Search Results

Search found 13068 results on 523 pages for 'copy and paste'.

Page 447/523 | < Previous Page | 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454  | Next Page >

• Audio output from Silverlight

  - by leecarter

  I'm looking to develop a Silverlight application which will take a stream of data (not an audio stream as such) from a web server. The data stream would then be manipulated to give audio of a certain format (G.711 a-Law for example) which would then be converted into PCM so that additional effects can be applied (such as boosting the volume). I'm OK up to this point. I've got my data, converted the G.711 into PCM but my problem is being able to output this PCM audio to the sound card. I basing a solution on some C# code intended for a .Net application but in Silverlight there is a problem with trying to take a copy of a delegate (function pointer) which will be the topic of a separate question once I've produced a simple code sample. So, the question is... How can I output the PCM audio that I have held in a data structure (currently an array) in my Silverlight to the user? (Please don't say write the byte values to a text box) If it were a MP3 or WMA file I would play it using a MediaElement but I don't want to have to make it into a file as this would put a crimp on applying dynamic effects to the audio. I've seen a few posts from people saying low level audio support is poor/non-existant in Silverlight so I'm open to any suggestions/ideas people may have.

  Read the article

• 64-bit Alternative for Microsoft Jet

  - by David Robison

  Microsoft has chosen to not release a 64-bit version of Jet, their database driver for Access. Does anyone know of a good alternative? Here are the specific features that Jet supports that I need: Multiple users can connect to database over a network. Users can use Windows Explorer to copy the database while it is open without risking corruption. Access currently does this with enough reliability for what my customers need. Works well in C++ without requiring .Net. Alternatives I've considered that I do not think could work (though my understanding could be incorrect): SQLite: If multiple users connect to the database over a network, it will become corrupted. Firebird: Copying a database that is in use can corrupt the original database. SQL Server: Files in use are locked and cannot be copied. VistaDB: This appears to be .Net specific. Compile in 32-bit and use WOW64: There is another dependency that requires us to compile in 64-bit, even though we don't use any 64-bit functionality.

  Read the article

• Recommendations to handle development and deployment of php web apps using shared project code

  - by Exception e

  I am wondering what the best way (for a lone developer) is to develop a project that depends on code of other projects deploy the resulting project to the server I am planning to put my code in svn, and have shared code as a separate project. There are problems with svn:externals which I cannot fully estimate. I've read subversion:externals considered to be an anti-pattern, and How do you organize your version control repository, but there is one special thing with php-projects (and other interpreted source code): there is no final executable resulting from your libraries. External dependencies are thus always on raw source code. Ideally I really want to be able to develop simultaneously on one project and the projects it dependends on. Possible way: Check out a projects' dependency in a sub folder as a working copy of the trunk. Problems I foresee: When you want to deploy a project, you might want to freeze its dependencies, right? The dependency code should not end up as a duplicate in the projects repository, I think. *(update1: I additionally assume svn:ignore will pose problems if I cannot fall back on symlinks, see my comment) I am still looking for suggestions that do not require the use junction points. They are a sort of unsupported hack in winxp, which may break some programs* This leads me to the last part of the question (as one has influence on the other): how do you deploy apps whith such dependencies? I've looked into BuildOut for Python, but it seems to be tightly related to the python ecosystem (resolving and fetching python modules from the web etc). I am very eager to learn about your best practices.

  Read the article

• Immutable classes in C++

  - by ereOn

  Hi, In one of my projects, I have some classes that represent entities that cannot change once created, aka. immutable classes. Example : A class RSAKey that represent a RSA key which only has const methods. There is no point changing the existing instance: if you need another one, you just create one. My objects sometimes are heavy and I enforced the use of smart pointers to avoid copy. So far, I have the following pattern for my classes: class RSAKey : public boost::noncopyable, public boost::enable_shared_from_this<RSAKey> { public: /** * \brief Some factory. * \param member A member value. * \return An instance. */ static boost::shared_ptr<const RSAKey> createFromMember(int member); /** * \brief Get a member. * \return The member. */ int getMember() const; private: /** * \brief Constructor. * \param member A member. */ RSAKey(int member); /** * \brief Member. */ const int m_member; }; So you can only get a pointer (well, a smart pointer) to a const RSAKey. To me, it makes sense, because having a non-const reference to the instance is useless (it only has const methods). Do you guys see any issue regarding this pattern ? Are immutable classes something common in C++ or did I just created a monster ? Thank you for your advices !

  Read the article

• One big executable or many small DLL's?

  - by Patrick

  Over the years my application has grown from 1MB to 25MB and I expect it to grow further to 40, 50 MB. I don't use DLL's, but put everything in this one big executable. Having one big executable has certain advantages: Installing my application at the customer is really: copy and run. Upgrades can be easily zipped and sent to the customer There is no risk of having conflicting DLL's (where the customer has version X of the EXE, but version Y of the DLL) The big disadvantage of the big EXE is that linking times seem to grow exponentially. Additional problem is that a part of the code (let's say about 40%) is shared with another application. Again, the advantages are that: There is no risk on having a mix of incorrect DLL versions Every developer can make changes on the common code which speeds up developments. But again, this has a serious impact on compilation times (everyone compiles the common code again on his PC) and on linking times. The question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2387908/grouping-dlls-for-use-in-executable mentions the possibility of mixing DLL's in one executable, but it looks like this still requires you to link all functions manually in your application (using LoadLibrary, GetProcAddress, ...). What is your opinion on executable sizes, the use of DLL's and the best 'balance' between easy deployment and easy/fast development?

  Read the article

• Copying a foreign Subversion repository to keep under dependencies

  - by Jonathan Sternberg

  I want to keep dependencies for my project in our own repository, that way we have consistent libraries for the entire team to work with. For example, I want our project to use the Boost libraries. I've seen this done in the past with putting dependencies under a "vendor" or "dependencies" folder. But I still want to be able to update these dependencies. If a new feature appears in a library and we need it, I want to just be able to update that repository within our own repository. I don't want to have to recopy it and put it under version control again. I'd also like for us to have the ability to change dependencies if a small change is needed without stopping us from ever updating the library. I want the ability to do something like 'svn cp', then be able to 'svn merge' in the future. I just tried this with the boost trunk, but I'm not able to get any history using 'svn log' on the copy I made. How do I do this? What is usually done for large projects with dependencies?

  Read the article

• Using Parameter Values In SQL Statement

  - by Dangerous

  I am trying to write a database script (SQL SERVER 2008) which will copy information from database tables on one server to corresponding tables in another database on a different server. I have read that the correct way to do this is to use a sql statement in a format similar to the following: INSERT INTO <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> SELECT * FROM <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> As there will be several tables being copied, I would like to declare variables at the top of the script to allow the user to specify the names of each server and database that are to be used. These could then be used throughout the script. However, I am not sure how to use the variable values in the actual SQL statements. What I want to achieve is something like the following: DECLARE @SERVER_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerFrom' DECLARE @DATABASE_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' DECLARE @SERVER_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerTo' DECLARE @DATABASE_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' INSERT INTO @SERVER_TO.@DATABASE_TO.dbo.TableName SELECT * FROM @SERVER_FROM.@DATABASE_FROM.dbo.TableName ... How should I use the @ variables in this code in order for it to work correctly? Additionally, do you think my method above is correct for what I am trying to achieve and should I be using NVARCHAR(50) as my variable type or something else? Thanks

  Read the article

• Windows Service Installation

  - by Goober

  Scenario I have a server, that has NO Visual Studio Installed. It literally has a normal command prompt and nothing installed yet. We don't want to install anything (except the .Net framework which we have already done). We just want to install a bunch of C# Windows Services that we have written. So far I have been installing and running the windows service on my local machine using a "setup and deploy" project that I built into the application, which I could then use to install the service locally. Question How can I install the service on the server? I imagine it can be done from the command prompt only, but what else do I need? - If anything? and where do I put the files that I want to install BEFORE I install them? I imagine I will have to compile the application on my local machine in Visual Studio, then copy it over to the server, and then run an install utility to install it on the server? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

  Read the article

• Which Stroustrup book should I use?

  - by Chris Simmons

  I'm a C# programmer that is looking to branch out. I'm bored of writing business software and want to start getting into graphics programming and games/simulators. So I figured, although writing that stuff isn't impossible in managed code, the "right" way to do that would be to look to C++, of course focussing on the language first, then getting into OpenGL or DirectX (or whatever). Way way back ('98? '99?) I had tried and failed to really grasp Stroustrup's The C++ Programming Language. I know that this book is often not recommended for the beginner. Anyway, I picked it back up (in a much more recent printing) and I'm actually getting it and enjoying it. I also have a copy of his textbook, Programming: Principles and Practice Using C++, which, as I understand it, is really geared toward teaching programming, not necessarily C++. I'm certainly not arrogant enough to claim I don't have anything more to learn about programming, data structures, algoriths, etc., however I'm not a novice there either. So my question is, with the goal of gaining the broader and more real-world-useful understanding of C++ and given my background, on which should I focus? The denser (as I perceive it) TCPPPL or the gentler Programming? EDIT: I thank everyone for the responses. However, I've got a personal choice here to make between these two books. Granted there are other very good books out there, but I'm already a good length into both of the books I mention and I'd like to finish one. So, can anyone respond on which would be the better and why? Time is not an issue; I'm not looking (at this point) at an "accelerated" read.

  Read the article

• need help building a stored procedure that takes rows from one table into another.

  - by MyHeadHurts

  alright i built this stored procedure to take the columns from a stagging table and copy them into my other table, but if these four columns are duplicates it wont insert the rows, works fine. however, what i want to do is if only the tour, taskname and deptdate are the same, then i will update the rest of the information. and if all four columns are the same dont instert. INSERT INTO dashboardtasks1 SELECT [tour], [taskname], [deptdate], [tasktype], [desc], [duedate], [compdate], [comments], [agent], [compby], [graceperiod] FROM staggingtasks WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks1 WHERE (staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks1.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks1.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks1.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks1.duedate ) ) i saw something like this INSERT INTO table (a,b,c) VALUES (1,2,3) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE c=c+1; UPDATE table SET c=c+1 WHERE a=1; but how could i do it if my stated 3 columns are the samed then update? or is there a way to do this with an if statement and use 2 different queries, but how would my if statement work would it check if the row exists in the table i am uploading to and then run the insert statement? or what if i did something like IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks WHERE staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks.deptdate ) begin UPDATE [dashboardtasks] SET [tour] = staggingtasks.tour, [taskname] = staggingtasks.taskname, [deptdate] = staggingtasks.deptdate, [tasktype] = staggingtasks.tasktype, [desc] = staggingtasks.desc, [duedate] = staggingtasks.duedate, [compdate] = staggingtasks.compdate, [comments] = staggingtasks.comments, [agent] = staggingtasks.agent, [compby] = staggingtasks.compby, [graceperiod] = staggingtasks.graceperiod end else EXISTS (SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks WHERE staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks.duedate ) begin INSERT INTO dashboardtasks1 SELECT [tour], [taskname], [deptdate], [tasktype], [desc], [duedate], [compdate], [comments], [agent], [compby], [graceperiod] FROM staggingtasks WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks1 WHERE (staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks1.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks1.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks1.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks1.duedate ) ) end end

  Read the article

• SQL Server - stored procedure suddenly become slow

  - by Barguast

  I have written a stored procedure that, yesterday, typically completed in under a second. Today, it takes about 18 seconds. I ran into the problem yesterday as well, and it seemed to be solved by DROPing and re-CREATEing the stored procedure. Today, that trick doesn't appear to be working. :( Interestingly, if I copy the body of the stored procedure and execute it as a straightforward query it completes quickly. It seems to be the fact that it's a stored procedure that's slowing it down...! Does anyone know what the problem might be? I've searched for answers, but often they recommend running it through Query Analyser, but I don't have have it - I'm using SQL Server 2008 Express for now. The stored procedure is as follows; ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[spGetPOIs] @lat1 float, @lon1 float, @lat2 float, @lon2 float, @minLOD tinyint, @maxLOD tinyint, @exact bit AS BEGIN -- Create the query rectangle as a polygon DECLARE @bounds geography; SET @bounds = dbo.fnGetRectangleGeographyFromLatLons(@lat1, @lon1, @lat2, @lon2); -- Perform the selection if (@exact = 0) BEGIN SELECT [ID], [Name], [Type], [Data], [MinLOD], [MaxLOD], [Location].[Lat] AS [Latitude], [Location].[Long] AS [Longitude], [SourceID] FROM [POIs] WHERE NOT ((@maxLOD < [MinLOD]) OR (@minLOD > [MaxLOD])) AND (@bounds.Filter([Location]) = 1) END ELSE BEGIN SELECT [ID], [Name], [Type], [Data], [MinLOD], [MaxLOD], [Location].[Lat] AS [Latitude], [Location].[Long] AS [Longitude], [SourceID] FROM [POIs] WHERE NOT ((@maxLOD < [MinLOD]) OR (@minLOD > [MaxLOD])) AND (@bounds.STIntersects([Location]) = 1) END END The 'POI' table has an index on MinLOD, MaxLOD, and a spatial index on Location.

  Read the article

• Ruby Design Problem for SQL Bulk Inserter

  - by crunchyt

  This is a Ruby design problem. How can I make a reusable flat file parser that can perform different data scrubbing operations per call, return the emitted results from each scrubbing operation to the caller and perform bulk SQL insertions? Now, before anyone gets narky/concerned, I have written this code already in a very unDRY fashion. Which is why I am asking any Ruby rockstars our there for some assitance. Basically, everytime I want to perform this logic, I create two nested loops, with custom processing in between, buffer each processed line to an array, and output to the DB as a bulk insert when the buffer size limit is reached. Although I have written lots of helpers, the main pattern is being copy pasted everytime. Not very DRY! Here is a Ruby/Pseudo code example of what I am repeating. lines_from_file.each do |line| line.match(/some regex/).each do |sub_str| # Process substring into useful format # EG1: Simple gsub() call # EG2: Custom function call to do complex scrubbing # and matching, emitting results to array # EG3: Loop to match opening/closing/nested brackets # or other delimiters and emit results to array end # Add processed lines to a buffer as SQL insert statement @buffer << PREPARED INSERT STATEMENT # Flush buffer when "buffer size limit reached" or "end of file" if sql_buffer_full || last_line_reached @dbc.insert(SQL INSERTS FROM BUFFER) @buffer = nil end end I am familiar with Proc/Lambda functions. However, because I want to pass two separate procs to the one function, I am not sure how to proceed. I have some idea about how to solve this, but I would really like to see what the real Rubyists suggest? Over to you. Thanks in advance :D

  Read the article

• Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

  - by user193655

  I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

  Read the article

• Iterating XML nodes using VBA

  - by ydobonmai

  Note:- It just might be a iterating XML nodes using VBA question. Please look at the bottom of this question. It would be good If we can iterate without using MSXML2.DOMDocument I see the this question which answers part of my question on how to retrieve the CustomXMLPart. However, I am not able to iterate through the Xml. That way, this might not be specific to CustomXmlPart, It just might be a iterating XML using VBA question. Following is the XML I have in my CustomXMLPart. <Items> <Item1>Item1</Item1> <Item2>Item2</Item2> <Item3>Item3</Item3> </Items> This is how I add the above XML as CustomXmlPart:- static void AddCustomTableXmlPart(WordprocessingDocument document) { MainDocumentPart mainDocumentPart = document.MainDocumentPart; XDocument itemXml = GetItemsAsCustomXML(); if (mainDocumentPart.GetPartsCountOfType<CustomXmlPart>() > 0) mainDocumentPart.DeleteParts<CustomXmlPart>(mainDocumentPart.CustomXmlParts); //Add a new customXML part and then add content var customXmlPart = mainDocumentPart.AddCustomXmlPart(CustomXmlPartType.CustomXml); //copy the XML into the new part... using (var ts = new StreamWriter(customXmlPart.GetStream())) { ts.Write(itemXml.ToString()); ts.Flush(); } } and this is how I am accessing it in the macro:- Dim itemNode As xmlNode Dim itemChildren As XMLNodes ' The below line throws a run-time error 'Run-time error '13' - 'type mismatch ' not sure why. **Set itemChildren= ActiveDocument.CustomXMLParts(ActiveDocument.CustomXMLParts.Count).SelectSingleNode("//Items").ChildNodes** Interestingly, when I quick watch ActiveDocument.CustomXMLParts(ActiveDocument.CustomXMLParts.Count).SelectSingleNode("//Items").ChildNodes, I see child items in the quick watch window. Is the assignment to the itemChildren variable incorrect? I want to iterate through all the items and get get text for all of them. Could anybody help?

  Read the article

• Impossible to remove directory

  - by Mark

  Evidently I've never had to delete a directory using win32 sdk before, because its apparently an impossible task. I've tried anything and everything - RemoveDirectory, SHFileOperation with FO_DELETE, etc. Currently I call CreateDirectory in one thread, start another thread, copy some files to this directory in the new thread, then delete all the files in the directory in the new thread, and then back in the original thread that created the directory, try to delete the now empty directory and it fails. The directory really and truly is empty when I try to delete it, but it makes no difference. The whole thread aspect is irrelevant I think because at one point everything was in one thread and it didn't work. I'm currently setting a SecurityAttributes structure on CreateDirectory to grant access to everyone, but it makes no difference. RemoveDirectory in the past has returned '32' on GetLastError, which I believe is Sharing violation. But even if I just try to delete the empty directory from the command line, it refuses saying, "The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process." until I shut down the entire application that created the directory. (Note: the directory is created in GetTempPath.)

  Read the article

• Rtti data manipulation and consistency in Delphi 2010

  - by Coco

  Has anyone an idea, how I can make TValue using a reference to the original data? In my serialization project, I use (as suggested in XML-Serialization) a generic serializer which stores TValues in an internal tree-structure (similar to the MemberMap in the example). This member-tree should also be used to create a dynamic setup form and manipulate the data. My idea was to define a property for the Data: TDataModel <T> = class {...} private FData : TValue; function GetData : T; procedure SetData (Value : T); public property Data : T read GetData write SetData; end; The implementation of the GetData, SetData Methods: procedure TDataModel <T>.SetData (Value : T); begin FData := TValue.From <T> (Value); end; procedure TDataModel <T>.GetData : T; begin Result := FData.AsType <T>; end; Unfortunately, the TValue.From method always makes a copy of the original data. So whenever the application makes changes to the data, the DataModel is not updated and vice versa if I change my DataModel in a dynamic form, the original data is not affected. Sure I could always use the Data property before and after changing anything, but as I use lot of Rtti inside my DataModel, I do not realy want to do this anytime. Perhaps someone has a better suggestion?

  Read the article

• How can this code throw a NullReferenceException?

  - by Davy8

  I must be going out of my mind, because my unit tests are failing because the following code is throwing a null ref exception: int pid = 0; if (parentCategory != null) { Console.WriteLine(parentCategory.Id); pid = parentCategory.Id; } The line that's throwing it is: pid = parentCategory.Id; The console.writeline is just to debug in the NUnit GUI, but that outputs a valid int. Edit: It's single-threaded so it can't be assigned to null from some other thread, and the fact the the Console.WriteLine successfully prints out the value shows that it shouldn't throw. Edit: Relevant snippets of the Category class: public class Category { private readonly int id; public Category(Category parent, int id) { Parent = parent; parent.PerformIfNotNull(() => parent.subcategories.AddIfNew(this)); Name = string.Empty; this.id = id; } public int Id { get { return id; } } } Well if anyone wants to look at the full code, it's on Google Code at http://code.google.com/p/chefbook/source/checkout I think I'm going to try rebooting the computer... I've seen pretty weird things fixed by a reboot. Will update after reboot. Update: Mystery solved. Looks like NUnit shows the error line as the last successfully executed statement... Copy/pasted test into new console app and ran in VS showed that it was the line after the if statement block (not shown) that contained a null ref. Thanks for all the ideas everyone. +1 to everyone that answered.

  Read the article

• Can shared memory be read and validated without mutexes?

  - by Bribles

  On Linux I'm using shmget and shmat to setup a shared memory segment that one process will write to and one or more processes will read from. The data that is being shared is a few megabytes in size and when updated is completely rewritten; it's never partially updated. I have my shared memory segment laid out as follows: ------------------------- | t0 | actual data | t1 | ------------------------- where t0 and t1 are copies of the time when the writer began its update (with enough precision such that successive updates are guaranteed to have differing times). The writer first writes to t1, then copies in the data, then writes to t0. The reader on the other hand reads t0, then the data, then t1. If the reader gets the same value for t0 and t1 then it considers the data consistent and valid, if not, it tries again. Does this procedure ensure that if the reader thinks the data is valid then it actually is? Do I need to worry about out-of-order execution (OOE)? If so, would the reader using memcpy to get the entire shared memory segment overcome the OOE issues on the reader side? (This assumes that memcpy performs it's copy linearly and ascending through the address space. Is that assumption valid?)

  Read the article

• PHP MySQL Weird Update Problem

  - by Tim

  I have a heap based table in MySQL that I am trying to update via PHP, but for some reason, the updates do not seem to be taking place. Here is my test code: <?php $freepoints[] = 1; $freepoints[] = 2; $freepoints[] = 3; foreach ($freepoints as $entrypoint) { $query = "update gates set lane='{$entrypoint}' where traffic > 50 limit 50"; echo "$query\n"; mysql_query($query); echo mysql_affected_rows()."\n"; } ?> This outputs the following: update gates set lane='1' where traffic > 50 limit 50 50 update gates set lane='2' where traffic > 50 limit 50 50 update gates set lane='3' where traffic > 50 limit 50 50 In the database to start with lanes 1/2/3 had 0 records and lanes 4/5/6 had 100 records. From this I am expecting all 6 lanes to now have 50 records each. However when I look lanes 4/5/6 still have 100 records and 1/2/3 still have 0 records. When I copy the query "update gates set lane='1' where traffic 50 limit 50" into phpMyAdmin it works absolutely fine, so any ideas why it isn't working in my PHP script when mysql_affected_rows is saying it has updated 50 records?

  Read the article

• What happens when value types are created?

  - by Bob

  I'm developing a game using XNA and C# and was attempting to avoid calling new struct() type code each frame as I thought it would freak the GC out. "But wait," I said to myself, "struct is a value type. The GC shouldn't get called then, right?" Well, that's why I'm asking here. I only have a very vague idea of what happens to value types. If I create a new struct within a function call, is the struct being created on the stack? Will it simply get pushed and popped and performance not take a hit? Further, would there be some memory limit or performance implications if, say, I need to create many instances in a single call? Take, for instance, this code: spriteBatch.Draw(tex, new Rectangle(x, y, width, height), Color.White); Rectangle in this case is a struct. What happens when that new Rectangle is created? What are the implications of having to repeat that line many times (say, thousands of times)? Is this Rectangle created, a copy sent to the Draw method, and then discarded (meaning no memory getting eaten up the more Draw is called in that manner in the same function)? P.S. I know this may be pre-mature optimization, but I'm mostly curious and wish to have a better understanding of what is happening.

  Read the article

• Debugging a Google Web Toolkit application that has an error when deployed on Google App Engine

  - by gerdemb

  I have a Google Web Toolkit application that I am deploying to Google App Engine. In the deployed application, I am getting a JavaScript error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'f' of null. This sounds like the JavaScript equivalent of a Java NullPointerException. The problem is that the GWT JavaScript is obfuscated, so it's impossible to debug in the browser and I can't reproduce the same problem in hosted mode where I could use the Java debugger. I think the reason I'm only seeing the error on the deployed application is that the database I'm using on the GAE server is triggering something differently than the test database I'm using during testing and development. So, any ideas about the best way to proceed? I've thought of the following things: Deploy a non-obsfucated version of my application. Despite a lot of Googling, I can't figure out how to do this using the automatic deploy script provided with the Google Eclipse Plugin. Does anyone know? Download and copy my GAE data to the local server Somehow point my development code to use the GAE server for data instead of the local test database. This seems like the best idea... Can anyone suggest how to proceed here? Finally, is there a way to catch these JavaScript errors on the production server and log them somewhere? Without logging, I won't have anyway to know if my users are having errors that don't occur on the server. The GWT.log() function is automatically stripped out of the production code...

  Read the article

• How to syntax-highlight XML in CDATA elements in Vim?

  - by Jim Hurne

  Vim's syntax highlighting for XML/XSL is great, except it turns off all syntax highlighting in CDATA regions. Is there a way to turn on syntax highlighting on in CDATA regions? At work, we have a lot of XSL code embedded within other XML documents. It would be great if I could get all of the goodness of XML editing for the embedded XSL code as well without having to temporarily remove the CDATA tags, or copy the CDATA content into a temporary file. Example: <root> <someTag><![CDATA[ <xsl:template match="/"> <!-- XSL content here --> </xsl:template> ]]> </someTag> </root> Note that the name of the tag (in the example, someTag) containing the content could be anything. We also sometimes embed Javascript inside CDATA regions as well, and again, it would be nice to turn on Javascript syntax highlighting for those regions. Again, the tag the data is embedded in is usually arbitrary and can be anything.

  Read the article

• Deploy GWT Application to Google App Engine using NetBeans

  - by Yan Cheng CHEOK

  Hello, I try to deploy a GWT application, to Google App Engine using NetBeans. I had successful run GWT sample http://code.google.com/webtoolkit/doc/latest/tutorial/create.html using Personal GlassFish v3 Prelude Domain, by 1) Copy generated source code from StockWatcher to C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\src\java\com\google\ 2) Modify C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\nbproject\gwt.properties gwt.module=com.google.gwt.stockwatcher.StockWatcher 3) Select Personal GlassFish v3 Prelude Domain, and run. All works fine! Now, I try to select Google App Engine server, and run. However, I get the error "There is no appengine web project opened!" I check... There is file called C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\war\WEB-INF\appengine-web.xml with content <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <appengine-web-app xmlns="http://appengine.google.com/ns/1.0" xmlns:xsi='http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance' xsi:schemaLocation='http://kenai.com/projects/nbappengine/downloads/download/schema/appengine-web.xsd appengine-web.xsd'> <application>StockWatcherNetbeans</application> <version>1</version> </appengine-web-app> I am using NetBeans 6.7.1 GWT4NB (GWT Plugin for NetBeans) 2.6.12 Google App Engine plugin for NetBeans from http://kenai.com/downloads/nbappengine/1.0_NetBeans671/updates.xml Anything I had missed out? Even when I right click to the project, the Deploy to Google App Engine options is disabled. And yes, please do not ask me why not use Eclipse.

  Read the article

• Emailing an excel sheet with SSL in Python

  - by jakecar

  Hi...this is my first post so let me know if there are any common courtesies I should know about. I just started programming 8 months ago, so I am fairly new. I have been doing some projects to get better. A project I'm working on now creates an Excel sheet from inputted data. It's in Python, which I just started learning a couple of weeks ago. I'm attempting to embed part of this Excel sheet into an email, sent from my school address. I have spent hours looking this up, and to no avail. There are two problems I am asking for help with: 1) I have figured out how to send an email from my GMail account, but not from my school address. My school email uses SSL port 465, which I have tried to use, but to no avail. Unfortunately, I have been having a problem setting up outgoing email for this account on my iPhone as well. It may be related? Does anyone know of common issues relating to outgoing email with SSL and Python? 2) Excel has an option of saving a sheet as a HTML. When doing so, I copy and pasted the HTML source and emailed it as an attachment. Unfortunately, the colored text did not transfer over. Does anyone know of a better way of using Python to send an excel sheet embedded in an email? Thanks for your help!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454  | Next Page >