Search Results

Search found 13332 results on 534 pages for 'compatibility level'.

Page 447/534 | < Previous Page | 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454  | Next Page >

• How do I get into a career as a programmer/development DBA?

  - by markle976

  About 8-9 years ago I started getting into programming as a hobby. I started with my TI-86 calculator, and then moved into using Visual Basic. After about a year I started playing around with HTML and JavaScript. Then I discovered Flash; I programmed with Actionscript 2.0 for about 2 years which lead me to start using Coldfusion. After a while I realized that A) I am not a designer, and B) with the way that things were going with AJAX, .NET, and PHP there wasn’t much future in Coldfusion/Actionscript. I had been working mostly as an administrative assistant, but about 3-4 years ago I got a position where I would be doing some web development, and assisting the system admin with supporting windows desktop PCs. I have gotten some decent experience over the past few years, but it has been spread out in somewhat disparate areas: I spend about 40% of my time writing PHP/MySQL and HTML/CSS, etc. I spend about 20% of my time helping users with PC questions. I spend about 20% of my time doing administrative things (mail-merges, excel, etc). I spend about 20% of my time managing / creating reports from our Access Database. I have also taught myself many things on my own, and now have a beginner’s level understanding of things like: Windows Server, Java, Linux, Objective-C, SQL Server, C#, C++, Ruby, Mac OSX, VBA, VBScript, and basic IP networks. I feel like I am in a bit of a rut – I want to get my career moving, but I am not sure what I need to do. If I practice with C# and SQL Server Express for a year will that be enough to get me in the door somewhere? Would it be easier to get a position if I teach myself Linux/Apache since I have more experience with PHP/MySQL?

  Read the article

• What's the idiomatic way of inheriting data access functionality as well as object properties?

  - by Knut Arne Vedaa

  Suppose the following (slightly pseudo-code for brevity): class Basic { String foo; } class SomeExtension extends Basic { String bar; } class OtherExtension extends Basic { String baz; } class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { } } class SomeExtensionService extends BasicService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { } } class OtherExtensionService extends BasicService { OtherExtension getOtherExtension() { } } What would be the most idiomatic, elegant way to implement the get-() service methods with the most possible code reuse? Obviously you could do it like this: class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { Basic basic = new Basic(); basic.setFoo("some kind of foo"); return basic; } } class SomeExtensionService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { SomeExtension someExtension = new SomeExtension; Basic basic = getBasic(); someExtension.setFoo(basic.getFoo()); someExtension.setBar("some kind of bar"); return someExtension; } } But this would be ugly if Basic has a lot of properties, and also you only need one object, as SomeExtension already inherits Basic. However, BasicService can obviously not return a SomeExtension object. You could also have the get methods not create the object themselves, but create it at the outermost level and pass it to the method for filling in the properties, but I find that too imperative. (Please let me know if the question is confusingly formulated.)

  Read the article

• Why would certain browsers request all pages on my ASP.Net Web site twice?

  - by Deane

  Firefox is issuing duplicate requests to my ASP.Net web site. It will request a page, get the response, then immediately issue the same request again (well, almost the same -- see below). This happens on every page of this particular Web site (but not any others). IE does not do this, but Chrome also does this. I have confirmed that there is no Location header in the response, and no Javascript or meta tag in the page which would cause the page to be re-requested (if any of these were true, IE would be re-requesting pages as well). I have confirmed this behavior on multiple Firefox installs on multiple machines. Versions vary, but all are 3.x. The only difference between the two requests is the Accepts header. For the first request, it looks like this: Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 For the second request, it looks like this: Accept: */* The Content-Type response header in all cases is: Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Something else odd -- even though Firefox requests the page twice, it uses the first response and discards the second. I put a counter on a page that increments with every request. I can watch the responses come back (via the Charles proxy). Firefox will get a "1" the first time, and a "2" the second time. Yet it will display the "1," for some reason. Chrome exhibits this exact same behavior. I suspect it's a protocol-level issue, given the difference in Accepts header, but I've never seen this before.

  Read the article

• "Special case" records for foreign key constraints

  - by keithjgrant

  Let's say I have a mysql table, called foo with a foreign key option_id constrained to the option table. When I create a foo record, the user may or may not have selected an option, and 'no option' is a viable selection. What is the best way to differentiate between 'null' (i.e. the user hasn't made a selection yet) and 'no option' (i.e. the user selected 'no option')? Right now, my plan is to insert a special record into the option table. Let's say that winds up with an id of 227 (this table already has a number of records at this point, so '1' isn't available). I have no need to access this record at a database level, and it would act as nothing more than a placeholder that the foreign key in the foo table can reference. So do I just hard-code '227' in my codebase when I'm creating 'foo' records where the user has selected 'no option'? The hard-coded id seems sloppy, and leaves room for error as the code is maintained down the road, but I'm not really sure of another approach.

  Read the article

• Preventing a heavy process from sinking in the swap file

  - by eran

  Our service tends to fall asleep during the nights on our client's server, and then have a hard time waking up. What seems to happen is that the process heap, which is sometimes several hundreds of MB, is moved to the swap file. This happens at night, when our service is not used, and others are scheduled to run (DB backups, AV scans etc). When this happens, after a few hours of inactivity the first call to the service takes up to a few minutes (consequent calls take seconds). I'm quite certain it's an issue of virtual memory management, and I really hate the idea of forcing the OS to keep our service in the physical memory. I know doing that will hurt other processes on the server, and decrease the overall server throughput. Having that said, our clients just want our app to be responsive. They don't care if nightly jobs take longer. I vaguely remember there's a way to force Windows to keep pages on the physical memory, but I really hate that idea. I'm leaning more towards some internal or external watchdog that will initiate higher-level functionalities (there is already some internal scheduler that does very little, and makes no difference). If there were a 3rd party tool that provided that kind of service is would have been just as good. I'd love to hear any comments, recommendations and common solutions to this kind of problem. The service is written in VC2005 and runs on Windows servers.

  Read the article

• Android OS 2.2 Permissions: I have absolutely no idea why this simple piece of code doesn't work. Wh

  - by Kevin

  I'm just playing around with some code. I create an Activity and simply do something like this: long lo = currentTimeMillis(); System.out.println(lo); lo *= 3; System.out.println(lo); SystemClock.setCurrentTimeMillis(lo); System.out.println( currentTimeMillis() ); Yes, in my AndroidManifest.xml, I've added: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.SET_TIME"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.SET_TIME_ZONE"></uses-permission> Nothing changes. The SystemClock is never reset...it just keeps on ticking. The error that I'm getting just says that the permission "SET_TIME" was not granted to the program. Protection level 3. The permissions are there...and in the API for 2.2 it says that this feature is supported now. I have no idea what I'm doing wrong. If android.content.Intent; comes into play, please explain. I don't really understand what the idea behind intents! Thanks for any help!

  Read the article

• How do I serialise a graph in Java without getting StackOverflowException?

  - by Tim Cooper

  I have a graph structure in java, ("graph" as in "edges and nodes") and I'm attempting to serialise it. However, I get "StackOverflowException", despite significantly increasing the JVM stack size. I did some googling, and apparently this is a well known limitation of java serialisation: that it doesn't work for deeply nested object graphs such as long linked lists - it uses a stack record for each link in the chain, and it doesn't do anything clever such as a breadth-first traversal, and therefore you very quickly get a stack overflow. The recommended solution is to customise the serialisation code by overriding readObject() and writeObject(), however this seems a little complex to me. (It may or may not be relevant, but I'm storing a bunch of fields on each edge in the graph so I have a class JuNode which contains a member ArrayList<JuEdge> links;, i.e. there are 2 classes involved, rather than plain object references from one node to another. It shouldn't matter for the purposes of the question). My question is threefold: (a) why don't the implementors of Java rectify this limitation or are they already working on it? (I can't believe I'm the first person to ever want to serialise a graph in java) (b) is there a better way? Is there some drop-in alternative to the default serialisation classes that does it in a cleverer way? (c) if my best option is to get my hands dirty with low-level code, does someone have an example of graph serialisation java source-code that can use to learn how to do it?

  Read the article

• How to create nested ViewComponents in Monorail and NVelocity?

  - by rob_g

  I have been asked to update the menu on a website we maintain. The website uses Castle Windors Monorail and NVelocity as the template. The menu is currently rendered using custom made subclasses of ViewComponent, which render li elements. At the moment there is only one (horizontal) level, so the current mechanism is fine. I have been asked to add drop down menus to some of the existing menus. As this is the first time I have seen Monorail and NVelocity, I'm a little lost. What currently exists: <ul> #component(MenuComponent with "title=Home" "hover=autoselect" "link=/") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Videos" "hover=autoselect") #component(MenuComponent with "title=VPS" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Add-Ons" "hover=autoselect" "link=/addons") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Hosting" "hover=autoselect" "link=/hosting") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Support" "hover=autoselect" "link=/support") #component(MenuComponent with "title=News" "hover=autoselect" "link=/news") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Contact Us" "hover=autoselect" "link=/contact-us") </ul> Is it possible to have nested MenuComponents (or a new SubMenuComponent) something like: <ul> #component(MenuComponent with "title=Home" "hover=autoselect" "link=/") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Videos" "hover=autoselect") #blockcomponent(MenuComponent with "title=VPS" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Plans" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/plans") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Operating Systems" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/os") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Supported Applications" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/apps") #end #component(MenuComponent with "title=Add-Ons" "hover=autoselect" "link=/addons") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Hosting" "hover=autoselect" "link=/hosting") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Support" "hover=autoselect" "link=/support") #component(MenuComponent with "title=News" "hover=autoselect" "link=/news") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Contact Us" "hover=autoselect" "link=/contact-us") </ul> I need to draw the sub menu (ul and li elements) inside the overridden Render method on MenuComponent, so using nested ViewComponent derivatives may not work. I would like a method keep the basically declarative method for creating menus, if at all possible.

  Read the article

• How to avoid hard-coded credentials in Sharepoint webpart?

  - by Bryan

  I am building a Sharepoint web part that will be used by all users, but can only be modified by admins. The web part connects to a web service which needs credentials. I hard coded credentials in the web part's code. query.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain"); query is an instance of the web service class This may not be a good approach. In regard with security, the source code of the web apart is available to people who are not allowed to see the credentials. In normal ASP.net applications, credentials can be written into web.config and encrypted. A web part doesn't have a .config file associated. There is a application-level .config file for the whole sharepoint site, but I don't want to modify it for a single webpart. I wonder if there is a webpart-specific way to solve the credential problem? Say we provide a WebBrowsable property of that web part so that privileged users can modify credentials. If this is desirable, how should I make the property displayed in a password ("*") rather than in plain text? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

  - by Ramesh

  Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

  Read the article

• Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

  - by mad

  Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

  Read the article

• Exporting de-aggregated data

  - by Ben

  I'm currently working on a data export feature for a survey application. We are using SQL2k8. We store data in a normalized format: QuestionId, RespondentId, Answer. We have a couple other tables that define what the question text is for the QuestionId and demographics for the RespondentId... Currently I'm using some dynamic SQL to generate a pivot that joins the question table to the answer table and creates an export, its working... The problem is that it seems slow and we don't have that much data (less than 50k respondents). Right now I'm thinking "why am I 'paying' to de-aggregate the data for each query? Why don't I cache that?" The data being exported is based on dynamic criteria. It could be "give me respondents that completed on x date (or range)" or "people that like blue", etc. Because of that, I think I have to cache at the respondent level, find out what respondents are being exported and then select their combined cached de-aggregated data. To me the quick and dirty fix is a totally flat table, RespondentId, Question1, Question2, etc. The problem is, we have multiple clients and that doesn't scale AND I don't want to have to maintain the flattened table as the survey changes. So I'm thinking about putting an XML column on the respondent table and caching the results of a SELECT * FROM Data FOR XML AUTO WHERE RespondentId = x. With that in place, I would then be able to get my export with filtering and XML calls into the XML column. What are you doing to export aggregated data in a flattened format (CSV, Excel, etc)? Does this approach seem ok? I worry about the cost of XML functions on larger result sets (think SELECT RespondentId, XmlCol.value('//data/question_1', 'nvarchar(50)') AS [Why is there air?], XmlCol.RinseAndRepeat)... Is there a better technology/approach for this? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Project management and bundling dependencies

  - by Joshua

  I've been looking for ways to learn about the right way to manage a software project, and I've stumbled upon the following blog post. I've learned some of the things mentioned the hard way, others make sense, and yet others are still unclear to me. To sum up, the author lists a bunch of features of a project and how much those features contribute to a project's 'suckiness' for a lack of a better term. You can find the full article here: http://spot.livejournal.com/308370.html In particular, I don't understand the author's stance on bundling dependencies with your project. These are: == Bundling == Your source only comes with other code projects that it depends on [ +20 points of FAIL ] Why is this a problem, (especially given the last point)? If your source code cannot be built without first building the bundled code bits [ +10 points of FAIL ] Doesn't this necessarily have to be the case for software built against 3rd party libs? Your code needs that other code to be compiled into its library before the linker can work? If you have modified those other bundled code bits [ +40 points of FAIL ] If this is necessary for your project, then it naturally follows that you've bundled said code with yours. If you want to customize a build of some lib,say WxWidgets, you'll have to edit that projects build scripts to bulid the library that you want. Subsequently, you'll have to publish those changes to people who wish to build your code, so why not use a high level make script with the params already written in, and distribute that? Furthermore, (especially in a windows env) if your code base is dependent on a particular version of a lib (that you also need to custom compile for your project) wouldn't it be easier to give the user the code yourself (because in this case, it is unlikely that the user will already have the correct version installed)? So how would you respond to these comments, and what points may I be failing to take into consideration? Would you agree or disagree with the author's take (or mine), and why?

  Read the article

• Are there Windows API binaries for Subversion or do I have to build SVN to call the API from Windows

  - by JeffH

  I want to call a Subversion API from a Visual Studio 2003 C++ project. I know there are threads here, here, here, and here that tell how to get started with C#.NET on Windows (the consensus seems to be SharpSvn, which I've used easily and successfully on another project) but that's not what I want. I've read the chapter on using APIs in the red-bean book which says: Subversion is primarily a set of C libraries, with header (.h) files that live in the subversion/include directory of the source tree. These headers are copied into your system locations (e.g., /usr/local/include) when you build and install Subversion itself from source. These headers represent the entirety of the functions and types meant to be accessible by users of the Subversion libraries. I'd like to use CollabNet Subversion but there doesn't seem to be API binary downloads, and I'd just as soon not build the whole thing if I can avoid it. Considering another approach, I found RapidSVN's C++ API, but it doesn't appear to offer Windows API binaries either and seems to require building SVN (which I would be willing to do as a last choice if RapidSVN's API is higher-level than the stock SVN offering.) Does calling the API from C++ in Windows have to be this much more work compared to using SharpSvn under .NET, or is there something I haven't found that would help me achieve my goal?

  Read the article

• Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

  - by Ian

  Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

  Read the article

• Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

  - by I Have the Hat

  So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• FFT and IFFT on 3D matrix (Matlab)

  - by SteffenDM

  I have a movie with 70 grayscale frames in MATLAB. I have put them in a 3-D matrix, so the dimensions are X, Y and time. I want to determine the frequencies in the time dimension, so I have to calculate the FFT for every point in the 3rd dimension. This is not a problem but I have to return the images to the original form with ifft. In a normal situation this would be true: X = ifft(fft(X)), but this is not the case it seems in MATLAB when you work with multidimensional data. This is the code I use: for i = 1:length y(:, :, i) = [img1{i, level}]; %# take each picture from an cell array and put it end %# and put it in 3D array y2 = ifft(fft(y, NFFT,3), NFFT, 3); %# NFFT = 128, the 3 is the dimension in which i want %# to calculate the FFT and IFFT y is 480x640x70, so there are 70 images of 640x480 pixels. If I use only fft, y2 is 480x640x128 (this is normal because we want 128 points with NFFT). If I use fft and ifft, y2 is 480x640x128 pixels. This is not normal, the 128 should be 70 again. I tried to do it in just one dimension by using 2 for loops and this works fine. The for loops take to much time, though.

  Read the article

• Another developer revoked and re-created my client's iOS Distribution Certificate - does this mean I can never update my client's existing app?

  - by Schnapple

  Here is the story so far: A client hired us to do an iPhone app for them. This client had never done an iPhone app before and as part of the arrangement we handled all aspects for them, including app store submission, and we handle some level of future development (new features, bug/security fixes, etc.) We created a Distribution certificate and key pair on the client's behalf We developed the app, published it to the App Store without incident Some time later the client hired a second developer to do a different app for them This second developer, it appears, has revoked the existing Distribution certificate and created a new one with a new key pair on their system This second developer shared the new Distribution certificate and key pair with us for future reference. Due to user error, this new certificate and key pair has now been imported onto the Macintosh where the original certificate and key pair for the original app we developed were created and the originals were not backed up. So we have App #1 on the App Store with Distribution certificate/key pair #1 App #2 either on the App Store or soon to be using Distribution certificate/key pair #2 Distribution certificate/key pair #1 appears to be lost now So my question is: if we ever need to update App #1, will we be able to, using Distribution certificate/key pair #2? Or will we have to upload it as a new app?

  Read the article

• Adding array to an object breaks the array

  - by DisgruntledGoat

  I have an array like this (output from print_r): Array ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => [1] => [2] => [3] => [4] => ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Gas ) ) I'm running a custom function to convert it to an object. Only the top-level should be converted, the sub-arrays should stay as arrays. The output comes out like this: stdClass Object ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => Array ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Array ) ) Here is my conversion function. All it does is set the value of each array member to an object: function array_to_object( $arr ) { $obj = new stdClass; if ( count($arr) == 0 ) return $obj; foreach ( $arr as $k=>$v ) $obj->$k = $v; return $obj; } I can't figure this out for the life of me!

  Read the article

• Should I invest in GraniteDS for Flex + Java development?

  - by Boden

  I'm new to Flex development, and RIAs in general. I've got a CRUD-style Java + Spring + Hibernate service on top of which I'm writing a Flex UI. Currently I'm using BlazeDS. This is an internal application running on a local network. It's become apparent to me that the way RIAs work is more similar to a desktop application than a web application in that we load up the entire model and work with it directly on the client (or at least the portion that we're interested in). This doesn't really jive well with BlazeDS because really it only supports remoting and not data management, thus it can become a lot of extra work to make sure that clients are in sync and to avoid reloading the model which can be large (especially since lazy loading is not possible). So it feels like what I'm left with is a situation where I have to treat my Flex application more like a regular old web application where I do a lot of fine grained loading of data. LiveCycle is too expensive. The free version of WebOrb for Java really only does remoting. Enter GraniteDS. As far as I can determine, it's the only free solution out there that has many of the data management features of LiveCycle. I've started to go through its documentation a bit and suddenly feel like it's yet another quagmire of framework that I'll have to learn just to get an application running. So my question(s) to the StackOverflow audience is: 1) do you recommend GraniteDS, especially if my current Java stack is Spring + Hibernate? 2) at what point do you feel like it starts to pay off? That is, at what level of application complexity do you feel that using GraniteDS really starts to make development that much better? In what ways?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

  - by Rob

  After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

  Read the article

• How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

  - by Greg K

  Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Boost's "cstdint" Usage

  - by patt0h

  Boost's C99 stdint implementation is awfully handy. One thing bugs me, though. They dump all of their typedefs into the boost namespace. This leaves me with three choices when using this facility: Use "using namespace boost" Use "using boost::[u]<type><width>_t" Explicitly refer to the target type with the boost:: prefix; e.g., boost::uint32_t foo = 0; Option ? 1 kind of defeats the point of namespaces. Even if used within local scope (e.g., within a function), things like function arguments still have to be prefixed like option ? 3. Option ? 2 is better, but there are a bunch of these types, so it can get noisy. Option ? 3 adds an extreme level of noise; the boost:: prefix is often = to the length of the type in question. My question is: What would be the most elegant way to bring all of these types into the global namespace? Should I just write a wrapper around boost/cstdint.hpp that utilizes option ? 2 and be done with it? Also, wrapping the header like so didn't work on VC++ 10 (problems with standard library headers): namespace Foo { #include <boost/cstdint.hpp> using namespace boost; } using namespace Foo; Even if it did work, I guess it would cause ambiguity problems with the ::boost namespace.

  Read the article

• OpenMP: Get total number of running threads

  - by Konrad Rudolph

  I need to know the total number of threads that my application has spawned via OpenMP. Unfortunately, the omp_get_num_threads() function does not work here since it only yields the number of threads in the current team. However, my code runs recursively (divide and conquer, basically) and I want to spawn new threads as long as there are still idle processors, but no more. Is there a way to get around the limitations of omp_get_num_threads and get the total number of running threads? If more detail is required, consider the following pseudo-code that models my workflow quite closely: function divide_and_conquer(Job job, int total_num_threads): if job.is_leaf(): # Recurrence base case. job.process() return left, right = job.divide() current_num_threads = omp_get_num_threads() if current_num_threads < total_num_threads: # (1) #pragma omp parallel num_threads(2) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) else: divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) job = merge(left, right) If I call this code with a total_num_threads value of 4, the conditional annotated with (1) will always evaluate to true (because each thread team will contain at most two threads) and thus the code will always spawn two new threads, no matter how many threads are already running at a higher level. I am searching for a platform-independent way of determining the total number of threads that are currently running in my application.

  Read the article

• ZeroMQ REQ/REP on ipc:// and concurrency

  - by Metiu

  I implemented a JSON-RPC server using a REQ/REP 0MQ ipc:// socket and I'm experiencing strange behavior which I suspect is due to the fact that the ipc:// underlying unix socket is not a real socket, but rather a single pipe. From the documentation, one has to enforce strict zmq_send()/zmq_recv() alternation, otherwise the out-of-order zmq_send() will return an error. However, I expected the enforcement to be per-client, not per-socket. Of course with a Unix socket there is just one pipeline from multiple clients to the server, so the server won't know who it is talking with. Two clients could zmq_send() simultaneously and the server would see this as an alternation violation. The sequence could be: ClientA: zmq_send() ClientB: zmq_send() : will it block until the other send/receive completes? will it return -1? (I suspect it will with ipc:// due to inherent low-level problems, but with TCP it could distinguish the two clients) ClientA: zmq_recv() ClientB: zmq_recv() so what about tcp:// sockets? Will it work concurrently? Should I use some other locking mechanism to work around this?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454  | Next Page >