Search Results

Search found 40429 results on 1618 pages for 'change password'.

Page 446/1618 | < Previous Page | 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453  | Next Page >

  • django html/css windows mac problem width additional space on the top of the page

    - by rafal
    Hi, my problem is really strange... We are developing shopping-cart system in django. The problem is, when I change anything even single letter on my computer, strange space on the top of the page appears, see the picture... I don't know since when the problem appears. But if i go back to previous version (in this case 210, we use svn), everything is ok, until i change something. I'm using windows 7 and i tried to edit this file in notepad, notepad++, e and so on... In the case when my friend changes something in this 210 version on Macbook everything is ok. Have anyone any ideas? Also in source code of the page strange "-" is added before doctype, but it is only visible in chrome. But the problem is for all browsers...! what is more... for example my home page extends, categories.html and base.html, and in this case a have two "--". Of course If i change something in this two files base and home... PLEASE HELP!:) http://img402.imageshack.us/img402/5655/buguh.png [2]:

    Read the article

  • Saving a record in Authlogic table

    - by denniss
    I am using authlogic to do my authentication. The current model that serves as the authentication model is the user model. I want to add a "belongs to" relationship to user which means that I need a foreign key in the user table. Say the foreign key is called car_id in the user's model. However, for some reason, when I do u = User.find(1) u.car_id = 1 u.save! I get ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed: Password can't be blank My guess is that this has something to do with authlogic. I do not have validation on password on the user's model. This is the migration for the user's table. def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.string :email t.string :first_name t.string :last_name t.string :crypted_password t.string :password_salt t.string :persistence_token t.string :single_access_token t.string :perishable_token t.integer :login_count, :null => false, :default => 0 # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.integer :failed_login_count, :null => false, :default => 0 # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.datetime :last_request_at # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.datetime :current_login_at # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.datetime :last_login_at # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.string :current_login_ip # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.string :last_login_ip # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.timestamps end end And later I added the car_id column to it. def self.up add_column :users, :user_id, :integer end Is there anyway for me to turn off this validation?

    Read the article

  • How do I use a custom authentication mechanism for a Java web application with Spring Security?

    - by Adam
    Hi, I'm working on a project to convert an existing Java web application to use Spring Web MVC. As a part of this I will migrate the existing log-on/log-off mechanism to use Spring Security. The idea at this stage is to replicate the existing functionality and replace only the web layer, leaving the service classes and objects in place. The required functionality is simple. Access is controlled to URLs and to access certain pages the user must log on. Authentication is performed with a simple username and password along with an extra static piece of information that comes from the login page. There is no notion of a role: once a user has logged on they have access to all of the pages. Behind the scenes, the service layer has a class with a simple authentication method: doAuthenticate(String username, String password, String info) throws ServiceException An exception is thrown if the login fails. I'd like to leave this existing service object that does the authentication intact but to "plug it into" the Spring Security mechanism. Can somebody suggest the best approach to take for this please? Naturally, I'd like to take the path of least resistance and leave the work where possible to Spring... Thanks in advance, Adam.

    Read the article

  • Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

    - by Mike Davis
    There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

    Read the article

  • Using Javascript to submit forms.

    - by Razor Storm
    I am using a jQuery function to submit a form when a certain button is pressed, however this seems to have no effect on the form. My code is as follows: HTML: <form id="loginForm" action="" method="POST"> <input class="loginInput" type="hidden" name="action" value="login"> <input id="step1a" class="loginInput" type="text" name="username"> <input id="step2a" class="loginInput" type="password" name="password" style="display:none;"> <input id="step1b" class="loginSubmit" onclick="loginProceed();" type="button" name="submit" value="Proceed" title="Proceed" /> <input id="step2b" class="loginSubmit" onclick="submitlogin();" type="button" value="Validate" title="Validate" style="display:none;" /> Javascript: function submitlogin() { $("form").submit(); } However, when I press the button, absolutely nothing occurs. PS. This function may seem meaningless since I can just use a input type="submit" but I originally intended this to have some more functionality, I stripped the function to its bare bones for testing purposes.

    Read the article

  • Getting rid of the Expires node (xml) in the WS security header

    - by Nick
    From the snippet below, how do i get rid of the (xml node) <wsu:Expires> tag? I want to either get rid of it or pass it in as a empty element. It is a read only property in objClient.RequestSoapContext.Security.Timestamp.Expires. Any help is appreciated. <wsse:Security soap:mustUnderstand="1"> <wsu:Timestamp wsu:Id="Timestamp-26d09d54-10ef-4141-aa2c-11c75ed8172b"> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> <wsu:Expires>2010-03-08T15:37:16Z</wsu:Expires> </wsu:Timestamp> <wsse:UsernameToken xmlns:wsu="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-wssecurity-utility-1.0.xsd" wsu:Id="SecurityToken-7c9b80ec-98e9-4e41-af2e-ad37070cbdd3"> <wsse:Username>bubba</wsse:Username> <wsse:Password Type="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-username-token-profile-1.0#PasswordDigest">dsfdfsdfsfs+-dasdf=</wsse:Password> <wsse:Nonce>QQ3C4HUfO2CyGx7HrjzMzg==</wsse:Nonce> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security>

    Read the article

  • Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

    - by Gishu
    As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

    Read the article

  • Getting a connection from a Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 fails with message "User name property miss

    - by Abel Morelos
    I have a standalone application that needs to connect to a Sybase database via a datasource, I'm trying to connect using getConnection() and get the connection from this Sybase datasource which is hosted in WAS 6.1, sadly I'm getting an error JZ004 - Sybase(R) jConnect for JDBC(TM) Programmer's Reference: SQL Exception and Warning Messages JZ004 error message is: User name property missing in DriverManager.getConnection(..., Properties) Action: Provide the required user property. As you can see, this is not a connectivity (so we can discard JNDI or lookup problems), but rather a configuration problem. For my Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 I have set up the proper authentication alias (Component-managed Authentication Alias), and I know the credentials are alright, "Test Connection" is successful for this datasource. Somebody had a similar problem and was because of the authentication alias- http://forum.springsource.org/showthread.php?t=39915 Next, I tried calling getConnection() but now I provided the credentials like getConnection(user, password)... and this time it worked!!! So I suspect that somehow WAS 6.1 is not picking or taking the authentication info I set in the datasource as mentioned before. If you think that maybe getConnection(user, password) should be OK for my case, well, that's not the case since I have a requirement to keep the credentials in the server, the standalone application only needs to know the JNDI information to lookup the datasource. Please let me know if have faced a similar problem, or what would you suggest me to do. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • searching for a programming platform with hot code swap

    - by Andreas
    I'm currently brainstorming over the idea how to upgrade a program while it is running. (Not while debugging, a "production" system.) But one thing that is required for it, is to actually submit the changed source code or compiled byte code into the running process. Pseudo Code var method = typeof(MyClass).GetMethod("Method1"); var content = //get it from a database (bytecode or source code) SELECT content FROM methods WHERE id=? AND version=? method.SetContent(content); At first, I want to achieve the system to work without the complexity of object-orientation. That leads to the following requirements: change source code or byte code of function drop functions add new functions change the signature of a function With .NET (and others) I could inject a class via an IoC and could thus change the source code. But the loading would be cumbersome, because everything has to be in an Assembly or created via Emit. Maybe with Java this would be easier? The whole ClassLoader is replacable, I think. With JavaScript I could achieve many of the goals. Simply eval a new function (MyMethod_V25) and assign it to MyClass.prototype.MyMethod. I think one can also drop functions somehow with "del" Which general-purpose platform can handle such things?

    Read the article

  • Configurating JOOMLA's e-mail notification for new account

    - by Dion
    Dear all... I'm using Joomla 1.5 to create a local site for my office. The site will be accessed locally via intranet, and my PC will be the localhost for the site. I'm using a Login pluggin, so that anyone who wanted to enter the site should create an account. In JOOMLA, all user who created their account for the first time will receive a notification e-mail like : "Hello pras, You have been added as a User to Information Center by an Administrator. This e-mail contains your username and password to log in to http://localhost/yaddayadda/ Username: hadisuryo.prasetio Password: xxxx Please do not respond to this message as it is automatically generated and is for information purposes only." but if the user click the URL in the mail, which is, "localhost/yaddayadda/" they will not be directed to my site, but to their own PC's localhost.... My question is : How can I Modified the e-mail or the site configuration so that the URL will not be "localhost/yaddayadda/" anymore, but will be "(My-IP adress)/yaddayadda" I'm not going to host my site to a web hosting service, just using my PC as a host. I've been trying to trace on each config and .ini files...it seems that i have to do something with the "JURI" function or the "$mosConfig_live_site" on the backlink.php file $mosConfig_absolute_path = JPATH_SITE; $mosConfig_live_site = JURI :: base(); $url_array = explode('/', $_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']); Can anyone give me assistance ? Thank You

    Read the article

  • Use the output of logs in the execution of a program

    - by myle
    When I try to create a specific object, the program crashes. However, I use a module (mechanize) which logs useful information just before the crash. If I had somehow this information available I could avoid it. Is there any way to use the information which is logged (when I use the function set_debug_redirects) during the normal execution of the program? Just to be a bit more specific, I try to emulate the login behavior in a webpage. The program crashes because it can't handle a specific Following HTTP-EQUIV=REFRESH to <omitted_url>. Given this url, which is available in the logs but not as part of the exception which is thrown, I could visit this page and complete successfully the login process. Any other suggestions that may solve the problem are welcomed. It follows the code so far. SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL = "https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginBox?service=adsense&ltmpl=login&ifr=true&rm=hide&fpui=3&nui=15&alwf=true&passive=true&continue=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&followup=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&hl=en_US" def init_browser(): # Browser br = mechanize.Browser() # Cookie Jar cj = cookielib.LWPCookieJar() br.set_cookiejar(cj) # Browser options br.set_handle_equiv(True) br.set_handle_gzip(False) br.set_handle_redirect(True) br.set_handle_referer(True) br.set_handle_robots(True) br.set_handle_refresh(mechanize._http.HTTPRefreshProcessor(), max_time=30.0, honor_time=False) # Want debugging messages? #br.set_debug_http(True) br.set_debug_redirects(True) #br.set_debug_responses(True) return br def adsense_login(login, password): br = init_browser() r = br.open(SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL) html = r.read() # Select the first (index zero) form br.select_form(nr=0) br.form['Email'] = login br.form['Passwd'] = password br.submit() req = br.click_link(text='click here to continue') try: # this is where it crashes br.open(req) except HTTPError, e: sys.exit("post failed: %d: %s" % (e.code, e.msg)) return br

    Read the article

  • Java : HTTP POST Request

    - by SpunkerBaba
    I have to do a http post request to a web-service for authenticating the user with username and password. The Web-service guy gave me following information to construct HTTP Post request. POST /login/dologin HTTP/1.1 Host: webservice.companyname.com Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Content-Length: 48 id=username&num=password&remember=on&output=xml The XML Response that i will be getting is <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <login> <message><![CDATA[]]></message> <status><![CDATA[true]]></status> <Rlo><![CDATA[Username]]></Rlo> <Rsc><![CDATA[9L99PK1KGKSkfMbcsxvkF0S0UoldJ0SU]]></Rsc> <Rm><![CDATA[b59031b85bb127661105765722cd3531==AO1YjN5QDM5ITM]]></Rm> <Rl><![CDATA[[email protected]]]></Rl> <uid><![CDATA[3539145]]></uid> <Rmu><![CDATA[f8e8917f7964d4cc7c4c4226f060e3ea]]></Rmu> </login> This is what i am doing HttpPost postRequest = new HttpPost(urlString); How do i construct the rest of the parameters?

    Read the article

  • First run notepad with my.cfg and only then start the service

    - by Viv Coco
    Hi all, I install along with my application: 1) a service that starts and stops my application as needed 2) a conf file that contains actually the user data and that will be shown to the user to modify as needed (I give the user the chance to change it by running notepad.exe with my conf file during installing) The problem is that in my code the service I install starts before the user had the chance to modify the conf file. What I would like is: 1) first the user gets the chance to change the conf file (run notepad.exe with the conf file) 2) only afterward start the service <Component Id="MyService.exe" Guid="GUID"> <File Id="MyService.exe" Source="MyService.exe" Name="MyService.exe" KeyPath="yes" Checksum="yes" /> <ServiceInstall Id='ServiceInstall' DisplayName='MyService' Name='MyService' ErrorControl='normal' Start='auto' Type='ownProcess' Vital='yes'/> <ServiceControl Id='ServiceControl' Name='MyService' Start='install' Stop='both' Remove='uninstall'/> </Component> <Component Id="my.conf" Guid="" NeverOverwrite="yes"> <File Id="my.cfg" Source="my.cfg_template" Name="my.cfg" KeyPath="yes" /> </Component> [...] <Property Id="NOTEPAD">Notepad.exe</Property> <CustomAction Id="LaunchConfFile" Property="NOTEPAD" ExeCommand="[INSTALLDIR]my.cfg" Return="ignore" Impersonate="no" Execute="deferred"/> <!--Run only on installs--> <InstallExecuteSequence> <Custom Action='LaunchConfFile' Before='InstallFinalize'>(NOT Installed) AND (NOT UPGRADINGPRODUCTCODE)</Custom> </InstallExecuteSequence> What am I doing wrong in the above code and how could I change it in order to achieve what I need? (first run notepad with my conf file and then start the service). TIA, Viv

    Read the article

  • WMI Query Script as a Job

    - by Kenneth
    I have two scripts. One calls the other with a list of servers as parameters. The second query is designed to execute a WMI query. When I run it manually, it does this perfectly. When I try to run it as a job it hangs forever and I have to remove it. For the sake of space here is the relevant part of the calling script: ProcessServers.ps1 Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList $sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 param($sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance) $password = get-content C:\SQLPS\auth.txt | convertto-securestring $credentials = new-object -typename System.Management.Automation.PSCredential -argumentlist "DOMAIN\MYUSER",$password [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName('Microsoft.SqlServer.SMO') $box_id = 0; if ($sqlsrv.length -eq 0) { write-output "No data passed" break } function getinfo { param( [string]$svr, [string]$inst ) "Entered GetInfo with: $svr,$inst" $cs = get-wmiobject win32_operatingsystem -computername $svr -credential $credentials -authentication 6 -Verbose -Debug | select Name, Model, Manufacturer, Description, DNSHostName, Domain, DomainRole, PartOfDomain, NumberOfProcessors, SystemType, TotalPhysicalMemory, UserName, Workgroup write-output "WMI Results: $cs" } getinfo $server $instance write-output "Complete" Executed as a job it will show as 'running' forever: PS C:\sqlps> Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList DBSERVER,LOGDB,SERVER01,SERVER01 Id Name State HasMoreData Location Command -- ---- ----- ----------- -------- ------- 21 Job21 Running True localhost param($sqlsrv,$destdb,... GAC Version Location --- ------- -------- True v2.0.50727 C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo\10.0.0.0__89845dcd8080cc91\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo.dll getinfo MSDCHR01 MSDCHR01 Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01 The last output I ever get is the 'Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01'. If I run it manually like so: PS C:\sqlps> .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 DBSERVER LOGDB SERVER01 SERVER01 The WMI query executes just as expected. I am trying to determine why this is, or at least a useful way to trap errors from within jobs. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I read the properties of an object that I assign to the Session in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by quakkels
    Hey all, I'm trying my hand at creating a session which stores member information which the application can use to reveal certain navigation and allow access to certain pages and member role specific functionality. I've been able to assign my MemberLoggedIn object to the session in this way: //code excerpt start... MemberLoggedIn loggedIn = new MemberLoggedIn(); if (computedHash == member.Hash) { loggedIn.ID = member.ID; loggedIn.Username = member.Username; loggedIn.Email = member.Email; loggedIn.Superuser = member.Superuser; loggedIn.Active = member.Active; Session["loggedIn"] = loggedIn; } else if (ModelState.IsValid) { ModelState.AddModelError("Password", "Incorrect Username or Password."); } return View(); That works great. I then can send the properties of Session["loggedIn"] to the View in this way: [ChildActionOnly] public ActionResult Login() { if (Session["loggedIn"] != null) ViewData.Model = Session["loggedIn"]; else ViewData.Model = null; return PartialView(); } In the Partial View I can reference the session data by using Model.Username or Model.Superuser. However, it doesn't seem to work that way in the controller or in a custom Action Filter. Is there a way to get the equivalent of Session["loggedIn"].Username?

    Read the article

  • Passing Key-Value pair to a COM method in C#

    - by Sinnerman
    Hello, I have the following problem: I have a project in C# .Net where I use a third party COM component. So the problem is that the above component has a method, which takes a string and a number of key-value pairs as arguments. I already managed to call that method through JavaScript like that: var srcName srcName = top.cadView.addSource( 'Database', { driver : 'Oracle', host : '10.10.1.123', port : 1234, database : 'someSID', user : 'someuser', password : 'somepass' } ) if ( srcName != '' ) { ... } ... and it worked perfectly well. However I have no idea how to do the same using C#. I tried passing the pairs as Dictionary and Struct/Class but it throws me a "Specified cast is not valid." exception. I also tried using Hashtable like that: Hashtable args = new Hashtable(); args.Add("driver", "Oracle"); args.Add("host", "10.10.1.123"); args.Add("port", 1234); args.Add("database", "someSID"); args.Add("user", "someUser"); args.Add("password", "samePass"); String srcName = axCVCanvas.addSource("Database", args); and although it doesn't throw an exception it still won't do the job, writing me in a log file [ Error] [14:38:33.281] Cad::SourceDB::SourceDB(): missing parameter 'driver' Any help will be appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Problem in encoding and decoding the string in Iphone sdk

    - by monish
    HI Guys, Here I am having a problem In encoding/decoding the strings. Actually I had a string which I am encoding it using the base64.which was working fine. And now I need to decode the string that was encoded before and want to print it. I code I written as: I imported the base64.h and base64.m files into my application which contains the methods as: + (NSData *) dataWithBase64EncodedString:(NSString *) string; - (id) initWithBase64EncodedString:(NSString *) string; - (NSString *) base64EncodingWithLineLength:(unsigned int) lineLength; And the code in my view controller where I encode the String is: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { // Custom initialization userName = @"Sekhar"; password = @"Bethalam"; } return self; } -(void)reloadView { NSString *authStr = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@:%@",userName,password]; NSData *authData = [authStr dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSString *authValue = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [authData base64EncodingWithLineLength:30]]; NSLog(authValue); //const char *str = authValue; //NSString *decStr = [StringEncryption DecryptString:authValue]; //NSLog(decStr); //NSData *decodeData = [NSData decode:authValue]; //NSString *decStr = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",decodeData]; //NSStr //NSLog(decStr); } -(void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [self reloadView]; } and now I want to decode the String that I encoded. But I dont know How to do that.can anyone suggest me with code how to get it. Anyone's help will be much appreciated. Thank you, Monish.

    Read the article

  • Algorithm possible amounts (over)paid for a specific price, based on denominations

    - by Wrikken
    In a current project, people can order goods delivered to their door and choose 'pay on delivery' as a payment option. To make sure the delivery guy has enough change customers are asked to input the amount they will pay (e.g. delivery is 48,13, they will pay with 60,- (3*20,-)). Now, if it were up to me I'd make it a free field, but apparantly higher-ups have decided is should be a selection based on available denominations, without giving amounts that would result in a set of denominations which could be smaller. Example: denominations = [1,2,5,10,20,50] price = 78.12 possibilities: 79 (multitude of options), 80 (e.g. 4*20) 90 (e.g. 50+2*20) 100 (2*50) It's international, so the denominations could change, and the algorithm should be based on that list. The closest I have come which seems to work is this: for all denominations in reversed order (large=>small) add ceil(price/denomination) * denomination to possibles baseprice = floor(price/denomination) * denomination; for all smaller denominations as subdenomination in reversed order add baseprice + (ceil((price - baseprice) / subdenomination) * subdenomination) to possibles end for end for remove doubles sort Is seems to work, but this has emerged after wildly trying all kinds of compact algorithms, and I cannot defend why it works, which could lead to some edge-case / new countries getting wrong options, and it does generate some serious amounts of doubles. As this is probably not a new problem, and Google et al. could not provide me with an answer save for loads of pages calculating how to make exact change, I thought I'd ask SO: have you solved this problem before? Which algorithm? Any proof it will always work?

    Read the article

  • Http Digest Authentication, Handle different browser char-sets...

    - by user160561
    Hi all, I tried to use the Http Authentication Digest Scheme with my php (apache module) based website. In general it works fine, but when it comes to verification of the username / hash against my user database i run into a problem. Of course i do not want to store the user´s password in my database, so i tend to store the A1 hashvalue (which is md5($username . ':' . $realm . ':' . $password)) in my db. This is just how the browser does it too to create the hashes to send back. The Problem: I am not able to detect if the browser does this in ISO-8859-1 fallback (like firefox, IE) or UTF-8 (Opera) or whatever. I have chosen to do the calculation in UTF-8 and store this md5 hash. Which leads to non-authentication in Firefox and IE browsers. How do you solve this problem? Just do not use this auth-scheme? Or Store a md5 Hash for each charset? Force users to Opera? (Terms of A1 refer to the http://php.net/manual/en/features.http-auth.php example.) (for digest access authentication read the according wikipedia entry)

    Read the article

  • Flex AS3: ComboBox set visible to false doesn't hide

    - by jolierouge
    I have a combobox in a view that receives information about application state changes, and then is supposed to show or hide it's children based on the whole application state. It receives state change messages, it traces the correct values, it does what it's supposed to do, however, it just doesn't seem to work. Essentially, all it needs to do is hide a combobox during one state, and show it again during another state. Here is the code: public function updateState(event:* = null):void { trace("Project Panel Updating State"); switch(ApplicationData.getSelf().currentState) { case 'login': this.visible = false; break; case 'grid': this.visible = true; listProjects.includeInLayout = false; listProjects.visible = false; trace("ListProjects: " + listProjects.visible); listLang.visible = true; break; default: break; } } Here is the MXML: <mx:HBox> <mx:Button id="btnLoad" x="422" y="84" label="Load" enabled="true" click="loadProject();"/> <mx:ComboBox id="listProjects" x="652" y="85" editable="true" change="listChange()" color="#050CA8" fontFamily="Arial" /> <mx:Label x="480" y="86" text="Language:" id="label3" fontFamily="Arial" /> <mx:ComboBox id="listLang" x="537" y="84" editable="true" dataProvider="{langList}" color="#050CA8" fontFamily="Arial" width="107" change="listLangChange(event)"/> <mx:CheckBox x="830" y="84" label="Languages in English" id="langCheckbox" click='toggleLang()'/> </mx:HBox>

    Read the article

  • how to push a string address to stack with assembly, machine code

    - by Yigit
    Hi all, I am changing minesweeper.exe in order to have an understanding of how code injection works. Simply, I want the minesweeper to show a message box before starting. So, I find a "cave" in the executable and then define the string to show in messagebox and call the messagebox. Additionally of course, I have to change the value at module entry point of the executable and first direct it to my additional code, then continue its own code. So at the cave what I do; "hello starbuck",0 push 0 //arg4 of MessageBoxW function push the address of my string //arg3, must be title push the address of my string //arg2, must be the message push 0 //arg1 call MessageBoxW ... Now since the memory addresses of codes in the executable change everytime it is loaded in the memory, for calling the MessageBoxW function, I give the offset of the address where MessageBoxW is defined in Import Address Table. For instance, if MessageBoxW is defined at address1 in the IAT and the instruction just after call MessageBoxW is at address2 instead of writing call MessageBoxW, I write call address2 - address1. So my question is, how do I do it for pushing the string's address to the stack? For example, if I do these changes via ollydbg, I give the immediate address of "hello starbuck" for pushing and it works. But after reloading the executable or starting it outside of ollydbg, it naturally fails, since the immediate addresses change. Thanks in advance, Yigit.

    Read the article

  • Monitor web sites visited using Internet Explorer, Opera, Chrome, Firefox and Safari in Python

    - by Zachary Brown
    I am working on a project for work and have seemed to run into a small problem. The project is a similar program to Web Nanny, but branded to my client's company. It will have features such as website blocking by URL, keyword and web activity logs. I would also need it to be able to "pause" downloads until an acceptable username and password is entered. I found a script to monitor the URL visited in Internet Explorer (shown below), but it seems to slow the browser down considerably. I have not found any support or ideas onhow to implement this in other browsers. So, my questions are: 1). How to I monitor other browser activity / visited URLs? 2). How do I prevent downloading unless an acceptable username and password is entered? from win32com.client import Dispatch,WithEvents import time,threading,pythoncom,sys stopEvent=threading.Event() class EventSink(object): def OnNavigateComplete2(self,*args): print "complete",args stopEvent.set() def waitUntilReady(ie): if ie.ReadyState!=4: while 1: print "waiting" pythoncom.PumpWaitingMessages() stopEvent.wait(.2) if stopEvent.isSet() or ie.ReadyState==4: stopEvent.clear() break; time.clock() ie=Dispatch('InternetExplorer.Application',EventSink) ev=WithEvents(ie,EventSink) ie.Visible=1 ie.Navigate("http://www.google.com") waitUntilReady(ie) print "location",ie.LocationName ie.Navigate("http://www.aol.com") waitUntilReady(ie) print "location",ie.LocationName print ie.LocationName,time.clock() print ie.ReadyState

    Read the article

  • Are there any libraries for showing diffs between two web pages?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I am looking for a library in any language--preferably PHP though--that will display the difference between two web pages. The differences can be displayed side-by-side, all in one document, or in any other creative way. Examples of what this would look like: http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_pLC3YDiv_I4/SBZPYQMDsPI/AAAAAAAAADk/wUMxK307jXw/s1600-h/wikipediadiff.jpg http://www.rohland.co.za/wp-content/uploads/2009/10/html_diff_output_text.PNG I am NOT looking for raw code diffing, like this: http://thinkingphp.org/img/code_coverage_html_diff_view.png. I do NOT want to show the difference between two sets of HTML. I want to show differences in rendered, WYSIWYG form. Every solution I tried suffered from one or more of the following problems: If I change the attribute of an element (eg. change [table border="1"] to [table border="2"]), then I'll have an extra table tag in the output (eg. [table border="1"][table border="1"][tr][td]...). And, one table tag will have a del tag around it, while the other will have an ins tag around it, and that will obviously cause problems. If I change [html][body][b]some content here[/b][/body][/html] to [html][body][i]some other content here[/i][/body][/html] then it looks like [html][body][b][del]original[/del][i][ins]new[/ins] content here[/b][/i][/body][/html] I'm looking for out-of-the-box ideas. Any ideas are welcome.

    Read the article

  • is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution on sql server

    - by Arj
    Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

    Read the article

  • A way to specify a different host in an SSH tunnel from the host in use

    - by Tom
    I am trying to setup an SSH tunnel to access Beanstalk (to bypass an annoying proxy server). I can get this to work, but with one caveat: I have to map my Beanstalk host URL (username.svn.beanstalkapp.com) in my hosts file to 127.0.0.1 (and use the ip in place of the domain when setting up the tunnel). The reason (I think) is that I am creating the tunnel using the local SSH instance (on Snow Leopard) and if I use localhost or 127.0.0.1 when talking to Beanstalk, it rejects the authorisation credentials. I believe this is because Beanstalk use the hostname specified in a request to determine which account the username / password combination should be checked against. If localhost is used, I think this information is missing (in some manner which Beanstalk requires) from the requests. At the moment I dig the IP for username.svn.beanstalkapp.com, map username.svn.beanstalkapp.com to 127.0.0.1 in my hosts file, then for the tunnel I use the command: ssh -L 8080:ip:443 -p 22 -l tom -N 127.0.0.1 I can tell Subversion that the repo. is located at: https://username.svn.beanstalkapp.com:8080/repo-name This uses my tunnel and the username and password are accepted. So, my question is if there is an option when setting up the SSH tunnel which would mean I wouldn't have to use my hosts file workaround?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453  | Next Page >