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• Db4o Mvc Application Architecture

  - by Mac

  I am currently testing out Db4o for an asp.net MVC 2 application idea but there are a few things I'm not quite sure on the best way to proceed. I want my application to use guessable routes rather than Id's for referencing my entities but I also think I need Id's of some sort for update scenarios. so for example I want /country/usa instead of /country/1 I may want to change the key name though (not perhaps on a country but on other entities) so am thinking I need an Id to use as the reference to retrieve the object prior to updating it's fields. From other comments it seems like the UUID is a bit long to be using and would prefer to use my own id's anyway for clean separation of concerns. Looking at both the KandaAlpha project I wasn't too keen on some aspects of the design and prefer something more along the lines of S#arp architecture where they use things like the [domainsignature] and EntityWithTypedId, IEntityDuplicateChecker, IHasAssignedId, BaseObject and IValidatable in their entities to control insert/update behaviour which seems cleaner and more extensible, covers validation and is encapsulated well within the core and base repository classes. So would a port of S#arp architecture to Db4o make sense of am I still thinking rmdbs in an oodb world? Also is there a best practice for managing indexes (including Unique ones as above) in Db4o? Should they be model metadata based and loaded using DI in a bootstrapper for example or should they be more loaded more like Automapper.CreateMap? Its a bit of a rambling question I know but any thoughts, ideas or suggested reading material is greatly appreciated. Thanks Mac

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• FxCop hates my usage of MVVM

  - by Dave

  I've just started to work with FxCop to see how poorly my code does against its full set of rules. I'm starting off with the "Breaking" rules, and the first one I came across was CA2227, which basically says that you should make a collection property's setter readonly, so that you can't accidentally change the collection data. Since I'm using MVVM, I've found it very convenient to use an ObservableCollection with get/set properties because it makes my GUI updates easy and concise in the code-behind. However, I can also see what FxCop is complaining about. Another situation that I just ran into is with WF, where I need to set the parameters when creating the workflow, and I'd hate to have to write a wrapper class around the collection I'm using just to avoid this particular error message. For example, here's a sample runtime error message that I get when I make properties readonly: The activity 'MyWorkflow' has no public writable property named 'MyCollectionOfStuff' What are you opinions on this? I could either ignore this particular error, but that's probably not good because I could conceivably violate this rule elsewhere in the code where MVVM doesn't apply (model only code, for example). I think I could also change it from a property to a class with methods to manipulate the underlying collection, and then raise the necessary notification from the setter method. I'm a little confused... can anyone shed some light on this?

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• function to get the file name of an URL

  - by user262325

  Hello everyone I have some source code to get the file name of an url for example: http://www.google.com/a.pdf I hope to get a.pdf because the way to join 2 NSStrings I can get is 'appendString' which only for adding a string at right side, so I planned to check each char one by one from the right side of string 'http://www.google.com/a.pdf', when it reach at the char '/', stop the checking, return string fdp.a , after that I change fdp.a to a.pdf source codes are below -(NSMutableString *) getSubStringAfterH : originalString:(NSString *)s0 { NSInteger i,l; l=[s0 length]; NSMutableString *h=[[NSMutableString alloc] init]; NSMutableString *ttt=[[NSMutableString alloc] init ]; for(i=l-1;i>=0;i--) //check each char one by one from the right side of string 'http://www.google.com/a.pdf', when it reach at the char '/', stop { ttt=[s0 substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; if([ttt isEqualToString:@"/"]) { break; } else { [h appendString:ttt]; } } [ttt release]; //below are to change the sequence of char in h // txt.edcba -> abcde.txt NSMutableString *h1=[[[NSMutableString alloc] initWithFormat:@""] autorelease]; for (i=[h length]-1;i>=0;i--) { NSMutableString *t1=[[NSMutableString alloc] init ]; t1=[h substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; [h1 appendString:t1]; [t1 release]; } [h release]; return h1; } h1 can reuturn the coorect string a.pdf, but if it returns to the codes where it was called, after a while system reports 'double free * set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug' I checked a long time and foudn that if I removed the code ttt=[s0 substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; everything will be Ok (of course getSubStringAfterH can not returns the corrent result I expected.), no error reported. I try to fix the bug a few hours, but still no clue. Welcome any comment Thanks interdev

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• How to Send user to two different web pages when login

  - by Pradeep

  protected static Boolean Authentication(string username, string password) { string sqlstring; sqlstring = "Select Username, Password, UserType from Userprofile WHERE Username='" + username + "' and Password ='" + password + "'"; // create a connection with sqldatabase System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection con = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection( "Data Source=PRADEEP-LAPTOP\\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=BookStore;Integrated Security=True"); // create a sql command which will user connection string and your select statement string System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand comm = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(sqlstring, con); // create a sqldatabase reader which will execute the above command to get the values from sqldatabase System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader reader; // open a connection with sqldatabase con.Open(); // execute sql command and store a return values in reade reader = comm.ExecuteReader(); // check if reader hase any value then return true otherwise return false if (reader.Read()) return true; else return false; } Boolean blnresult; blnresult = Authentication(Login2.UserName, Login2.Password); if (blnresult == true) { Session["User_ID"] = getIDFromName(Login2.UserName); Session["Check"] = true; Session["Username"] = Login2.UserName; Response.Redirect("Index.aspx"); } so a user like Staff or even Administrators loging to same Index.aspx. i want to change it to different web pages. how to change sites for each user types. i have seperate user types. and i have taken UserType in the Authentication function.

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• Command /Developer/usr/bin/dsymutil failed with exit code 10

  - by Evan Robinson

  I am getting the above error message randomly (so far as I can tell) on iPhone projects. Occasionally it will go away upon either: Clean Restart XCode Reboot Reinstall XCode But sometimes it won't. When it won't the only solution I have found is to take all the source material, import it into a new project, and then redo all the connections in IB. Then I'm good until it strikes again. Anybody have any suggestions? [update 20091030] I have tried building both debug and release versions, both full and lite versions. I've also tried switching the debug symbols from DWARF with external dSYM file to DWARF and to stabs. Clean builds in all formats make no differences. Permission repairs change nothing. Setting up a new user has no effect. Same error on the builds. Thanks for the suggestions! [Update 20091031] Here's an easier and (apparently) reliable workaround. It hinges upon the discovery that the problem is linked to a target not a project In the same project file, create a new target Option-Drag (copy) all the files from the BAD target 'Copy Bundle Resources' folder to the NEW target 'Copy Bundle Resources' folder Repeat (2) with 'Compile Sources' and 'Link Binary With Libraries' Duplicate the Info.plist file for the BAD target and name it correctly for the NEW target. Build the NEW target! [Update 20100222] Apparently an IDE bug, now apparently fixed, although Apple does not allow direct access to the original bug of a duplicate. I can no longer reproduce this behaviour, so hopefully it is dead, dead, dead.

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• Returning UTF-8 from a web service

  - by Marco Shaw

  Previous: Returning info from a Web Service I thought the previous answer made 100% sense, and I though I was out of the woods, but it still fails. An app I'm working with still seems to think what is being returned from the web service is ASCII encoded. Debugging it shows: <Envelope><Body><ReturnOneResponse><ReturnOneResult>&lt;xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"&gt;&lt;Entry&gt;&lt;Symbol&gt;PACR&lt;/Symbol&gt;&lt;Company&gt;Pacer International, Inc.&lt;/Company&gt;&lt;MarketCap&gt;$229.0M&lt;/MarketCap&gt;&lt;PE&gt;18.7&lt;/PE&gt;&lt;Price&gt;6.56&lt;/Price&gt;&lt;Change&gt;0.42&lt;/Change&gt;&lt;PctChange&gt;6.84%&lt;/PctChange&gt;&lt;YTDChange&gt;107.59%&lt;/YTDChange&gt;&lt;/Entry&gt;</ReturnOneResult></ReturnOneResponse></Body></Envelope> So everything being returned from the web service seems to be changed into ASCII, and seems to refuse to read as UTF-8. Since my previous code in the above link, I also changed my string invocation: string value = @""; Still, that didn't help. Any other ideas?

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• Parsing XML with the PHP XMLReader

  - by coffeecoder

  Hi Guys, I am writing program that reads in some XML from the $_POST variable and then parses using the PHP XMLReader and the data extracted input into a database. I am using the XMLReader as the XML supplied will more than likely be too big to place into memory. However I am having some issues, my XML and basic code as are follows: '<?xml version="1.0"?> <data_root> <data> <info>value</info> </data> <action>value</action> </data_root>' $request = $_REQUEST['xml']; $reader = new XMLReader(); $reader->XML($request); while($reader->read()){ //processing code } $reader->close() My problem is that the code will work perfectly if the XML being passed does not have the <?xml version="1.0"?> line, but if i include it, and it will be included when the application goes into a live production environment, the $reader->read() code for the while loop does not work and the XML is not parsed within the while loop. Has anyone seen similar behaviour before or knows why this could be happening? Thanks in advance.

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• what type of bug causes a program to slowly use more processor power and all of a sudden go to 100%?

  - by reinier

  Hi, I was hoping to get some good ideas as to what might be causing a really nasty bug. This is a program which is transmitting data over a socket, and also receives messages back. I could explain lots more, but I don't think this will help here. I'm just searching for hypothetical problems which can cause the following behaviour: program runs processor time slowly accumulates (till around 60%) all of a sudden (could be after 30 but also after 60 seconds) the processor time shoots to 100%. the program halts completely In my syslog it always ends on one line with a memory allocation (something similar to: myArray = new byte[16384]) in the same thread. now here is the weird part: if I set the debugger anywhere...it immediately stops on that line. So just the act of setting a breakpoint, made the thread continue (it wasn't running since I saw no log output anymore) I was thinking 'deadlock' but that would not cause 100% processor power. If anything, the opposite. Also, setting a breakpoint would not cause a deadlock to end. anyone else a theoretical suggestion as to what kind of 'construct' might cause this effect? (apart from 'bad programming') ;^) thanks EDIT: I just noticed.... by setting the sendspeed slower, the problem shows itself much later than expected. I would think around the same amount of packets send...but no the amount of packets send is much higher this way before it has the same problem.

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• RMagic Error in rails, with AM Charts

  - by Elliot

  Hi Everyone, I'm using AMCharts and rails. AMCharts uses the Image Magic lib to export an image of the chart. In rails this is done with the gem, RMagic. In a controller this is implemented with the following controller method: def export width = params[:width].to_i height = params[:height].to_i data = {} img = Magick::Image.new(width, height) height.times do |y| row = params["r#{y}"].split(',') row.size.times do |r| pixel = row[r].to_s.split(':') pixel[0] = pixel[0].to_s.rjust(6, '0') if pixel.size == 2 pixel[1].to_i.times do (data[y] ||= []) << pixel[0] end else (data[y] ||= []) << pixel[0] end end width.times do |x| img.pixel_color(x, y, "##{data[y][x]}") end end img.format = "PNG" send_data(img.to_blob , :disposition => 'inline', :type => 'image/png', :filename => "chart.png?#{rand(99999999).to_i}") end When the controller is accessed however, I receive this error in the page: The change you wanted was rejected. Maybe you tried to change something you didn't have access to. And this error in the logs (its running on heroku btw): ActionController::InvalidAuthenticityToken (ActionController::InvalidAuthenticityToken): /home/heroku_rack/lib/static_assets.rb:9:in `call' /home/heroku_rack/lib/last_access.rb:25:in `call' /home/heroku_rack/lib/date_header.rb:14:in `call' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/connection.rb:80:in `pre_process' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/connection.rb:78:in `catch' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/connection.rb:78:in `pre_process' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/connection.rb:57:in `process' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/connection.rb:42:in `receive_data' eventmachine (0.12.6) lib/eventmachine.rb:240:in `run_machine' eventmachine (0.12.6) lib/eventmachine.rb:240:in `run' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/backends/base.rb:57:in `start' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/server.rb:150:in `start' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/controllers/controller.rb:80:in `start' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/runner.rb:173:in `send' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/runner.rb:173:in `run_command' thin (1.0.1) lib/thin/runner.rb:139:in `run!' thin (1.0.1) bin/thin:6 /usr/local/bin/thin:20:in `load' /usr/local/bin/thin:20 Rendering /disk1/home/slugs/149903_609c236_eb4f/mnt/public/422.html (422 Unprocessable Entity) Anyone have any idea what's going on here?

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• How to manually disable/blacklist Maven repository

  - by cetnar

  In my base project I use dependency of JasperReports which has non-existent repository declaration in its pom. When I run every Maven commad there is dependency looking for commons-collection in this Jasper repository so I need to wait for timeout. This is my base project and is used as dependency in my others projects so again I need to wait for timeout. Is there are a way to move this repository to blacklisted or override this settings? Notes: 1.Why it search in Jasper repository, maybe bacause of ranges <dependency> <groupId>commons-collections</groupId> <artifactId>commons-collections</artifactId> <version>[2.1,)</version> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency> 2.My idea to resolve this problem is to change jasper pom and use proxy repository, but I looking to another option. 3.I use jasperreports 1.3.3 version and I'd like don't change it.

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• Annoying Twisted Python problem

  - by Kalmi

  I'm trying to answer the following question out of personal interest: What is the fastest way to send 100,000 HTTP requests in Python? And this is what I have came up so far, but I'm experiencing something very stange. When installSignalHandlers is True, it just hangs. I can see that the DelayedCall instances are in reactor._newTimedCalls, but processResponse never gets called. When installSignalHandlers is False, it throws an error and works. from twisted.internet import reactor from twisted.web.client import Agent from threading import Semaphore, Thread import time concurrent = 100 s = Semaphore(concurrent) reactor.suggestThreadPoolSize(concurrent) t=Thread( target=reactor.run, kwargs={'installSignalHandlers':True}) t.daemon=True t.start() agent = Agent(reactor) def processResponse(response,url): print response.code, url s.release() def processError(response,url): print "error", url s.release() def addTask(url): req = agent.request('HEAD', url) req.addCallback(processResponse, url) req.addErrback(processError, url) for url in open('urllist.txt'): addTask(url.strip()) s.acquire() while s._Semaphore__value!=concurrent: time.sleep(0.1) reactor.stop() And here is the error that it throws when installSignalHandlers is True: (Note: This is the expected behaviour! The question is why it doesn't work when installSignalHandlers is False.) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 396, in fireEvent DeferredList(beforeResults).addCallback(self._continueFiring) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 224, in addCallback callbackKeywords=kw) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 213, in addCallbacks self._runCallbacks() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 371, in _runCallbacks self.result = callback(self.result, *args, **kw) --- <exception caught here> --- File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 409, in _continueFiring callable(*args, **kwargs) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1165, in _reallyStartRunning self._handleSignals() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1105, in _handleSignals signal.signal(signal.SIGINT, self.sigInt) exceptions.ValueError: signal only works in main thread What am I doing wrong and what is the right way? I'm new to twisted.

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• JPA : many-to-many - only one foreign key in the association table

  - by Julien

  Hi, I mapped two classes in a ManyToMany association with these annotations : @Entity @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS) public abstract class TechnicalItem extends GenericBusinessObject implements Resumable{ @SequenceGenerator(name="TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_GEN", sequenceName="TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_SEQ") @Id @Column(name = "\"ID\"", nullable = false) @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_GEN") private int id; @ManyToMany(mappedBy = "referencePerformanceItems", fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List testingRates; } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("T") public class TestingRate extends Rate { @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @JoinTable(name="ecc.\"TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM\"", joinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "\"TESTING_RATE_ID\"")}, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "\"TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID\"")}) //@ManyToMany(mappedBy = "testingRates", fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List referencePerformanceItems; } The sql generated for the association table creation is : create table ecc."TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM" ( "TESTING_RATE_ID" int4 not null, "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID" int4 not null ); alter table ecc."TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM" add constraint FKC5D64DF6A2FE2698 foreign key ("TESTING_RATE_ID") references ecc."RATE"; There is no mention of the second foreign key "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID" (the second part of the composite foreign key which should be in the association table). Is it a normal behaviour ? What should I do in the mapping if I want my 2 columns are 2 foreign keys referencing the primary keys of my 2 concerned tables. I use a PostGreSQL database and Hibernate as JPA provider. Thanks, Julien

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• MS SQL Database with clustered GUID PKs - switch clustered index or switch to sequential (comb) GUID

  - by Eyvind

  We have a database in which all the PKs are GUIDs, and most of the PKs are also the clustered index for the table. We know that this is bad (due to the random nature of GUIDs). So, it seems there are basically two options here (short of throwing out GUIDs as PKs altogether, which we cannot do (at least not at this time)). We could change the GUID generation algorithm to e.g. the one that NHibernate uses, as detailed in this post, or we could, for the tables that are under the heaviest use, change to a different clustered index, e.g. an IDENTITY column, and keep the "random" GUIDs as PKs. Is it possible to give any general recommendations in such a scenario? The application in question has 500+ tables, the largest one presently at about 1,5 million rows, a few tables around 500 000 rows, and the rest significantly lower (most of them well below 10K). Furthermore, the application is installed at several customer sites already, so we have to take any possible negative effects for existing customer into consideration. Thanks!

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• Changing font size of legend title in Python pylab rose/polar plot

  - by LaurieW

  I'm trying to change the font size of the title of an existing legend on a rose, or 'polar', plot. Most of the code was written by somebody else, who is away. I've added:- ax.legend(title=legend_title) setp(l.get_title(), fontsize=8) to add the title 'legend_title', which is a variable that the user enters a string for in a a different function that uses this code. The second line of this doesn't return an error but doesn't appear to do anything either. The complete code is below. 'Rose' and 'RoseAxes' are modules/functions written by somebody. Does anyone know of a way to change the legend title font size? I've found some examples for normal plots but can't find any for rose/polar plots. from Rose.RoseAxes import RoseAxes from pylab import figure, title, setp, close, clf from PlotGeneration import color_map_xml fig = figure(1) rect = [0.02, 0.1, 0.8, 0.8] ax = RoseAxes(fig, rect, axisbg='w') fig.add_axes(ax) if cmap == None: (XMLcmap,colors) = color_map_xml.get_cmap('D:/HRW/VET/HrwPyLibs/ColorMapLibrary/paired.xml',255) else: XMLcmap = cmap bqs = kwargs.pop('CTfigname', None) ax.box(Dir, U, bins = rose_binX, units = unit, nsector = nsector, cmap = XMLcmap, lw = 0, **kwargs ) l = ax.legend() ax.legend(title=legend_title) setp(l.get_texts(), fontsize=8) setp(l.get_title(), fontsize=8) Thanks for any help

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• WPF Datagrid set the column values only when the row is left

  - by Noam

  Hello I have a simple class. When I use it in winforms binding, whenever I change a value of a cell and leave the cell, the property immediately get changed. Using WPF Datagrid, whenever i change a value of a cell, the property gets set only after I leave the row. That is problematic for me. What am I doing wrong? Here is my code: public class MyClass : IEditableObject, INotifyPropertyChanged { string _name, _lastName; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; _lastName = value + " xxx"; OnPropertyChanged("LastName"); MessageBox.Show("Test"); } } private void OnPropertyChanged(string p) { var x = new PropertyChangedEventArgs(p); if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, x); } public string LastName { get { return _lastName; } set { _lastName = value; } } public void BeginEdit() { } public void CancelEdit() { } public void EndEdit() { } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; } public class myBindingList : BindingList<MyClass> { public myBindingList() { AllowNew = true; Add(new MyClass { Name = "noam" }); Add(new MyClass { Name = "yael" }); } }

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• Problem with creation of scheduled task from IIS6 on SR2003

  - by Morten Louw Nielsen

  Hi, I am writing a webapplication using .NET. The webapp creates scheduled tasks using the System.Diagnostics.Process class, calling SCHTASKS.EXE with parameters. I have changed the identity on the app pool, to a specific domain user. The domain-user is local administrator on all the four webservers. From webserver01 I am creating tasks on webserver01 to webserver04. It works perfect for 3-5 days, but then it breaks. It gives me the following errormessage in a messagebox: "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000142). Click on OK to terminate the application." If I have the system in the broken state, and I change the identity of the app pool to Domain administrator, it works. As I change it back to my domain-user, it breaks again. If I reboot the server, it works again for the same amount of days, but will break again. It seems like a permission-related problem. I just don't understand why it works sometimes, and sometimes doesn't. I hope someone outthere has seen this problem! Looking forward to hear from you! Kind regards, Morten, Denmark

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• git push error 'remote rejected] master -> master (branch is currently checked out)'

  - by hap497

  Hi, Yesterday, I post a question regarding how to clone a git repository from 1 of my machine to another. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2808177/how-can-i-git-clone-from-another-machine/2809612#2809612 I am able to successfully clone a git repository from my src (192.168.1.2) to my dest (192.168.1.1). But when I did an edit to a file and then do a 'git commit -a -m "test"' and then do a git push. I get this error on my dest (192.168.1.1): git push [email protected]'s password: Counting objects: 21, done. Compressing objects: 100% (11/11), done. Writing objects: 100% (11/11), 1010 bytes, done. Total 11 (delta 9), reused 0 (delta 0) error: refusing to update checked out branch: refs/heads/master error: By default, updating the current branch in a non-bare repository error: is denied, because it will make the index and work tree inconsistent error: with what you pushed, and will require 'git reset --hard' to match error: the work tree to HEAD. error: error: You can set 'receive.denyCurrentBranch' configuration variable to error: 'ignore' or 'warn' in the remote repository to allow pushing into error: its current branch; however, this is not recommended unless you error: arranged to update its work tree to match what you pushed in some error: other way. error: error: To squelch this message and still keep the default behaviour, set error: 'receive.denyCurrentBranch' configuration variable to 'refuse'. To git+ssh://[email protected]/media/LINUXDATA/working ! [remote rejected] master -> master (branch is currently checked out) error: failed to push some refs to 'git+ssh://[email protected]/media/LINUXDATA/working' I have 2 version of git, will that causes this problem? I have git 1.7 on 192.168.1.2 (src) but git 1.5 on 192.168.1.1 (dest). I appreciate if someone can help me with this. Thank you.

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• javascript removeChild(this) from input[type="submit"] onclick breaks future use of form.submit() un

  - by maximumduncan

  I have come across some strange behaviour, and I'm assuming a bug in firefox, when removing a input submit element from the DOM from within the click event. The following code reproduces the issue: <form name="test_form"> <input type="submit" value="remove me" onclick="this.parentNode.removeChild(this);" /> <input type="submit" value="submit normally" /> <input type="button" value="submit via js" onclick="document.test_form.submit();" /> </form> To reproduce: Click "remove me" Click "submit via js". Note that the form does not get submitted, this is the problem. Click "submit normally". Note that the form still gets submitted normally. It appears that, under Firefox, if you remove a submit button from within the click event it puts the form in an invalid state so that any future calls to form.submit() are simply ignored. But it is a javascript-specific issue as normal submit buttons within this form still function fine. To be honest, this is such a simple example of this issue that I was expecting the internet to be awash with other people exeriencing it, but so far searching has yealded nothing useful. Has anyone else experienced this and if so, did you get to the bottom of it? Many thanks

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• file layout and setuptools configuration for the python bit of a multi-language library

  - by dan mackinlay

  So we're writing a full-text search framework MongoDb. MongoDB is pretty much javascript-native, so we wrote the javascript library first, and it works. Now I'm trying to write a python framework for it, which will be partially in python, but partially use those same stored javascript functions - the javascript functions are an intrinsic part of the library. On the other hand, the javascript framework does not depend on python. since they are pretty intertwined it seems like it's worthwhile keeping them in the same repository. I'm trying to work out a way of structuring the whole project to give the javascript and python frameworks equal status (maybe a ruby driver or whatever in the future?), but still allow the python library to install nicely. Currently it looks like this: (simplified a little) javascript/jstest/test1.js javascript/mongo-fulltext/search.js javascript/mongo-fulltext/util.js python/docs/indext.rst python/tests/search_test.py python/tests/__init__.py python/mongofulltextsearch/__init__.py python/mongofulltextsearch/mongo_search.py python/mongofulltextsearch/util.py python/setup.py I've skipped out a few files for simplicity, but you get the general idea; it' a pretty much standard python project... except that it depends critcally ona whole bunch of javascript which is stored in a sibling directory tree. What's the preferred setup for dealing with this kind of thing when it comes to setuptools? I can work out how to use package_data etc to install data files that live inside my python project as per the setuptools docs. The problem is if i want to use setuptools to install stuff, including the javascript files from outside the python code tree, and then also access them in a consistent way when I'm developing the python code and when it is easy_installed to someone's site. Is that supported behaviour for setuptools? Should i be using paver or distutils2 or Distribute or something? (basic distutils is not an option; the whole reason I'm doing this is to enable requirements tracking) How should i be reading the contents of those files into python scripts?

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• Need help figuring out an appropriate job title

  - by Programmer

  My official title is Programmer but I do not feel it fully represents what I do because a large portion of my time is spent working with QA on testing, acting as a liason with our offshore development team and meeting with business managers to help make decisions about new features. My understanding has always been that the title "Programmer" is usually applied to someone who simply writes code, not someone who is involved in architecture decisions or managerial issues related to offshore teams. It is true that I do not have any budgeting duties as my manager does and I do not deal with contracts related to the offshore development. My manager handles both of those duties. But the title "Programmer" seems like a very narrow label for the broad range of responsibilities that I have. For example, I sometimes help QA staff to figure out how to do their testing. And I give the offshore team detailed instructions about how to implement new features - I review their code and integrate their changes locally. I don't know if this is typical these days or if I should ask for a title change. If I should ask for a title change, I would appreciate any recommendations.

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• basic javascript question on geolocation and googlemaps

  - by ade

  hello all, Im hoping that somebody can help me out on what i feel is an easy answer but I just cant get it to work out. Im trying to trap the geolocation lat and long and place it into the google maps api so far i have var myOptions = { zoom:7, trips:1, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map"), myOptions); directionsDisplay.setMap(map); var request = { origin: 'newyork' destination: 'deleware', travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING }; this works fine for what i want. how ever I want to be able to change Origin to the users lat long using the following script from google.maps.api. their code is: if(navigator.geolocation) { navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); var placeMarker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: initialLocation, map: map, }); map.setCenter(initialLocation); }, function() { handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); }); } else { // Browser doesn't support Geolocation handleNoGeolocation(); } function handleNoGeolocation() { initialLocation = newyork; map.setCenter(initialLocation); } I want to pull out the navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); and allocate it two 2 varibles, myLat and myLong. I then want to be able to change my orignal script from var request = { origin: 'newyork' destination: 'deleware', travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING }; to var request = { origin: myLat,myLong destination: 'deleware', travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING }; Does this make sense..? Im currently having a pig with it and as im not a JS developer its what i think should be a simple bit of coding that im losing the battle with.. any thoughts..?

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• .NET custom property attribute?

  - by ropstah

  EDIT: I'd better rephrase: How can I shift the GET-implementation of a Class property to a / using a custom attribute? (I've added instantation vars (classname, propertyname) to the attribute, however I'd rather have these automatically fetched ofcourse.) Public Class CustomClass <CustomAttributeClass(ClassName:="CustomClass", PropertyName = "SomeProperty")> _ Public Property SomeProperty() as String Get() as String //This implementation should be handled by the attribute class End Get Set(Byval value as String) Me._someProperty = value End Set End Property End Class Old question: I want to create a custom property attribute for classes. I can create a class derived from Attribute, and 'mark' the property with the attribute, but where to go from here? I have a repository where I can quickly get data based on the attributes values. I would like to generalize the behaviour of the property in the attribute but I don't know how to go from here... Any help would be greatly accepted! Public Class CustomDataAttribute : Inherits Attribute Private _name As String Public Sub New(ByVal name As String) Me.Name = name End Sub Property Name() As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) Me._name = value End Set End Property End Class Public Class CustomClass <CustomDataAttribute(Name:="CustomField")> _ Public Property CustomField() End Property End Class

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• Invoice & Invoice lines: How do you store customer address information?

  - by elviejo

  Hi I'm developing an invoicing application. So the general idea is to have two tables: Invoice (ID, Date, CustomerAddress, CustomerState, CustomerCountry, VAT, Total); InvoiceLine (Invoice_ID, ID, Concept, Units, PricePerUnit, Total); As you can see this basic design leads to a lot of repetiton of records where the client will have the same addrres, state and country. So the alternative is to have an address table and then make a relationship Address<-Invoice. However I think that an invoice is immutable document and should be stored just the way it was first made. Sometimes customers change their addresses, or states and if it was coming from an Address catalog that will change all the previously made invoices. So What is your experience? How is the customer address stored in an invoice? In the Invoice table? an Address Table? or something else? Can you provide pointers to a book, article or document where this is discussed in further detail?

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• Loading through Ajax request and bookmarked URL

  - by Varun

  I am working on a ticket system, having the following requirement: The home page is divided into two sections: Sec-1. Some filter options are shown here.(like closed-tickets, open-tickets, all-tickets, tickets-assigned-to-me etc.). You can select one or more of these filters. sec-2. List of tickets satisfying above filters will be displayed here. Now this is what I want: As I change the filters -- the change should be reflected in the URL, so that one is able to bookmark it. -- an ajax request will go and list of tickets satisfying the selected filters will be updated in sec-2. I want the same code to be used to load the tickets in both ways- (a) by selecting that set of filters and (b) by using the bookmark to reload the page. I have little idea on how to do it: The URL will contain the selected filters.(appended after #) changing filters on the page will modify the hash part of URL and call a function (say ajaxHandler()) to parse the URL to get the filters and then make an ajax request to get the list of tickets to be displayed in section2. and I will call the same function ajaxHandler() in window.onload. Is this the way? Any suggestions?

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• How to deploy a WPF 4 Full Trust XBAP an on intranet?

  - by sparks

  I'm having trouble running a full trust WPF 4 XBAP (browser application), created with Visual Studio 2010, from my intranet. I do not get a ClickOnce elevation prompt, as described in ScottGu's post on WPF 4: Full Trust XBAP Deployment Starting in WPF 4, the ClickOnce elevation prompt is also enabled for XAML Browser Applications (XBAPs) in Intranet and Trusted Zones, making it easier to deploy full-trust XBAPs. For XBAPs that require security permissions greater than the minimum code access security (CAS) permission grantset of the Intranet and Trusted Zones, the user will be able to click 'Run' on the ClickOnce elevation prompt when they navigate to the XBAP to allow the XBAP to run with the requested permissions. Instead, I get the "Trust Not Granted" message. I'm running the application in two ways; in both cases, I get the "Trust Not Granted" message. First, I'm launching the application by double-clicking on the xbap file from my NAS on the local network. Secondly, I'm also trying to launch the application when it is hosted on a website via IIS from the same machine. Are both of these scenarios considered to be run from an "intranet?" Or does "intranet" mean some in particular here? Or am I doing something completely wrong? Of note, I am able to launch the application without problem when I simply double-click the xbap from my local computer. The xbap in question was created specifically to test the ClickOnce elevation prompt. It was created with Visual Studio 2010 as a WPF Browser Application. The only change I made was to change this to a full trust application (My Project Security tab This is a full trust application). In the publish wizard, I am choosing the following: Where do you want to publish the application? - I chose to publish to a local directory How will user install the application? - I chose "From a CD-ROM or DVD-ROM" Will the application be available offline - All choices were grayed out

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