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  • Fast response on first Socket I/O request but slow every other time when communicating with remote serial port

    - by GreenGodot
    I'm using sockets to pass Serial commands to a remote device. And the response to that request is sent back and printed out. However, I am having a problem in that the first time it is instant but the rest of the time it can take up to 20 seconds to receive a reply. I think the problem is with my attempt at threading but I am not entirely sure. new Thread() { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("opened"); try { isSocketRetrieving.setText("Opening Socket"); socket = new Socket(getAddress(), getRemotePort())); DataOutput = new DataOutputStream(socket .getOutputStream()); inFromServer = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(socket .getInputStream())); String line = ""; isSocketRetrieving.setText("Reading Stream......"); while ((line = inFromServer.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println(line); if (line.contains(getHandshakeRequest())) { DataOutput.write((getHandshakeResponse()toString() + "\r").getBytes()); DataOutput.flush(); DataOutput .write((getCommand().toString() + "\r").getBytes()); DataOutput.flush(); int pause = (line.length()*8*1000)/getBaud(); sleep(pause); } else if (line.contains(readingObject .getExpected())) { System.out.println(line); textArea.append("value = " + line + "\n"); textAreaScroll.revalidate(); System.out.println("Got Value"); break; } } System.out.println("Ended"); try { inFromServer.close(); DataOutput.close(); socket.close(); isSocketRetrieving.setText("Socket is inactive..."); rs232Table.addMouseListener(listener); interrupt(); join(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread exited"); } } catch (NumberFormatException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } catch (UnknownHostException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } }.start();

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • Refactoring Singleton Overuse

    - by drharris
    Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

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  • NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate crashes when called on a searched tableview

    - by Zachary Fisher
    So I nearly have this thing figured out, but I am stumbling over the NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate when I update my managedObjectContext from a detail view that was entered after searching the table. I have a tableview generated from a core data set. I can enter a detail view from this table and make changes without any issue. I can also search the table and make changes MOST of the time without any issues. However, on certain objects, I get an "Exception was caught during Core Data change processing". I tracked this down to the NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate. I'm using the following code: case NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate: if (searchTermForSegue) { NSLog(@"index info:%@.....",theIndexPath); NSLog(@"crashing at the next line"); [self fetchedResultsController:self.searchFetchedResultsController configureCell:[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:theIndexPath] atIndexPath:theIndexPath]; break; } else { [self fetchedResultsController:controller configureCell:[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:theIndexPath] atIndexPath:theIndexPath]; } break; When the table is not being searched, it runs the else method and that works 100% of the time. When the table is being searched, it runs the if (searchTermForSegue) and that works most of the time, but not always. I logged theIndexPath and discovered the following: When it works, theIndexPath is correctly reporting the objects indexPat, when it fails, the wrong theIndexPath has been called. For example, if I do a search that narrows the tableView to 3 sections, 2 items in first, 1 in second, 1 in third, I get the following nslog: On first object: index info:<NSIndexPath 0xb0634d0> 2 indexes [0, 0]..... on second object: index info:<NSIndexPath 0xb063e70> 2 indexes [0, 1]..... on third object: index info:<NSIndexPath 0xb042880> 2 indexes [1, 0]..... but on the last object: index info:<NSIndexPath 0x9665790> 2 indexes [2, 17]..... it should be calling [2, 0] Note that I am simply updating these objects, not deleting them or adding new ones. Any thoughts would be appreciated!

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  • RaphaelJS HTML5 Library pathIntersection() bug or alternative optimisation (screenshots)

    - by user1236048
    I have a chart generated using RaphaelJS library. It is just on long path: M 50 122 L 63.230769230769226 130 L 76.46153846153845 130 L 89.6923076923077 128 L 102.92307692307692 56 L 116.15384615384615 106 L 129.3846153846154 88 L 142.6153846153846 114 L 155.84615384615384 52 L 169.07692307692307 30 L 182.3076923076923 62 L 195.53846153846152 130 L 208.76923076923077 74 L 222 130 L 235.23076923076923 66 L 248.46153846153845 102 L 261.6923076923077 32 L 274.9230769230769 130 L 288.15384615384613 130 L 301.38461538461536 32 L 314.6153846153846 86 L 327.8461538461538 130 L 341.07692307692304 70 L 354.30769230769226 130 L 367.53846153846155 102 L 380.7692307692308 120 L 394 112 L 407.2307692307692 68 L 420.46153846153845 48 L 433.6923076923077 92 L 446.9230769230769 128 L 460.15384615384613 110 L 473.38461538461536 78 L 486.6153846153846 130 L 499.8461538461538 56 L 513.0769230769231 116 L 526.3076923076923 80 L 539.5384615384614 58 L 552.7692307692307 40 L 566 130 L 579.2307692307692 94 L 592.4615384615385 64 L 605.6923076923076 122 L 618.9230769230769 98 L 632.1538461538461 120 L 645.3846153846154 70 L 658.6153846153845 82 L 671.8461538461538 76 L 685.0769230769231 124 L 698.3076923076923 110 L 711.5384615384615 94 L 724.7692307692307 130 L 738 130 L 751.2307692307692 66 L 764.4615384615385 118 L 777.6923076923076 70 L 790.9230769230769 130 L 804.1538461538461 44 L 817.3846153846154 130 L 830.6153846153845 36 L 843.8461538461538 92 L 857.076923076923 130 L 870.3076923076923 76 L 883.5384615384614 130 L 896.7692307692307 60 L 910 88 Also below these chart I have a jqueryUI slider of the same width (860px) and centered with the chart. I want when I move the slider to move a dot on the chart accordingly with the slider position. See attached screenshot: As you can see it seems to work fine. I've implemented this behaviour using the pathIntersection() method. On the slide event at each ui.value (x coordinate) I intersect my chartPath (the one from above) with a vertical straight line at the x coordinate. But still there are some problems. One of them is that it runs very hard, and it kinda freezes sometimes.. and very weird sometimes it doesn't seem to intersect at all even it should.. I'll example below 2 cases I identified: M 499.8461538461538 0 L 499.8461538461538 140 M 910 0 L 910 140 Could you please explain why this intersect behaviour happens (it should return a dot).. and the worst part it seems like it happens randomly.. if I use another chartdata. Also if you can identify another (better) solution to syncronise the slider position with the dot on the chart.. would be perfect. I thought about using Element.getPointAtLength(length), but I don't know how. I think I should save the pathSegments and for each to compute the start Length and the finish Length.

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  • MySQL Split Time Ranges into Smaller Chunks

    - by Neren
    Hello all, I've recently been tasked with finishing a PHP/MySQL web app when the developer quit last week. I'm no MySQL expert, so I apologize if this is an intensely simple question. I've searched SO for the better part of two days trying to find a relatively easy solution to my problem, which is as follows. Problem in a Nutshell: I have a MySQL table full of start and end datetime (GMT -5) & UNIX Timestamp values covering durations of irregular length and need to break/split/divide them into more-regular time chunks (5 minutes). I'm not after a count of row entries per time chunk/bucket/period, if that makes any sense. Data Example: started, ended, started_UNIX, ended_UNIX 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288033953, 1288036029 What I'm hoping to get: 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 1288033953, 1288037700 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 1288037700, 1288038000 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 1288038000, 1288038300 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 1288038300, 1288038600 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 1288038600, 1288038900 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 1288038900, 1288039200 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 1288039200, 1288039500 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288039500, 1288039629 If you're interested, here's the quick & dirty on the app and why I need the data: App overview: The application receives very simple POST requests generated by a basic sensor device when its input pins go to ground, which submits an INSERT query to the database where MySQL records a timestamp (as started). When the input pins return from a grounded state, the device submits a different POST request, which causes the PHP app to submit an UPDATE query, where a modification time timestamp is inserted (as ended). My employer recently changed the periodic reporting unit of measure from Seconds "On" Per Day to Seconds "On" Per 5 Minute Interval. I had formulated what I thought would be a workable solution, but when I looked at it on paper, it looked like Rube Goldberg's nightmare constructed in MySQL, so that was out. Any suggestions as to how to break these spans into 5 minute blocks? Keeping it all in MySQL would be my preference, though I'll take any suggestions. Thank you for any suggestions you may have. Again, I apologize if this is a no-brainer. If I ask any additional questions of the SO collective consciousness in the future, I'll try to word them a bit better. Any help will be happily welcomed. Thanks, Neren

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  • Problem using delete[] (Heap corruption) when implementing operator+= (C++)

    - by Darel
    I've been trying to figure this out for hours now, and I'm at my wit's end. I would surely appreciate it if someone could tell me when I'm doing wrong. I have written a simple class to emulate basic functionality of strings. The class's members include a character pointer data (which points to a dynamically created char array) and an integer strSize (which holds the length of the string, sans terminator.) Since I'm using new and delete, I've implemented the copy constructor and destructor. My problem occurs when I try to implement the operator+=. The LHS object builds the new string correctly - I can even print it using cout - but the problem comes when I try to deallocate the data pointer in the destructor: I get a "Heap Corruption Detected after normal block" at the memory address pointed to by the data array the destructor is trying to deallocate. Here's my complete class and test program: #include <iostream> using namespace std; // Class to emulate string class Str { public: // Default constructor Str(): data(0), strSize(0) { } // Constructor from string literal Str(const char* cp) { data = new char[strlen(cp) + 1]; char *p = data; const char* q = cp; while (*q) *p++ = *q++; *p = '\0'; strSize = strlen(cp); } Str& operator+=(const Str& rhs) { // create new dynamic memory to hold concatenated string char* str = new char[strSize + rhs.strSize + 1]; char* p = str; // new data char* i = data; // old data const char* q = rhs.data; // data to append // append old string to new string in new dynamic memory while (*p++ = *i++) ; p--; while (*p++ = *q++) ; *p = '\0'; // assign new values to data and strSize delete[] data; data = str; strSize += rhs.strSize; return *this; } // Copy constructor Str(const Str& s) { data = new char[s.strSize + 1]; char *p = data; char *q = s.data; while (*q) *p++ = *q++; *p = '\0'; strSize = s.strSize; } // destructor ~Str() { delete[] data; } const char& operator[](int i) const { return data[i]; } int size() const { return strSize; } private: char *data; int strSize; }; ostream& operator<<(ostream& os, const Str& s) { for (int i = 0; i != s.size(); ++i) os << s[i]; return os; } // Test constructor, copy constructor, and += operator int main() { Str s = "hello"; // destructor for s works ok Str x = s; // destructor for x works ok s += "world!"; // destructor for s gives error cout << s << endl; cout << x << endl; return 0; }

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  • KeyNotFound Exception in Dictionary(of T)

    - by C Patton
    I'm about ready to bang my head against the wall I have a class called Map which has a dictionary called tiles. class Map { public Dictionary<Location, Tile> tiles = new Dictionary<Location, Tile>(); public Size mapSize; public Map(Size size) { this.mapSize = size; } //etc... I fill this dictionary temporarily to test some things.. public void FillTemp(Dictionary<int, Item> itemInfo) { Random r = new Random(); for(int i =0; i < mapSize.Width; i++) { for(int j=0; j<mapSize.Height; j++) { Location temp = new Location(i, j, 0); int rint = r.Next(0, (itemInfo.Count - 1)); Tile t = new Tile(new Item(rint, rint)); tiles[temp] = t; } } } and in my main program code Map m = new Map(10, 10); m.FillTemp(iInfo); Tile t = m.GetTile(new Location(2, 2, 0)); //The problem line now, if I add a breakpoint in my code, I can clearly see that my instance (m) of the map class is filled with pairs via the function above, but when I try to access a value with the GetTile function: public Tile GetTile(Location location) { if(this.tiles.ContainsKey(location)) { return this.tiles[location]; } else { return null; } } it ALWAYS returns null. Again, if I view inside the Map object and find the Location key where x=2,y=2,z=0 , I clearly see the value being a Tile that FillTemp generated.. Why is it doing this? I've had no problems with a Dictionary such as this so far. I have no idea why it's returning null. and again, when debugging, I can CLEARLY see that the Map instance contains the Location key it says it does not... very frustrating. Any clues? Need any more info? Help would be greatly appreciated :)

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  • random quote generator with php, ajax and mysql

    - by fusion
    i've tried using this code and this to make a random quote generator, but it doesn't display anything. my questions are: what is wrong with my code? in the above tut, the quote is generated on a button click, i'd like a random quote to be displayed every 30 mins automatically. how do i do this? //////////////////////// quote.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <script src="ajax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <body> <!–create the div for the quotes land–> <div id="quote"><strong>this</strong></div> <div><a style="cursor:pointer" onclick="run_query();">Next quote …</a></div> </body> </html> ///////////////////// quote.php: <?php include 'config.php'; // 'text' is the name of your table that contains // the information you want to pull from $rowcount = mysql_query("select count(*) as rows from quotes"); // Gets the total number of items pulled from database. while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($rowcount)) { $max = $row["rows"]; } // Selects an item's index at random $rand = rand(1,$max)-1; $result = mysql_query("select * from quotes limit $rand, 1"); $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); $randomOutput = $row['storedText']; echo '<p>' . $randomOutput . '</p>'; //////////// ajax.js: var xmlHttp function run_query() { xmlHttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlHttp==null) { alert ("This browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } // end if var url="quote.php"; xmlHttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlHttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlHttp.send(null); } //end function function stateChanged(){ if (xmlHttp.readyState==4 || xmlHttp.readyState=="complete"){ document.getElementById("quote").innerHTML=xmlHttp.responseText; } //end if } //end function function GetXmlHttpObject() { var xmlHttp=null; try { // For these browsers: Firefox, Opera 8.0+, Safari xmlHttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); }catch (e){ //For Internet Explorer try{ xmlHttp=new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { xmlHttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } } return xmlHttp; } //end function

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  • How to solve Only Web services with a [ScriptService] attribute on the class definition can be called from script

    - by NevenHuynh
    I attempt to use webservice return POCO class generated from entity data model as JSON when using Jquery AJAX call method in webservice. but I have problem with error "Only Web services with a [ScriptService] attribute on the class definition can be called from script", and getting stuck in it, Here is my code : namespace CarCareCenter.Web.Admin.Services { /// <summary> /// Summary description for About /// </summary> [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.ComponentModel.ToolboxItem(false)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. // [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class About : System.Web.Services.WebService { [ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] [WebMethod] public static Entities.Category getAbout() { Entities.Category about = new Entities.Category(); using (var context = new CarCareCenterDataEntities()) { about = (from c in context.Categories where c.Type == "About" select c).SingleOrDefault(); } return about; } } } aspx page : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', dataType: 'json', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', url: '/Services/About.asmx/getAbout', data: '{}', success: function (response) { var aboutContent = response.d; alert(aboutContent); $('#title-en').val(aboutContent.Name); $('#title-vn').val(aboutContent.NameVn); $('#content-en').val(aboutContent.Description); $('#content-vn').val(aboutContent.DescriptionVn); $('#id').val(aboutContent.CategoryId); }, failure: function (message) { alert(message); }, error: function (result) { alert(result); } }); $('#SaveChange').bind('click', function () { updateAbout(); return false; }); $('#Reset').bind('click', function () { getAbout(); return false; }) }); function updateAbout() { var abt = { "CategoryId": $('#id').val(), "Name": $('#title-en').val(), "NameVn": $('#title-vn').val(), "Description": $('#content-en').val(), "DescriptionVn": $('#content-vn').val() }; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "AboutManagement.aspx/updateAbout", data: JSON.stringify(abt), contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { var aboutContent = response.d; $('#title-en').val(aboutContent.Name); $('#title-vn').val(aboutContent.NameVn); $('#content-en').val(aboutContent.Description); $('#content-vn').val(aboutContent.DescriptionVn); }, failure: function (message) { alert(message); }, error: function (result) { alert(result); } }); } </script> Do any approaches to solve it ? Please help me . Thanks

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  • What web platform is right for me?

    - by egervari
    I've been looking at web frameworks like Rails, Grails, etc. I'm used to doing applications in Spring Framework with Hibernate... and I want something more productive. One of the things I realized is that while some of the things in Grails is sexy, there are some serious problems with it. Grails' controllers: 1) are implemented awfully. They don't seem to be able to extend from super classes at runtime. I tried this to add base actions and helper methods, and this seems to cause grails to blow up. 2) are based on an obsolete request parameters model (rather than form backing objects, which are much nicer). 3) are hard to test. Command objects are treated totally differently... and it's actually MUCH harder to write the test than it is to write the controller code. 4) Command objects operate totally differently. They are pre-validated and bound, which causes a lot of inconsistencies than basic parameter model. 5) Command objects are not reusable, and it's a pain in the rear to reuse most of the stuff from the domain classes, like constraints and fields. This is TRIVIAL to do in basic Spring. Why the hell was it not trivial to do in Grails? 6) The scaffolding that is generated is pure crap. It doesn't generalize inserts and updates... and it actually copy/pastes a pile of code in two views: create.gsp and edit.gsp. The views themselves are gargantuan piles of doggie do-do. This is further compounded by the fact that it uses low-level parameters and not objects. Integration tests are 30x slower than a Spring integration test. It is disgusting. Some mocking tests are so hard to write and aren't guaranteed to work when it's deployed, that I think it discourages fast, tdd test cycles. Most things seem to screw up grails while it's running, like adding a taglib, or anything really. The server restart problem wasn't solved at all. I'm starting to think going with Spring/Hibernate/Java is the only way to go. While there is a pretty big cost at startup, I know it'll eventually smooth out. It sucks I can't use a language like Scala... because idiomatically, it is so incompatible with Hibernate. This app is also not a run-of-the-mill UI over a database. It's got some of that, but it's not going to be a slouch. I am deathly scared of Grails now because of how crap it is in the Controller layer. Suggestions on what I can do?

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  • Muti-Schema Privileges for a Table Trigger in an Oracle Database

    - by sisslack
    I'm trying to write a table trigger which queries another table that is outside the schema where the trigger will reside. Is this possible? It seems like I have no problem querying tables in my schema but I get: Error: ORA-00942: table or view does not exist when trying trying to query tables outside my schema. EDIT My apologies for not providing as much information as possible the first time around. I was under the impression this question was more simple. I'm trying create a trigger on a table that changes some fields on a newly inserted row based on the existence of some data that may or may not be in a table that is in another schema. The user account that I'm using to create the trigger does have the permissions to run the queries independently. In fact, I've had my trigger print the query I'm trying to run and was able to run it on it's own successfully. I should also note that I'm building the query dynamically by using the EXECUTE IMMEDIATE statement. Here's an example: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER MAIN_SCHEMA.EVENTS BEFORE INSERT ON MAIN_SCHEMA.EVENTS REFERENCING OLD AS OLD NEW AS NEW FOR EACH ROW DECLARE rtn_count NUMBER := 0; table_name VARCHAR2(17) := :NEW.SOME_FIELD; key_field VARCHAR2(20) := :NEW.ANOTHER_FIELD; BEGIN CASE WHEN (key_field = 'condition_a') THEN EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'select count(*) from OTHER_SCHEMA_A.'||table_name||' where KEY_FIELD='''||key_field||'''' INTO rtn_count; WHEN (key_field = 'condition_b') THEN EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'select count(*) from OTHER_SCHEMA_B.'||table_name||' where KEY_FIELD='''||key_field||'''' INTO rtn_count; WHEN (key_field = 'condition_c') THEN EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'select count(*) from OTHER_SCHEMA_C.'||table_name||' where KEY_FIELD='''||key_field||'''' INTO rtn_count; END CASE; IF (rtn_count > 0) THEN -- change some fields that are to be inserted END IF; END; The trigger seams to fail on the EXECUTE IMMEDIATE with the previously mentioned error. EDIT I have done some more research and I can offer more clarification. The user account I'm using to create this trigger is not MAIN_SCHEMA or any one of the OTHER_SCHEMA_Xs. The account I'm using (ME) is given privileges to the involved tables via the schema users themselves. For example (USER_TAB_PRIVS): GRANTOR GRANTEE TABLE_SCHEMA TABLE_NAME PRIVILEGE GRANTABLE HIERARCHY MAIN_SCHEMA ME MAIN_SCHEMA EVENTS DELETE NO NO MAIN_SCHEMA ME MAIN_SCHEMA EVENTS INSERT NO NO MAIN_SCHEMA ME MAIN_SCHEMA EVENTS SELECT NO NO MAIN_SCHEMA ME MAIN_SCHEMA EVENTS UPDATE NO NO OTHER_SCHEMA_X ME OTHER_SCHEMA_X TARGET_TBL SELECT NO NO And I have the following system privileges (USER_SYS_PRIVS): USERNAME PRIVILEGE ADMIN_OPTION ME ALTER ANY TRIGGER NO ME CREATE ANY TRIGGER NO ME UNLIMITED TABLESPACE NO And this is what I found in the Oracle documentation: To create a trigger in another user's schema, or to reference a table in another schema from a trigger in your schema, you must have the CREATE ANY TRIGGER system privilege. With this privilege, the trigger can be created in any schema and can be associated with any user's table. In addition, the user creating the trigger must also have EXECUTE privilege on the referenced procedures, functions, or packages. Here: Oracle Doc So it looks to me like this should work, but I'm not sure about the "EXECUTE privilege" it's referring to in the doc.

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  • PHP, MySQL - My own version of SALT (I call salty) - Login Issue

    - by Fabio Anselmo
    Ok I wrote my own version of SALT I call it salty lol don't make fun of me.. Anyway the registration part of my script as follows is working 100% correctly. //generate SALTY my own version of SALT and I likes me salt.. lol function rand_string( $length ) { $chars = "ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUWXYZabcdefghijklmnopqrstuwxyz1234567890"; $size = strlen( $chars ); for( $i = 0; $i < $length; $i++ ) { $str .= $chars[ rand( 0, $size - 1 ) ]; } return $str; } $salty = rand_string( 256 ); //generate my extra salty pw $password = crypt('password'); $hash = $password . $salty; $newpass = $hash; //insert the data in the database include ('../../scripts/dbconnect.php'); //Update db record with my salty pw ;) // TESTED WITH AND WITHOUT SALTY //HENCE $password and $newpass mysql_query("UPDATE `Register` SET `Password` = '$password' WHERE `emailinput` = '$email'"); mysql_close($connect); However my LOGIN script is failing. I have it setup to TEST and echo if its login or not. It always returns FAILED. I entered the DB and changed the crypted salty pw to "TEST" and I got a SUCCESS. So my problem is somewhere in this LOGIN script I assume. Now I am not sure how to implement my $Salty in this. But also be advised that even without SALTY (just using crypt to store my pass) - I was still unable to perform a login successfully. And if you're gonna suggest i use blowfish - note that my webhost doesn't have it supported and i don't know how to install it. here's my login script: if (isset($_POST['formsubmitted'])) { include ('../../scripts/dbconnect.php'); $username = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['username']); $password = crypt(mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['password'])); $qry = "SELECT ID FROM Register WHERE emailinput='$username' AND Password='$password'"; $result = mysql_query($qry); if(mysql_num_rows($result) > 0) { echo 'SUCCESS'; //START SESSION } else { echo 'FAILED'; //YOU ARE NOT LOGGED IN } } So what's wrong with this login? Why isn't it working just using the crypt/storing only crypt? How can i make it work storing both the crypt and randomly generated SALTY :) ? Ty advance

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  • Is a Multi-DAL Approach the way to go here?

    - by Krisc
    Working on the data access / model layer in this little MVC2 project and trying to think things out to future projects. I have a database with some basic tables and I have classes in the model layer that represent them. I obviously need something to connect the two. The easiest is to provide some sort of 'provider' that can run operations on the database and return objects. But this is for a website that would potentially be used "a lot" (I know, very general) so I want to cache results from the data layer and keep the cache updated as new data is generated. This question deals with how best to approach this problem of dual DALS. One that returns cached data when possible and goes to the data layer when there is a cache miss. But more importantly, how to integrate the core provider (thing that goes into database) with the caching layer so that it too can rely on cached objects rather than creating new ones. Right now I have the following interfaces: IDataProvider is used to reach the database. It doesn't concern itself with the meaning of the objects it produces, but simply the way to produce them. interface IDataProvider{ // Select, Update, Create, et cetera access IEnumerable<Entry> GetEntries(); Entry GetEntryById(int id); } IDataManager is a layer that sits on top of the IDataProvider layer and manages the cache interface IDataManager : IDataProvider{ void ClearCache(); } Note that in practice the IDataManager implementation will have useful helper functions to add objects to their related cache stores. (In the future I may define other functions on the interface) I guess what I am looking for is the best way to approach a loop back from the IDataProvider implementations so that they can access the cache. Or a different approach entirely may be in order? I am not very interested in 3rd party products at the moment as I am interested in the design of these things much more than this specific implementation. Edit: I realize the title may be a bit misleading. I apologize for that... not sure what to call this question.

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  • Jquery Var Returned As object

    - by alex
    I'm trying to pass a variable from one function to another, but the var elmId is being returned as an object and giving an error. When we click on any of the generated divs we should be able to change the size of the div by choosing a width / height value from the drop down menus. I'm trying to pass the clicked div id which is elmId to function displayVals but it is not working. If we replace "#"+elmId in the function displayVals with the actual id of the first div created with is "#divid1" then it works. Why is the value of var elmId not being passed to displayVals <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.7/themes/base/jquery-ui.css" type="text/css" media="all" /> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.4/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.7/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <style> .aaa{width:100px; height:100px; background-color:#ccc;} button{width:100px; height:20px;} </style> <button class="idiv">div</button> <select id="width"> <option>100px</option> <option>200px</option> <option>300px</option> </select> <select id="height"> <option>100px</option> <option>200px</option> <option>300px</option> </select> <p></p> <script type="text/javascript"> var divId = 1; $("button").click(function(){ var elm = $('<div id=divid' + divId + ' class=aaa></div>'); elm.appendTo('p'); divId++; }); $("p").click(function(e){ var elmType = $(e.target)[0].nodeName, elmId = $(e.target)[0].id; return displayVals(elmId); }); function displayVals(elmId) { var iwidth = $("#width").val(); var iheight = $("#height").val(); $("#"+elmId).css({width:iwidth, height:iheight}); console.log(elmId); } $("select").change(displayVals); displayVals(); </script>

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  • Generate navigation from a multi-dimensional array

    - by rg88
    The question: How do I generate navigation, allowing for applying different classes to different sub-items, from a multi-dimensional array? Here is how I was doing it before I had any need for multi-level navigation: Home Pics About and was generated by calling nav(): function nav(){ $links = array( "Home" => "home.php", "Pics" => "pics.php", "About" => "about.php" ); $base = basename($_SERVER['PHP_SELF']); foreach($nav as $k => $v){ echo buildLinks($k, $v, $base); } } Here is buildLinks(): function buildLinks($name, $page, $selected){ if($selected == $page){ $theLink = "<li class=\"selected\"><a href=\"$page\">$name</a></li>\n"; } else { $thelink = "<li><a href=\"$page\">$name</a></li>\n"; } return $thelink; } My question, again: how would I achieve the following nav (and notice that the visible sub navigation elements are only present when on that specific page): Home something1 something2 Pics About and... Home Pics people places About What I've tried From looking at it it would seem that some iterator in the SPL would be a good fit for this but I'm not sure how to approach this. I have played around with RecursiveIteratorIterator but I'm not sure how to apply a different style to only the sub menu items and also how to only show these items if you are on the correct page. I built this array to test with but don't know how to work with the submenu1 items individually: $nav = array( array( "Home" => "home.php", "submenu1" => array( "something1"=>"something1.php", "something2" => "something2.php") ), array("Pics" => "pics.php"), array("About" => "about.php") ); The following will print out the lot in order but how do I apply, say a class name to the submenu1 items or only show them when the person is on, say, the "Home" page? $iterator = new RecursiveIteratorIterator(new RecursiveArrayIterator($nav)); foreach($iterator as $key=>$value) { echo $key.' -- '.$value.'<br />'; }

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  • NHibernate - Saving simple parent-child relationship generates unnecessary selects with assigned id

    - by Alice
    Entities: public class Parent { virtual public long Id { get; set; } virtual public string Description { get; set; } virtual public ICollection<Child> Children { get; set; } } public class Child { virtual public long Id { get; set; } virtual public string Description { get; set; } virtual public Parent Parent { get; set; } } Mappings: public class ParentMap : ClassMap<Parent> { public ParentMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.Description); HasMany(x => x.Children) .AsSet() .Inverse() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } } public class ChildMap : ClassMap<Child> { public ChildMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.Description); References(x => x.Parent) .Not.Nullable() .Cascade.All(); } } and using (var session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { var parent = new Parent { Id = 1 }; parent.Children = new HashSet<Child>(); var child1 = new Child { Id = 2, Parent = parent }; var child2 = new Child { Id = 3, Parent = parent }; parent.Children.Add(child1); parent.Children.Add(child2); session.Save(parent); transaction.Commit(); } this codes generates following sql NHibernate: SELECT child_.Id, child_.Description as Descript2_0_, child_.Parent_id as Parent3_0_ FROM [Child] child_ WHERE child_.Id=@p0;@p0 = 2 [Type: Int64 (0)] NHibernate: SELECT child_.Id, child_.Description as Descript2_0_, child_.Parent_id as Parent3_0_ FROM [Child] child_ WHERE child_.Id=@p0;@p0 = 3 [Type: Int64 (0)] NHibernate: INSERT INTO [Parent] (Description, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1);@p0 = NULL[Type: String (4000)], @p1 = 1 [Type: Int64 (0)] NHibernate: INSERT INTO [Child] (Description, Parent_id, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1, @p2);@p0 = NULL [Type: String (4000)], @p1 = 1 [Type: Int64 (0)], @p2 = 2 [Type:Int64 (0)] NHibernate: INSERT INTO [Child] (Description, Parent_id, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1, @p2);@p0 = NULL [Type: String (4000)], @p1 = 1 [Type: Int64 (0)], @p2 = 3 [Type:Int64 (0)] Why are these two selects generated and how can I remove it?

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  • Assign value to HTML textbox from JSP

    - by prakash_d22
    Hello I am creating a web page to add some information about given product.I need to enter id,name,description and image as information.I need the id to be auto generated.I am using jsp and database as access.I am fetching the count(*)+1 value from database and assigning to my html text box but its showing as null.can i get some help? Code: <body> <%@page import="java.sql.*"%> <%! String no; %> <% try{ Class.forName("sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver"); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:odbc:pd"); ResultSet rs = null; Statement st = con.createStatement(); String sql = ("select count(*)+1 from products"); st.executeUpdate(sql); while (rs.next()) { no=rs.getString("count(*)+1"); } rs.close(); st.close(); con.close(); } catch(Exception e){} %> <Form name='Form1' action="productcode.jsp" method="post"> <table width="1024" border="0"> <tr> <td width="10">&nbsp;</td> <td width="126">Add Product: </td> <td width="277">&nbsp;</td> <td width="583">&nbsp;</td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td>Product Id:</td> <td><label> <input type="text" name="id" value="<%= no%>"/> </label></td> <td>&nbsp;</td> .... and so on

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  • Android Thumbnail Loading Problem

    - by y ramesh rao
    I'm using a thumbnail loader in my project the one mentioned below. The problem is that the it loads all the thumbnails properly except the ones who's size is of about 40K. When our back end is giving that sort of thumbnails are not generated and sometimes this eventually leads to a Crash too. What m I supposed to do with this ? public class ThumbnailManager { private final Map<String, Bitmap> drawableMap; public static Context context; private Resources res; private int thumbnail_size; public ThumbnailManager() { drawableMap = new HashMap<String, Bitmap >(); res = new Resources(context.getAssets(), null, null); thumbnail_size = res.getInteger(R.ThumbnailManager.THUMBNAIL_SIZE); } public Bitmap fetchBitmap(String urlString) { if(drawableMap.containsKey(urlString)) { return (drawableMap.get(urlString)); } //Log.d(getClass().getSimpleName(), " Image URL :: "+ urlString); try { InputStream is = fetch(urlString); android.util.Log.v("ThumbnailManager", "ThumbnailManager " + urlString); drawableMap.put(urlString, BitmapFactory.decodeStream(is));//Bitmap.createScaledBitmap(BitmapFactory.decodeStream(is), thumbnail_size, thumbnail_size, false)); return drawableMap.get(urlString); } catch(Exception e) { android.util.Log.v("EXCEPTION", "EXCEPTION" + urlString); return null; } } public void fetchBitmapOnThread(final String urlString, final ImageView imageView) { if(drawableMap.containsKey(urlString)) { imageView.setImageBitmap(drawableMap.get(urlString)); return; } if(urlString.compareTo("AUDIO") == 0) { Bitmap audioThumb = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(context.getResources(), R.drawable.timeline_audio_thumb); drawableMap.put(urlString, Bitmap.createScaledBitmap(audioThumb, thumbnail_size, thumbnail_size, false)); imageView.setImageBitmap(drawableMap.get(urlString)); return; } final Handler handler = new Handler() { public void handleMessage(Message message) { imageView.setImageBitmap((Bitmap) message.obj); } }; Thread thread = new Thread() { public void run() { Bitmap urlBitmap = fetchBitmap(urlString); Message message = handler.obtainMessage(1, urlBitmap); handler.sendMessage(message); } }; thread.start(); } public InputStream fetch(String urlString) throws IOException, MalformedURLException { final URL url = new URL(urlString); final URLConnection conn = url.openConnection(); HttpURLConnection httpConn = (HttpURLConnection) conn; httpConn.setAllowUserInteraction(true); httpConn.setInstanceFollowRedirects(true); httpConn.setRequestMethod("GET"); httpConn.connect(); return(conn.getInputStream()); } }

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  • How to display image from server (newest-oldest) to a new php page?

    - by Jben Kaye
    i have a form that create images and save it on a folder in the server. What i need to do is to display ALL created images to another page, the newest on the top and so that the oldest is at the bottom. i have a form called formdisplay.php but it's just displaying a broken image and not newest to oldest. hope you can help me with this. really need to get this working. thanks in advance for your help. i have read the posts but none of those worked for me. Pull dedicated images from folder - show image + filename (strip part of filename + file-extension) How can I display latest uploaded image first? (PHP+CSS) getting images from the server and display them Displaying images from folder in php display image from server embedding php in html formcreatesave.php imagecopymerge($im, $img2, 10, 350, 0, 0, imagesx($img2), imagesy($img2), 100); $date_created = date("YmdHis");//get date created $img_name = "-img_entry.jpg"; //the file name of the generated image $img_newname = $date_created . $img_name; //datecreated+name $img_dir =dirname($_SERVER['SCRIPT_FILENAME']) ."/". $img_newname; //the location to save imagejpeg($im, $img_dir , 80); //function to save the image with the name and quality imagedestroy($im); formdisplay.php $dir = '/home3/birdieon/public_html/Amadeus/uploader/uploader'; $base_url = 'http://birdieonawire.com/Amadeus/uploader/uploader/20131027024705-img_entry.jpg'; $newest_mtime = 0; $show_file = 'BROKEN'; if ($handle = opendir($dir)) { while (false !== ($file = readdir($handle))) { if (($file != '.') && ($file != '..')) { $mtime = filemtime("$dir/$file"); if ($mtime > $newest_mtime) { $newest_mtime = $mtime; $show_file = "$base_url/$file"; } } } } print '<img src="' .$show_file. '" alt="Image Title Here">'; please feel free to edit my code. thanks :)

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  • Problem with character encoding on email sent via PHP?

    - by cosgrove
    Hi everybody, Having some trouble sending properly formatted HTML e-mail from a PHP script. I am running PHP 5.3.0 and Apache 2.2.11 on Windows XP Professional. The output looks like this: Agent Summary for Support on Tuesday April 20 2010=20 Ext. Name Time Volume 137 Agent Name 01:27:25 1 138 =09 00:00:00 0 139 =09 00:00:00 0 You see the =20 and =09 in there? If you look at the HTML you also see = signs being turned into =3D. I figure this is a character encoding issue as I read the following at Wikipedia: ISO-8859-1 and Windows-1252 confusion It is very common to mislabel text data with the charset label ISO-8859-1, even though the data is really Windows-1252 encoded. In Windows-1252, codes between 0x80 and 0x9F are used for letters and punctuation, whereas they are control codes in ISO-8859-1. Many web browsers and e-mail clients will interpret ISO-8859-1 control codes as Windows-1252 characters in order to accommodate such mislabeling but it is not standard behaviour and care should be taken to avoid generating these characters in ISO-8859-1 labeled content. This looks like the problem but I don't know how to fix. My code looks like this: ob_start(); report_queue_summary($yesterday,$yesterday,$first_extension,$last_extension,$queue); $body_report = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $body_footer = "This is an automatically generated e-mail."; $message = new Mail_mime(); $html = $body_header.$body_report.$body_footer; $message->setHTMLBody($html); $body = $message->get(); $extraheaders = array("From"=>"***redacted***","To"=>$recipient, "Subject"=>"Agent Summary for $yesterday [$queue]", "Content-type"=>"text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"); $headers = $message->headers($extraheaders); # setup e-mail; $host = "*********"; $port = "26"; $username = "*****"; $password = "*****"; # Send e-mail $smtp = Mail::factory('smtp', array ('host' => $host, 'port' => $port, 'auth' => true, 'username' => $username, 'password' => $password)); $mail = $smtp->send($recipient, $extraheaders, $body); if (PEAR::isError($mail)) { echo("" . $mail->getMessage() . ""); } else { echo("Message successfully sent!"); } Is the problem that I'm using output buffering?

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  • Is MySQL Replication Appropriate in this case?

    - by MJB
    I have a series of databases, each of which is basically standalone. It initially seemed like I needed a replication solution, but the more I researched it, the more it felt like replication was overkill and not useful anyway. I have not done MySQL replication before, so I have been reading up on the online docs, googling, and searching SO for relevant questions, but I can't find a scenario quite like mine. Here is a brief description of my issue: The various databases almost never have a live connection to each other. They need to be able to "sync" by copying files to a thumb drive and then moving them to the proper destination. It is OK for the data to not match exactly, but they should have the same parent-child relationships. That is, if a generated key differs between databases, no big deal. But the visible data must match. Timing is not critical. Updates can be done a week later, or even a month later, as long as they are done eventually. Updates cannot be guaranteed to be in the proper order, or in any order for that matter. They will be in order from each database; just not between databases. Rather than a set of master-slave relationships, it is more like a central database (R/W) and multiple remote databases (also R/W). I won't know how many remote databases I have until they are created. And the central DB won't know that a database exists until data arrives from it. (To me, this implies I cannot use the method of giving each its own unique identity range to guarantee uniqueness in the central database.) It appears to me that the bottom line is that I don't want "replication" so much as I want "awareness". I want the central database to know what happened in the remote databases, but there is no time requirement. I want the remote databases to be aware of the central database, but they don't need to know about each other. WTH is my question? It is this: Does this scenario sound like any of the typical replication scenarios, or does it sound like I have to roll my own? Perhaps #7 above is the only one that matters, and given that requirement, out-of-the-box replication is impossible. EDIT: I realize that this question might be more suited to ServerFault. I also searched there and found no answers to my questions. And based on the replication questions I did find both on SO and SF, it seemed that the decision was 50-50 over where to put my question. Sorry if I guessed wrong.

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  • How do make dependency generation work for C? (Also..decode this sed/make statement!)

    - by Derek
    Hi all. I have a make build system that I am trying to decipher that someone else wrote. I am getting an error when I run it on a redhat system, but not when I run it on my solaris system. The versions of gmake are the same major revision (one off on minor revision). This is for building a C project, and the make system has a global Makefile.global that is inherited by each directory's local Makefile The Makefile.global has all the targets in it, starting with all: $(LIB) $(BIN) where LIB builds libs and BIN builds binaries. jumping down the targets I have $(LIB) : $(GEN_LIB) $(GEN_LIB) : $(GEN_DEPS) $(GEN_OBJS) $(AR) $(ARFLAGS) $(GEN_LIB) $(GEN_OBJS) $(GEN_DEPS) : @set -e; rm -f $@; \ $(CC) $(CDEP_FLAG) $(CFLAGS) $(INCDIRS) `basename $@ | sed 's/\.d/\.c/' | sed 's,^,$(HOME_SRC)/,'` | sed 's,\(.*\)\.o: ,$(GEN_OBJDIR)/\1.o $@ :,g' > [email protected] ; \ cat [email protected] > $@ ; \ cat [email protected] | cut -d: -f2 | grep '\.h' | sed 's,\.h,.h :,g' >> $@ ; \ rm [email protected] $(GEN_OBJS) : $(CC) $(CFLAGS) $(INCDIRS) -c $(*F).c -lmpi -o $@ I think these are all the relevant targets I need to include to answer my question. Definitions of those variables: CC = icc CDEP_FLAG = -M CFLAGS = various compiler flags ifdef type flags INCDIRS = include directory where all .h files are GEN_OBJDIR = /lib/objs HOME_SRC = . GEN_LIB = lib/$(LIB) GEN_DEPDIR=/lib/deps GEN_DEPS = $(addprefix $(GEN_DEPDIR)/,$(addsuffix .d,$(basename $(OBJS)))) I think this has everything covered you need. Basically self explanatory from the names. Now as best I can tell, this is generating in /lib/deps a .d file that has the object and source dependencies in it. In other words, for the utilities.a library, I will get a utils.o and utils.c dependency stack, all in the file utils.d There is some syntax error that is being generated in that file I think, because I get the following error: ../lib/deps/util.d:25: *** target pattern contains no '%'. Stop. gmake[2]: *** [all] Error 2 gmake[1]: *** [all] Error 2 gmake: *** [all] Error 2 I am not sure if my error is in the dependency generation, or some further down part, like the object generation target? If you need further info, let me know, I will add to post

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  • Using Selenium-IDE with a rich Javascript application?

    - by Darien
    Problem At my workplace, we're trying to find the best way to create automated-tests for an almost wholly javascript-driven intranet application. Right now we're stuck trying to find a good tradeoff between: Application code in reusable and nest-able GUI components. Tests which are easily created by the testing team Tests which can be recorded once and then automated Tests which do not break after small cosmetic changes to the site XPath expressions (or other possible expressions, like jQuery selectors) naively generated from Selenium-IDE are often non-repeatable and very fragile. Conversely, having the JS code generate special unique ID values for every important DOM-element on the page... well, that is its own headache, complicated by re-usable GUI components and IDs needing to be consistent when the test is re-run. What successes have other people had with this kind of thing? How do you do automated application-level testing of a rich JS interface? Limitations We are using JavascriptMVC 2.0, hopefully 3.0 soon so that we can upgrade to jQuery 1.4.x. The test-making folks are mostly trained to use Selenium IDE to directly record things. The test leads would prefer a page-unique HTML ID on each clickable element on the page... Training the testers to write or alter special expressions (such as telling them which HTML class-names are important branching points) is a no-go. We try to make re-usable javascript components, but this means very few GUI components can treat themselves (or what they contain) as unique. Some of our components already use HTML ID values in their operation. I'd like to avoid doing this anyway, but it complicates the idea of ID-based testing. It may be possible to add custom facilities (like a locator-builder or new locator method) to the Selenium-IDE installation testers use. Almost everything that goes on occurs within a single "page load" from a conventional browser perspective, even when items are saved Current thoughts I'm considering a system where a custom locator-builder (javascript code) for Selenium-IDE will talk with our application code as the tester is recording. In this way, our application becomes partially responsible for generating a mostly-flexible expression (XPath or jQuery) for any given DOM element. While this can avoid requiring more training for testers, I worry it may be over-thinking things.

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  • How to use jaxb_commons plugins from maven

    - by user243155
    I'm trying to use a jaxb plugin to insert a interface into a choice element generating the classes from maven. The problem is that I can't seem to figure out how to do so from maven, the repository isn't clear from the documentation and the only example (bellow) doesn't work, it seems to ignore the plugin (maven reports no error about not finding it) or the plugin doesn't have all the adds-ons currently listed in the project documentation: <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet.jaxb2.maven2</groupId> <artifactId>maven-jaxb2-plugin</artifactId> <version>0.6.1</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>generate</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <generatePackage>br.com.wonder.nfe.xml</generatePackage> <args> <arg>-Xifins</arg> </args> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet.jaxb2_commons</groupId> <artifactId>basic</artifactId> <version>0.4.1.5</version> </plugin> </plugins> </configuration> </plugin> I have these in the root pom: <pluginRepositories> <pluginRepository> <id>maven2-repository.dev.java.net</id> <url>http://download.java.net/maven/2</url> </pluginRepository> <pluginRepository> <id>maven-repository.dev.java.net</id> <name>Java.net Maven 1 Repository (legacy)</name> <url>http://download.java.net/maven/1</url> <layout>legacy</layout> </pluginRepository> </pluginRepositories> Running that gives: Error while setting CmdLine options '[-Xifins, -episode, /home/administrador/JavaApp/wnfe3/wnfe-ejb/target/generated-sources/xjc/META-INF/sun-jaxb.episode]'! Embedded error: unrecognized parameter -Xifins

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