions (range queries) in NoSQL

    - by pableu
    Hi, I have an application where I'd like to use a NoSQL database, but I still want to do range queries over two different properties, for example select all entries between times T1 and T2 where the noiselevel is smaller than X. On the other hand, I would like to use a NoSQL/Key-Value store because my data is very sparse and diverse, and I do not want to create new tables for every new datatype that I might come across. I know that you cannot use multiple inequality filters for the Google Datastore (source). I also know that this feature is coming (according to this). I know that this is also not possible in CouchDB (source). I think I also more or less understand why this is the case. Now, this makes me wonder.. Is that the case with all NoSQL databases? Can other NoSQL systems make range queries over two different properties? How about, for example, Mongo DB? I've looked in the Documentation, but the only thing I've found was the following snippet in their docu: Note that any of the operators on this page can be combined in the same query document. For example, to find all document where j is not equal to 3 and k is greater than 10, you'd query like so: db.things.find({j: {$ne: 3}, k: {$gt: 10} }); So they use greater-than and not-equal on two different properties. They don't say anything about two inequalities ;-) Any input and enlightenment is welcome :-)

    Read the article

  • FreeTDS runs out of memory from DBD::Sybase

    - by skiphoppy
    When I add client charset = UTF-8 to my freetds.conf file, my DBD::Sybase program emits: Out of memory! and terminates. This happens when I call execute() on an SQL query statement that returns any ntext fields. I can return numeric data, datetimes, and nvarchars just fine, but whenever one of the output fields is ntext, I get this error. All these queries work perfectly fine without the UTF-8 setting, but I do need to handle some characters that throw warnings under the default character set. (See related question.) The error message is not formatted the same way other DBD::Sybase error messages seem to be formatted. I do get a message that a rollback() is being issued, though. (My false AutoCommit flag is being honored.) I think I read somewhere that FreeTDS uses the iconv program to convert between character sets; is it possible that this message is being emitted from iconv? If I execute the same query with the same freetds.conf settings in tsql (FreeTDS's command-line SQL shell), I don't get the error. I'm connecting to SQL Server. What do I need to do to get these queries to return successfully?

    Read the article

  • [XPATH] Retrieve specific preceding sibling nodes attributes

    - by Matthieu BROUILLARD
    Is there an XPath way of recovering directly one specific attribute of preceding sibling nodes of an XML node using an XPath query? In the following example, I would like to retrieve the values of the alt attribute of each img nodes that precede the div element marked with the id=marker. <content> <img alt="1" src="file.gif" /> <img alt="2" src="file.gif" /> <img alt="3" src="file.gif" /> <img alt="4" src="file.gif" /> <div id='marker'></div> </content> For this example, I want to retrieve the values 1 2 3 4. I use the following XPath query //div[@id='marker']/preceding-sibling::img in order to retrieve the node list I want <img alt="1" src="file.gif"/> <img alt="2" src="file.gif"/> <img alt="3" src="file.gif"/> <img alt="4" src="file.gif"/> As it is a node list I can then iterate on the nodes to retrieve the attribute value I am looking for, but is there an XPath way of doing it? I would have expected to be able to write something like: //div[@id='marker']/preceding-sibling::img@alt or //div[@id='marker']/preceding-sibling@alt::img but I don't even know if it is possible once you have used an XPath Axe like preceding-sibling.

    Read the article

  • Performance impact when using XML columns in a table with MS SQL 2008

    - by Sam Dahan
    I am using a simple table with 6 columns, 3 of which are of XML type, not schema-constrained. When the table reaches a size around 120,000 or 150,000 rows, I see a dramatic performance cost in doing any query in the table. For comparison, I have another table, which grows in size at about the same rate, but only contain scalar types (int, datetime, a few float columns). That table performs perfectly fine even after 200,000 rows. And by the way, I am not using XQuery on the xml columns, i am only using regular SQL query statements. Some specifics: both tables contain a DateTime field called SampleTime. a statement like (it's in a stored procedure but I show you the actual statement) SELECT MAX(sampleTime) SampleTime FROM dbo.MyRecords WHERE PlacementID=@somenumber takes 0 seconds on the table without xml columns, and anything from 13 to 20 seconds on the table with XML columns. That depends on which drive I set my database on. At the moment it sits on a different spindle (not C:) and it takes 13 seconds. Has anyone seen this behavior before, or have any hint at what I am doing wrong? I tried this with SQL 2008 EXPRESS and the full-blown SQL Server 2008, that made no difference. Oh, one last detail: I am doing this from a C# application, .NET 3.5, using SqlConnection, SqlReader, etc.. I'd appreciate some insight into that, thanks! Sam

    Read the article

  • Google Adwords API response parse

    - by Yun Ling
    I am trying to figure out how to parse the Adword API query response without exceptions and one issue that i came across is that sometimes, the data itself contains comma besides the comma between each column. Say i do a query on Adroup, campaign and impression by using <reportDefinition xmlns="https://adwords.google.com/api/adwords/cm/v201209"> <selector> <fields>CampaignName</fields> <fields>AdgroupName</fields> <fields>Impressions</fields> <predicates> <field>Status</field> <operator>IN</operator> <values>ENABLED</values> <values>PAUSED</values> </predicates> </selector> <reportName>Custom Adgroup Performance Report</reportName> <reportType>ADGROUP_PERFORMANCE_REPORT</reportType> <dateRangeType>LAST_7_DAYS</dateRangeType> <downloadFormat>CSV</downloadFormat> </reportDefinition> Since my campaign has comma within the string like below: "Adroup,Campaign,Impressions, Premiun Beer, Beer, Chicago, 1000" where the adgroup is "premium beer" and campaign is "Beer,Chicago". that will cause an issue if we parse this information by using comma. Does anyone know how to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Storing float numbers as strings in android database

    - by sandis
    So I have an app where I put arbitrary strings in a database and later extract them like this: Cursor DBresult = myDatabase.query(false, Constant.DATABASE_NOTES_TABLE_NAME, new String[] {"myStuff"}, where, null, null, null, null, null); DBresult.getString(0); This works fine in all cases except for when the string looks like a float number, for example "221.123123123". After saving it to the database I can extract the database to my computer and look inside it with a DB-viewer, and the saved number is correct. However, when using cursor.getString() the string "221.123" is returned. I cant for the life of me understand how I can prevent this. I guess I could do a cursor.getDouble() on every single string to see if this gives a better result, but that feels sooo ugly and inefficient. Any suggestions? Cheers, edit: I just made a small test program. This program prints "result: 123.123", when I would like it to print "result: 123.123123123" SQLiteDatabase database = openOrCreateDatabase("databas", Context.MODE_PRIVATE, null); database.execSQL("create table if not exists tabell (nyckel string primary key);"); ContentValues value = new ContentValues(); value.put("nyckel", "123.123123123"); database.insert("tabell", null, value); Cursor result = database.query("tabell", new String[]{"nyckel"}, null, null, null, null, null); result.moveToFirst(); Log.d("TAG","result: " + result.getString(0));

    Read the article

  • Reverse mapping from a table to a model in SQLAlchemy

    - by Jace
    To provide an activity log in my SQLAlchemy-based app, I have a model like this: class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) activity_by_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('users.id'), nullable=False) activity_by = relation(User, primaryjoin=activity_by_id == User.id) activity_at = Column(DateTime, default=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) activity_type = Column(SmallInteger, nullable=False) target_table = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) target_id = Column(Integer, nullable=False) target_title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) The log contains entries for multiple tables, so I can't use ForeignKey relations. Log entries are made like this: doc = Document(name=u'mydoc', title=u'My Test Document', created_by=user, edited_by=user) session.add(doc) session.flush() # See note below log = ActivityLog(activity_by=user, activity_type=ACTIVITY_ADD, target_table=Document.__table__.name, target_id=doc.id, target_title=doc.title) session.add(log) This leaves me with three problems: I have to flush the session before my doc object gets an id. If I had used a ForeignKey column and a relation mapper, I could have simply called ActivityLog(target=doc) and let SQLAlchemy do the work. Is there any way to work around needing to flush by hand? The target_table parameter is too verbose. I suppose I could solve this with a target property setter in ActivityLog that automatically retrieves the table name and id from a given instance. Biggest of all, I'm not sure how to retrieve a model instance from the database. Given an ActivityLog instance log, calling self.session.query(log.target_table).get(log.target_id) does not work, as query() expects a model as parameter. One workaround appears to be to use polymorphism and derive all my models from a base model which ActivityLog recognises. Something like this: class Entity(Base): __tablename__ = 'entities' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) edited_at = Column(DateTime, onupdate=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) entity_type = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_on': entity_type} class Document(Entity): __tablename__ = 'documents' __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_identity': 'document'} body = Column(UnicodeText, nullable=False) class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) ... target_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('entities.id'), nullable=False) target = relation(Entity) If I do this, ActivityLog(...).target will give me a Document instance when it refers to a Document, but I'm not sure it's worth the overhead of having two tables for everything. Should I go ahead and do it this way?

    Read the article

  • Understanding Wordpress database schema - querying from 3rd party app

    - by deceze
    Is there an easy way to grab the latest posts out of a Wordpress wp_posts table using a simple SQL query? I have a Wordpress 2.9.2 installation as part of, but separate from, a larger system. It has a customized theme to look like the rest of the site but has otherwise nothing to do with it. I want to display the latest handful of headlines of posts made using Wordpress on a site of that other system. Preferably I do not want to mess around with importing any of the Wordpress library files. Looking at the database structure I can't see an easy, straight-forward query to simply get the latest revision of the latest posts. The post_status can either be "post" or "inherit", the post_type "post" or "revision" and the parent "0" or the id of the original post of a revision. I can't figure out how to reliably filter different revisions of the same post, drafts, attachments and pages out of this mess and just get the latest revision of the latest posts. I'm aware that the database schema is subject to change in subsequent versions of Wordpress, so shouldn't be relied upon, but that's a minor concern, since it's such a minor feature that could easily be fixed. If I understood how that database is supposed to work, that is.

    Read the article

  • Twitter API Rate Limit - Overcoming on an unauthenticated JSON Get with Objective C?

    - by Cian
    I see the rate limit is 150/hr per IP. This'd be fine, but my application is on a mobile phone network (with shared IP addresses). I'd like to query twitter trends, e.g. GET /trends/1/json. This doesn't require authorization, however what if the user first authorized with my application using OAuth, then hit the JSON API? The request is built as follows: - (void) queryTrends:(NSString *) WOEID { NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://api.twitter.com/1/trends/%@.json", WOEID]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self startImmediately:YES]; if (theConnection) { // Create the NSMutableData to hold the received data. theData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed in Query Trends"); } //NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; } I have no idea how I'd build this request as an authenticated one however, and haven't seen any examples to this effect online. I've read through the twitter OAuth documentation, but I'm still puzzled as to how it should work. I've experimented with OAuth using Ben Gottlieb's prebuild library, and calling this in my first viewDidLoad: OAuthViewController *oAuthVC = [[OAuthViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"OAuthTwitterDemoViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; // [self setViewController:aViewController]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:oAuthVC animated:YES]; This should store all the keys required in the app's preferences, I just need to know how to build the GET request after authorizing! Maybe this just isn't possible? Maybe I'll have to proxy the requests through a server side application? Any insight would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Convert SQL to LINQ in MVC3 with Ninject

    - by Jeff
    I'm using MVC3 and still learning LINQ. I'm having some trouble trying to convert a query to LINQ to Entities. I want to return an employee object. SELECT E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName, MAX(EO.EmployeeOperationDate) AS "Last Operation" FROM Employees E INNER JOIN EmployeeStatus ES ON E.EmployeeID = ES.EmployeeID INNER JOIN EmployeeOperations EO ON ES.EmployeeStatusID = EO.EmployeeStatusID INNER JOIN Teams T ON T.TeamID = ES.TeamID WHERE T.TeamName = 'MyTeam' GROUP BY E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName ORDER BY E.FirstName, E.LastName What I have is a few tables, but I need to get only the newest status based on the EmployeeOpertionDate. This seems to work fine in SQL. I'm also using Ninject and set my query to return Ienumerable. I played around with the group by option but it then returns IGroupable. Any guidance on converting and returning the property object type would be appreciated. Edit: I started writing this out in LINQ but I'm not sure how to properly return the correct type or cast this. public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamName == "MyTeam" group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G; return q; } Edit2: This seems to work for me public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations.OrderByDescending(eo => eo.EmployeeOperationDate) on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamID == teamID group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G.FirstOrDefault(); return q; }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451  | Next Page >