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  • Passing row from UIPickerView to integer CoreData attribute

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I'm missing something here, and feeling like an idiot about it. I'm using a UIPickerView in my app, and I need to assign the row number to a 32-bit integer attribute for a Core Data object. To do this, I am using this method: -(void)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView didSelectRow:(NSInteger)row inComponent:(NSInteger)component { object.integerValue = row; } This is giving me a warning: warning: passing argument 1 of 'setIntegerValue:' makes pointer from integer without a cast What am I mixing up here? --EDIT 1-- Ok, so I can get rid of the errors by changing the method to do the following: NSNumber *number = [NSNumber numberWithInteger:row]; object.integerValue = rating; However, I still get a value of 0 for object.integerValue if I use NSLog to print it out. object.integerValue has a max value of 5, so I print out number instead, and then I'm getting a number above 62,000,000. Which doesn't seem right to me, since there are 5 rows. If I NSLog the row variable, I get a number between 0 and 5. So why do I end up with a completely different number after casting the number to NSNumber?

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  • aspnet_compiler -fixednames does not work?

    - by Terrence
    I am unable to get the -fixednames switch to create dlls for the cs code behind files. The files in the bin folder are compiled aspx pages, but the code behind files are all compiled into one large websitename.dll file. Here is my command with switches. aspnet_compiler -v / -p E:\Source\DotNet4\mysolution\website -f -d -fixednames E:\Source\DotNet4\CompiledWebSite This produces many files in the bin folder. website.dll and website.pdb (contains code behind) myform1.aspx.643c7876.dll (compiled aspx layout ui) I have tested this over and over to make sure I am not missing anything. The test is place a label on myform1.aspx, and in the codebehind populate the label with some text. Compile the website with the above switches and deploy the website. Make a change to the myform1 codebehind and change the label text. Compile and only deploy the myform1.aspx.643c7876.dll to the website. Result: label is still the same. Now deploy the website.dll and pdb and the label changes. Can anyone tell me how to get -fixednames to create sinle dlls for codebehind?

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  • Deploying ASP.NET MVC to IIS6: pages are just blank

    - by BryanGrimes
    I have an MVC app that is actually on a couple other servers but I didn't do the deploy. For this deploy I have added the wildcard to aspnet_isapi.dll which has gotten rid of the 404 error. But the pages are not pulling up, rather everything is just blank. I can't seem to find any IIS configuration differences. The Global asax.cs file does have routing defined, but as I've seen on a working server, that file isn't just hanging out in the root or anything so obvious. What could I be missing here? All of the servers are running IIS6 and I have compared the setups and they look the same to me at this point. Thanks... Bryan EDIT for the comments thus far: I've looked in the event logs with no luck, and scoured various IIS logs per David Wang: blogs.msdn.com. Below is the Global.asax.cs file... public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("error.axd"); // for Elmah // For deployment to IIS6 routes.Add(new Route ( "{controller}.mvc/{action}/{id}", new RouteValueDictionary(new { action = "Index", id = (string)null }), new MvcRouteHandler() )); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeSave", "Time/Save", new { controller = "Time", action = "Save" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeAdd", "Time/Add", new { controller = "Time", action = "Add" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeEdit", "Time/Edit/{id}", new { controller = "Time", action = "Edit", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "FromSalesforce", "Home/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); routes.MapRoute( "Default2", "{controller}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } Maybe this is as stupid as the asax file not being somewhere it needs to be, but heck if I know at this point.

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  • Spring Stripes framework problem

    - by ali
    I am new to stripes and am attempting to integrate spring into stripes In the following code : public class ContactFormActionBeanTest { private static MockServletContext mockServletContext; private static MockHttpSession mockSession; @BeforeClass public static void setup() throws Exception { mockServletContext = new MockServletContext("webmail"); Map<String,String> params = new HashMap<String,String>(); params.put("ActionResolver.Packages", "stripesbook.action"); params.put("Extension.Packages", "stripesbook.ext," + "net.sourceforge.stripes.integration.spring"); mockServletContext.addFilter(StripesFilter.class, "StripesFilter", params); mockServletContext.setServlet(DispatcherServlet.class, "DispatcherServlet", null); mockSession = new MockHttpSession(mockServletContext); mockServletContext.addInitParameter("contextConfigLocation", "/WEB-INF/applicationContext-test.xml"); ContextLoaderListener springContextLoader = new ContextLoaderListener(); springContextLoader.contextInitialized( new ServletContextEvent(mockServletContext)); // Load mock user MockRoundtrip trip = new MockRoundtrip(mockServletContext, MockDataLoaderActionBean.class, mockSession); trip.execute(); // Login mock user trip = new MockRoundtrip(mockServletContext, LoginActionBean.class, mockSession); trip.setParameter("username", "freddy"); trip.setParameter("password", "nadia"); trip.execute("login"); } I get null in springContextLoader ContextLoaderListener springContextLoader = new ContextLoaderListener(); and test fails. Am I missing something? I am using eclipse with maven. Also when I try to deploy it for tomcat 6.0 I get following warnings: WARN net.sourceforge.stripes.util.ResolverUtil - Could not examine class 'stripesbook/ext/ContactFormatter.class' due to a java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError with message: Bad version number in .class file (unable to load class stripesbook.ext.ContactFormatter) I have checked to be sure that I am compiling with Java 5(set JDK compiler to 1.5) instead of 1.6 (Java 6); but didn't work out for me and still have problems running spring-stripes integrated project.

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  • Xpath fails if an element has a a xmlns attribute

    - by Callum Lamb
    Im trying to use xml to parse a .COLLADA file. The problem is I can't seem to use xpath() to access elements if the root tag has a xmlns attribute. For example this works: $string = <<<TEST <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <COLLADA version="1.4.1"> <library_materials> <material id="Material" name="Material"> <instance_effect url="#Material-effect"/> </material> <material id="Material2" name="Material"> <instance_effect url="#Material-effect2"/> </material> </library_materials> </COLLADA> TEST; $lol = new SimpleXMLElement($string); print_r($lol->library_materials->xpath("material[@id='Material2']")); But this doesn't: $string = <<<TEST <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <COLLADA xmlns="http://www.collada.org/2005/11/COLLADASchema" version="1.4.1"> <library_materials> <material id="Material" name="Material"> <instance_effect url="#Material-effect"/> </material> <material id="Material2" name="Material"> <instance_effect url="#Material-effect2"/> </material> </library_materials> </COLLADA> TEST; $lol = new SimpleXMLElement($string); print_r($lol->library_materials->xpath("material[@id='Material2']")); How does the xmlns suddenly make the xml tree unusable? I thought it just defined the namespace so you could tell it apart from other identical tags in other namespaces. What am I missing?

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  • Trying to use Rhino, getEngineByName("JavaScript") returns null in OpenJDK 7

    - by Yuval
    When I run the following piece of code, the engine variable is set to null when I'm using OepnJDK 7 (java-7-openjdk-i386). import javax.script.ScriptEngine; import javax.script.ScriptEngineManager; import javax.script.ScriptException; public class TestRhino { /** * @param args */ public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub ScriptEngineManager factory = new ScriptEngineManager(); ScriptEngine engine = factory.getEngineByName("JavaScript"); try { System.out.println(engine.eval("1+1")); } catch (ScriptException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } It runs fine with java-6-openjdk and Oracle's jre1.7.0. Any idea why? I'm using Ubuntu 11.10. All JVMs are installed under /usr/lib/jvm. I noticed OpenJDK 7 has a different directory structure. Perhaps something is not installed right? $ locate rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-openjdk/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-common/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-i386/jre/lib/rhino.jar Edit Since ScriptEngineManager uses a ServiceProvider to find the available script engines, I snooped around resources.jar's META-INF/services. I noticed that in OpenJDK 6, resources.jar has a META-INF/services/javax.script.ScriptEngineFactory entry which is missing from OpenJDK 7. Any idea why? I suspect this is a bug? Here is the contents of that entry (from OpenJDK 6): #script engines supported com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory #javascript Another edit Apparently, according to this thread, the code simply isn't there, perhaps because of merging issues between Sun and Mozilla code. I still don't understand why it was present in OpenJDK 6 and not 7. The class com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory exists in 6's rt.jar but not in 7's. If it was not meant to be included, why is there a OpenJDK 7 rhino.jar then; and why is the source still in the OpenJDK source tree (here)?

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  • In asp.Net, writing code in the control tag generates compile error

    - by Nour Sabouny
    Hi this is really strange !! But look at the following asp code: <div runat="server" id="MainDiv"> <%foreach (string str in new string[]{"First#", "Second#"}) { %> <div id="<%=str.Replace("#","div") %>"> </div> <%} %> </div> now if you put this code inside any web page (and don't worry about the moral of this code, I made it just to show the idea) you'll get this error : Compiler Error Message: CS1518: Expected class, delegate, enum, interface, or struct Of course the error has nothing to do with the real problem, I searched for the code that was generated by asp.net and figured out the following : private void @__RenderMainDiv(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter @__w, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer) { @__w.Write("\r\n "); #line 20 "blabla\blabla\Default.aspx" foreach (string str in new string[] { "First#", "Second#" }) { #line default #line hidden @__w.Write("\r\n <div id=\""); #line 22 "blabla\blabla\Default.aspx" @__w.Write(str.Replace("#", "div")); #line default #line hidden @__w.Write("\">\r\n "); } This is the code that was generated from the asp page and this is the method that is meant to render our div (MainDiv), I found out that there is a missing bracket "}" that closes the method or the (for loop). now the problem has three parts: 1- first you should have a server control (in our situation is the MainDiv) and I'm not sure if it is only the div tag. 2- HTML control inside the server control and a code inside it using the double quotation mark ( for example <div id="<%=str instead of <div id='<%=str. 3-Any keyword which has block brackets e.g.:for{},while{},using{}...etc. now removing any part, will solve the problem !!! how is this happening ?? any ideas ? BTW: please help me to make the question more obvious, because I couldn't find the best words to describe the problem.

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  • Crashing when pushing a XIB based view controller onto navigation controller stack

    - by Michael
    I was attempting to clean up the implementation for a sub-panel on a navigation controller stack, so that the navigation bar could be customized in the XIB instead of doing it manually in the viewDidLoad method. The original (working) setup had the XIB set up with the "File's Owner" class set to the view controller class, and then the view at the top level. This works fine. In the "Interface Builder User Guide", p. 71, it describes the recommended way to build the XIBs for sub-panels ("additional navigation levels"). This approach leaves the "File's Owner" class as NSObject, but adds a UIViewController at the top level, and nests the view (and navigation item) underneath it. The UIViewController's view automatically gets connected to the contained view. When I try to push the controller init'd with this new XIB, the app crashes because of a missing view: SettingsViewController *controller = [[SettingsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SettingsView" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; 2010-04-23 11:17:37.135 xxxx[1173:207] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '-[UIViewController _loadViewFromNibNamed:bundle:] loaded the "SettingsTestView" nib but the view outlet was not set.' I've double checked everything, and tried building a clean XIB from scratch, but get the same result. I looked through a number of the code sample projects, and NONE of them use the documented/recommended approach--they all use the File's Owner class and manually set up the navigation bar in viewDidLoad like I originally had it. Is it possible to get it working the "recommended" way? Thanks! Michael

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  • Calculating File size before download

    - by sagar
    Ok ! Coming to the point directly. What I want to do is explained as follows. I have an url of MP3 file. ( for example Sound File ) Now, When user starts application. Download should start & for that I have implemented following methods. -(void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSURL *url=[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://xyz.pqr.com/abc.mp3"]; NSURLRequest *req=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLCacheStorageNotAllowed timeoutInterval:120]; NSURLConnection *con=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:req delegate:self startImmediately:YES]; if(con){ myWebData=[[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { // [MainHandler performSelector:@selector(targetSelector:) withObject:nil]; } } -(void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response{ NSLog(@"%@",@"connection established"); [myWebData setLength: 0]; } -(void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { NSLog(@"%@",@"connection receiving data"); [myWebData appendData:data]; } -(void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"%@",@"connection failed"); [connection release]; // [AlertViewHandler showAlertWithErrorMessage:@"Sorry, there is no network connection. Please check your network and try again."]; // [self parserDidEndDocument:nil]; } -(void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { [connection release]; } Now, Above methods work perfectly for downloading. But missing points are as follows. I can not get the exact size which is going to be downloaded. ( means I want to know what is the size of file - which is going to be download )

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  • Please help me work out this error, regarding the use of a HTTPService to connect Flex4 & Ruby on Ra

    - by ben
    I have a HTTPService in Flash Builder 4, that is defined as follows: <s:HTTPService id="getUserDetails" url="http://localhost:3000/users/getDetails" method="GET"/> It gets called as follows: getUserDetails.send({'user[username]': calleeInput.text}); Here is a screenshot of the network monitor, showing that the parameter is being sent correctly (it is 'kirsty'): Here is the Ruby on Rails method that it's connected to: def getDetails @user = User.find_by_username(:username) render :xml => @user end When I run it, I get the following error output in the console: Processing UsersController#list (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-30 17:48:03) [GET] User Load (1.1ms) SELECT * FROM "users" Completed in 30ms (View: 16, DB: 1) | 200 OK [http://localhost/users/list] Processing UsersController#getDetails (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-30 17:48:13) [GET] Parameters: {"user"={"username"="kirsty"}} User Load (0.3ms) SELECT * FROM "users" WHERE ("users"."username" = '--- :username ') LIMIT 1 ActionView::MissingTemplate (Missing template users/getDetails.erb in view path app/views): app/controllers/users_controller.rb:36:in getDetails' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:104:in service' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:65:in run' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:173:in start_thread' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in start' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in start_thread' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:95:in start' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in each' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in start' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:23:in start' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:82:in `start' Rendering rescues/layout (internal_server_error) I'm not sure if the error is being caused by bad code in the getDetails Ruby on Rails method? I'm new to RoR, and I think I remember reading somewhere that every method should have a view. I'm just using this method to get info into the Flex 4 app, do I still need to make a view for it? Is that what's causing the error? Any help would be GREATLY appreciated, I've been stuck on this for a few days now! Thanks.

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  • How to access device settings on a Sony Ericsson mobile phone?

    - by TheRHCP
    Edited on April 29th Hello everyone, I recently bought a Sony Ericsson mobile phone which embeds Symbian S60 and I would like to add a missing feature myself. In fact I cannot actually disable Internet connection in an easy way when roaming, which cost me a lot of money last time I moved away ... So I would like to develop a little application that would just replace the actual Internet configuration with a fake configuration to avoid auto-connections. So what I would like to know is how can I access programmatically to my phone settings? I believe that this is possible but I do not really have a clue where to start. I know that Sony Ericsson provides a SDK to run Java applications on its customised JVM but Symbian is also providing a SDK to develop applications for S60 devices in many languages. The real questions is which SDK will provide an API able to access phone settings. This is not well documented so I am asking this question with the hope that someone here already had experience with development for Sony Ericsson/Symbian devices. Thanks. EDIT: It seems that I was totally wrong concerning my phone. This not based on any Symbian OS at all. This is pure Sony Ericsson so the only solution would be to look if Sony Ericsson extended J2ME functionality in their own JVM. I am gonna investigate on this.

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  • Why use INCLUDE in a SQL index

    - by StarLite
    I recently encountered an index in a database I maintain that was of the form: CREATE INDEX [IX_Foo] ON [Foo] ( Id ASC ) INCLUDE ( SubId ) In this particular case, the performance problem that I was encountering (a slow SELECT filtering on both Id and SubId) could be fixed by simply moving the SubId column into the index proper rather than as an included column. This got me thinking however that I don't understand the reasoning behind included columns at all, when generally, they could simply be a part of the index itself. Even if I don't particularly care about the items being in the index itself is there any downside to having column in the index rather than simply being included. After some research, I am aware that there are a number of restrictions on what can go into an indexed column (maximum width of the index, and some column types that can't be indexed like 'image'). In these cases I can see that you would be forced to include the column in the index page data. The only thing I can think of is that if there are updates on SubId, the row will not need to be relocated if the column is included (though the value in the index would need to be changed). Is there something else that I'm missing? I'm considering going through the other indexes in the database and shifting included columns in the index proper where possible. Would this be a mistake? I'm primarily interested in MS SQL Server, but information on other DB engines is welcome also.

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  • Synchronizing files between Linux servers, through FTP

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I have the following configuration of servers: 1 central linux server, a VPS 8 satellite linux servers, "crappy shared hostings" I have a bunch of files that I need to have in all servers. Right now i'm copying them everywhere manually, but I want to be able to copy them to the central server, and then have a scheduled process that runs every now and then and synchronizes them (only outwardly, no need to try to find "new" files in the satellite servers). There are a couple of catches though: I can't have any custom software in the satellite servers, or do strange command line things that'll auto connect to them and send the files directly. I know this is the way these kinds of things are normally done, but the satellite servers are crappy shared hosting ones where I have absolutely no control over anything. I need to send the files over FTP I also need to have, in my central server, a list of the files that are available in each of the satellite servers, to make sure they are ready before I send traffic to them. If I were to do this manually, the steps would be: get the list of files in a satellite server compare to my own, and send the files that are missing get the list of files again, and store it in my central database. I'd like to know what tools are out there that can alleviate as much of this as possible, first the syncing, and then the "getting the list of files available in the other server". I'm going to be doing everything from PHP, not sure if there are good tools to "use FTP from PHP", which i'm pretty sure i'll have to do for step 3 at least. Thanks in advance for any ideas! Daniel

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  • Changing the system time zone succeeds once and then no longer changes

    - by Adam Driscoll
    I'm using the WinAPI to set the time zone on a Windows XP SP3 box. I'm reading the time zone information from the HKLM\Software\Microsoft\WindowsNT\Time Zones\<time zone name> key and then setting the time zone to the specified time zone. I enumerate the keys under the Time Zones key, grab the TZI value and stuff it into a TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct to be passed to SetTimeZoneInformation. All seems to work on the first pass. The time zone changes, no error is returned. The second time I perform this operation (same user, new session, on login before userinit) the call succeeds but the system does not reflect the time zone change. Neither the clock nor time stamps on files are updated to the new time zone. When I navigate to: HKLM\System\CurrentControlSet\Control\TimeZoneInformation my new time zone information is present. A couple strange things are happening when I'm setting my time zone: Also when I parse the TZI binary value from the registry to store in my TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct I'm noticing the struct has the DaylightDate.wDay and StandardDate.wDay field always set to 0 I tried to call GetTimeZoneInformation right after I call SetTimeZoneInformation but the call fails with a 1300 error (Not all privileges or groups referenced are assigned to the caller. ) I'm also making sure to send a WM_BROADCAST message so Explorer knows whats going on. Think it's the parsing of the byte array to the TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct? Or am I missing some thing else important? EDIT: Found a document stating why this is happening: here. Privilege was introduced in Vista...thanks MSDN docs... Per the Microsoft documentation I'm enabling the SE_TIME_ZONE_NAME privilege for the current processes token. But when I attempt to call LookupPriviledgeValue for SE_TIME_ZONE_NAME I get a 1313 error (A specified privilege does not exist. ).

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  • Using TPrinter in Delphi

    - by Milad
    Hello Experts I don't have any backgrounds in programming and this is my first shot. I wrote a Delphi program that is supposed to print on a result sheet. I work in an institute and we have to establish hundreds of result sheets every 2 months. It's really difficult to do that and different handwritings is also an important issue. My problem is that when i write this code : if PrintDialog.Execute() then begin with MyPrinter do begin MyPrinter.BeginDoc();//Start Printing //Prints First Name MyPrinter.Canvas.TextOut(FirstNameX,FirstNameY,EditFirstName.Text); //Prints Last Name MyPrinter.Canvas.TextOut(LastNameX,LastNameY,EditLastName.Text); //Prints Level MyPrinter.Canvas.TextOut(LevelX,LevelY,EditLevel.Text); //Prints Date MyPrinter.Canvas.TextOut(DateX,DateY,MEditDate.Text); //Prints Student Number MyPrinter.Canvas.TextOut(StdNumX,StdNumY,EditStdnumber.Text); .... MyPrinter.EndDoc();//End Printing end; end; I can't get the right coordinates to print properly. Am I missing something? How can I set the right coordinates? You know TPrinter uses pixels to get the coordinates but papers are measured in inches or centimeters. I'm really confused.I appreciate any help. Thanks in advance.

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  • HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

    - by stormin986
    My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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  • Hadoop Map/Reduce - simple use example to do the following...

    - by alexeypro
    I have MySQL database, where I store the following BLOB (which contains JSON object) and ID (for this JSON object). JSON object contains a lot of different information. Say, "city:Los Angeles" and "state:California". There are about 500k of such records for now, but they are growing. And each JSON object is quite big. My goal is to do searches (real-time) in MySQL database. Say, I want to search for all JSON objects which have "state" to "California" and "city" to "San Francisco". I want to utilize Hadoop for the task. My idea is that there will be "job", which takes chunks of, say, 100 records (rows) from MySQL, verifies them according to the given search criteria, returns those (ID's) which qualify. Pros/cons? I understand that one might think that I should utilize simple SQL power for that, but the thing is that JSON object structure is pretty "heavy", if I put it as SQL schemas, there will be at least 3-5 tables joins, which (I tried, really) creates quite a headache, and building all the right indexes eats RAM faster than I one can think. ;-) And even then, every SQL query has to be analyzed to be utilizing the indexes, otherwise with full scan it literally is a pain. And with such structure we have the only way "up" is just with vertical scaling. But I am not sure it's the best option for me, as I see how JSON objects will grow (the data structure), and I see that the number of them will grow too. :-) Help? Can somebody point me to simple examples of how this can be done? Does it make sense at all? Am I missing something important? Thank you.

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  • How can I do batch image processing with ImageJ in clojure?

    - by Robert McIntyre
    I want to use ImageJ to do some processing of several thousand images. Is there a way to take any general imageJ plugin and apply it to hundreds of images automatically? For example, say I want to take my thousand images and apply a polar transformation to each--- A polar transformation plugin for ImageJ can be found here: http://rsbweb.nih.gov/ij/plugins/polar-transformer.html Great! Let's use it. From: [http://albert.rierol.net/imagej_programming_tutorials.html#How%20to%20automate%20an%20ImageJ%20dialog] I find that I can apply a plugin using the following: (defn x-polar [imageP] (let [thread (Thread/currentThread) options ""] (.setName thread "Run$_polar-transform") (Macro/setOptions thread options) (IJ/runPlugIn imageP "Polar_Transformer" ""))) This is good because it suppresses the dialog which would otherwise pop up for every image. But running this always brings up a window containing the transformed image, when what I want is to simply return the transformed image. The stupidest way to do what I want is to just close the window that comes up and return the image which it was displaying. Does what I want but is absolutely retarded: (defn x-polar [imageP] (let [thread (Thread/currentThread) options ""] (.setName thread "Run$_polar-transform") (Macro/setOptions thread options) (IJ/runPlugIn imageP "Polar_Transformer" "") (let [return-image (IJ/getImage)] (.hide return-image) return-image))) I'm obviously missing something about how to use imageJ plugins in a programming context. Does anyone know the right way to do this? Thanks, --Robert McIntyre

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  • Open a buffer as a vertical split in VIM

    - by alfredodeza
    If you are editing a file in VIM and then you need to open an existing buffer (e.g. from your buffer list: :buffers) how can you open it in a vertical split? I know that you already can open it with a normal split like: :sbuffer N Wehere N is the buffer number you want, however, the above opens that N buffer horizontally, not vertically. I'm also aware that you can change the window placement after opening and have a Vertical Split like so: Ctrl-W H Ctrl-W L Which will vertically split the window to the right or the left. It seems to me that if there is a sbuffer there should be a vsbuffer but that doesn't exist (not that I am aware of) Also, please note that I am not looking for a plugin to solve this question. I know about a wealth of plugins that will allow you to do this. I am sure I might be missing something that is already there. EDIT: In the best spirit of collaboration, I have created a simple Function with a Mapping if someone else stumbles across this issue and do not want to install a plugin: Function: " Vertical Split Buffer Function function VerticalSplitBuffer(buffer) execute "vert belowright sb" a:buffer endfunction Mapping: " Vertical Split Buffer Mapping command -nargs=1 Vbuffer call VerticalSplitBuffer(<f-args>) This accomplishes the task of opening a buffer in a right split, so for buffer 1, you would call it like: :Vbuffer 1

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  • Running Flask framework on App Engine: Could not find module app.cgi

    - by Linc
    I'm running this Flask example app on App Engine: http://github.com/gigq/flasktodo You can see on the github page that app.cgi is in the main directory for this project. However, when I run this code I get an error complaining about a missing app.cgi: ERROR 2010-05-01 16:43:47,006 dev_appserver.py:2109] Encountered error loading module "app.cgi": <type 'exceptions.ImportError'>: Could not find module app.cgi Traceback (most recent call last): File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 2096, in LoadTargetModule module_code = import_hook.get_code(module_fullname) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1956, in get_code full_path, search_path, submodule = self.GetModuleInfo(fullname) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1908, in GetModuleInfo submodule, search_path = self.GetParentSearchPath(fullname) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1887, in GetParentSearchPath parent_package = self.GetParentPackage(fullname) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1864, in GetParentPackage raise ImportError('Could not find module %s' % fullname) ImportError: Could not find module app.cgi How do I indicate to dev_appserver.py where to look to find it?

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  • Quick MEF + SL4 question

    - by Tom Allen
    I'm working on an app in the Silverlight 4 RC and i'm taking the oppertunity to learn MEF for handling plugin controls. I've got it working in a pretty basic manor, but it's not exactly tidy and I know there is a better way of importing multiple xap's. Essentially, in the App.xaml of my host app, I've got the following telling MEF to load my xap's: AggregateCatalog catalog = new AggregateCatalog(); DeploymentCatalog c1 = new DeploymentCatalog(new Uri("TestPlugInA.xap", UriKind.Relative)); DeploymentCatalog c2 = new DeploymentCatalog(new Uri("TestPlugInB.xap", UriKind.Relative)); catalog.Catalogs.Add(c1); catalog.Catalogs.Add(c2); CompositionHost.Initialize(catalog); c1.DownloadAsync(); c2.DownloadAsync(); I'm sure I'm not using the AggregateCatalog fully here and I need to be able to load any xap's that might be in the directory, not just hardcoding Uri's obviously.... Also, in the MainPage.xaml.cs in the host I have the following collection which MEF puts the plugin's into: [ImportMany(AllowRecomposition = true)] public ObservableCollection<IPlugInApp> PlugIns { get; set; } Again, this works, but I'm pretty sure I'm using ImportMany incorrectly.... Finally, the MainPage.xaml.cs file implements IPartImportsSatisfiedNotification and I have the following for handling the plugin's once loaded: public void OnImportsSatisfied() { sp.Children.Clear(); foreach (IPlugInApp plugIn in PlugIns) { if (plugIn != null) sp.Children.Add(plugIn.GetUserControl()); } } This works, but it seems filthy that it runs n times (n being the number of xap's to load). I'm having to call sp.Children.Clear() as if I don't, when loading the 2 plugin's, my stack panel is populated as follows: TestPlugIn A TestPlugIn A TestPlugIn B I'm clearly missing something here. Can anyone point out what I should be doing? Thanks!

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  • Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

    - by BS_C3
    Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

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  • Moq, a translator and an expression

    - by jeriley
    I'm working with an expression within a moq-ed "Get Service" and ran into a rather annoying issue. In order to get this test to run correctly and the get service to return what it should, there's a translator in between that takes what you've asked for, sends it off and gets what you -really- want. So, thinking this was easy I attempt this ... the fakelist is the TEntity objects (translated, used by the UI) and TEnterpriseObject is the actual persistance. mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>> expression) => { var items = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(); var translator = (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>) ObjectFactory.GetInstance(typeof (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>)); fakeList.ForEach(fake => items.Add(translator.ToEnterpriseObject(fake))); items = items.Where(expression); var result = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(items); fakeList.Clear(); result.ForEach(item => translator.ToEntity(item)); return items; }); I'm getting the red squigglie under there items.where(expression) -- says it can't be infered from usage (confused between <Func<TEnterpriseObject,bool>> and <Func<TEnterpriseObject,int,bool>>) A far simpler version works great ... mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>> expression) => fakeList.AsQueryable().Where(expression)); so I'm not sure what I'm missing... ideas?

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  • What's correct way to remove a boost::shared_ptr from a list?

    - by Catskul
    I have a std::list of boost::shared_ptr<T> and I want to remove an item from it but I only have a pointer of type T* which matches one of the items in the list. However I cant use myList.remove( tPtr ) I'm guessing because shared_ptr does not implement == for its template argument type. My immediate thought was to try myList.remove( shared_ptr<T>(tPtr) ) which is syntactically correct but it will crash from a double delete since the temporary shared_ptr has a separate use_count. std::list< boost::shared_ptr<T> > myList; T* tThisPtr = new T(); // This is wrong; only done for example code. // stand-in for actual code in T using // T's actual "this" pointer from within T { boost::shared_ptr<T> toAdd( tThisPtr ); // typically would be new T() myList.push_back( toAdd ); } { //T has pointer to myList so that upon a certain action, // it will remove itself romt the list //myList.remove( tThisPtr); //doesn't compile myList.remove( boost::shared_ptr<T>(tThisPtr) ); // compiles, but causes // double delete } The only options I see remaining are to use std::find with a custom compare, or to loop through the list brute force and find it myself, but it seems there should be a better way. Am I missing something obvious, or is this just too non-standard a use to be doing a remove the clean/normal way?

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  • SVN authz, path-based authentication woes

    - by Ronny
    [groups] developer = a,b,c doc = r,x [/doc] @doc = rw @developer = rw [/] @developer = rw * = If now a member of the group doc tries to check out the documentation, it does not work. I want members of doc just to be able to check out the sub-dir doc, anything else is forbidden. Any ideas howto achieve this? kind regards ronny [update] client: svn, version 1.5.4 (r33841) server: svn, Version 1.4.6 (r28521) access via svn+ssh:/user@host/fullpath-to-repos 1 perfectly works for two years 2 might be - see version numbers above (I'll contant our admin, immediatelly) 3 no? just ssh 4 nope 5 nope [update] using client version svn 1.4.6 (r28521) does not work either - same errors I use plain command line access. svn co svn+ssh://.... [update] server:Linux 2.6.16.60-0.39.3-default9 i686 athlon i386 GNU/Linux - suse 10? or something like that I think client: Kubuntu 9.04 connection via OpenSSH SSH client the server rejects svn:// connections from localhost - any connection --- gotta try it with a copy at home time soon [update 4] * this is not my own server, I cannot do what I want with it. It is a very old server 10 years at least running, with hundreds of users. Standard things should work. correct me if I am missing something. [update 5] believe it or not. I was using the wrong path and now everything works perfectly well, I am sorry to have wasted your time. I'll give the bounty to FoxyBOA for his efford.

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