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  • Drupal 6: getting particular fields from Node Reference types...

    - by artmania
    Hi friends, I'm a drupal newbie... <?php print $node->field_date[0]['view']; ?> I can get the custom created CCK fields' value and display in tpl.php files as above... that's fine. my question is how can I get the Node reference fields' in-fields? for example, I have an event content type, and I have defined Node Reference for Location (title, address, img, etc.). When I write the code below, it displays all location content; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['view']; ?> but I need to get only address field from this location content type. sth like below would be great :D but not working; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['field_address']['view']; ?> so how can get that? appreciate helps so much! thanks a lot!

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  • Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

    - by colinodell
    I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

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  • Calculating a consecutive streak in data

    - by Jura25
    I’m trying to calculate the maximum winning and losing streak in a dataset (i.e. the highest number of consecutive positive or negative values). I’ve found a somewhat related question here on StackOverflow and even though that gave me some good suggestions, the angle of that question is different, and I’m not (yet) experienced enough to translate and apply that information to this problem. So I was hoping you could help me out, even an suggestion would be great. My data set look like this: > subRes Instrument TradeResult.Currency. 1 JPM -3 2 JPM 264 3 JPM 284 4 JPM 69 5 JPM 283 6 JPM -219 7 JPM -91 8 JPM 165 9 JPM -35 10 JPM -294 11 KFT -8 12 KFT -48 13 KFT 125 14 KFT -150 15 KFT -206 16 KFT 107 17 KFT 107 18 KFT 56 19 KFT -26 20 KFT 189 > split(subRes[,2],subRes[,1]) $JPM [1] -3 264 284 69 283 -219 -91 165 -35 -294 $KFT [1] -8 -48 125 -150 -206 107 107 56 -26 189 In this case, the maximum (winning) streak for JPM is four (namely the 264, 284, 69 and 283 consecutive positive results) and for KFT this value is 3 (107, 107, 56). My goal is to create a function which gives the maximum winning streaks per instrument (i.e. JPM: 4, KFT: 3). To achieve that: R needs to compare the current result with the previous result, and if it is higher then there is a streak of at least 2 consecutive positive results. Then R needs to look at the next value, and if this is also higher: add 1 to the already found value of 2. If this value isn’t higher, R needs to move on to the next value, while remembering 2 as the intermediate maximum. I’ve tried cumsum and cummax in accordance with conditional summing (like cumsum(c(TRUE, diff(subRes[,2]) > 0))), which didn’t work out. Also rle in accordance with lapply (like lapply(rle(subRes$TradeResult.Currency.), function(x) diff(x) > 0)) didn’t work. How can I make this work?

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  • How do I restart mysql and where is my.cnf file

    - by dorelal
    I am using snow leopard mac. I installed mysql on my machine using instructions mentioned here. Everything works great. However I have two questions. 1) Where is my.cnf file? I searched the whole file system and result is empty. Is it possible that there is no my.cnf and mysql works with default values. If yes then probably I should create my.inf at /etc/mysql. Is that right? 2) How do I restar server. I know it gets started when I restart my machine. Here is what plist looks like. mysqld_safe does not let me restart server. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>KeepAlive</key> <true/> <key>Label</key> <string>com.mysql.mysqld</string> <key>Program</key> <string>/usr/local/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe</string> <key>RunAtLoad</key> <true/> <key>UserName</key> <string>mysql</string> <key>WorkingDirectory</key> <string>/usr/local/mysql</string> </dict> </plist>

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  • Retrieve class name hierarchy as string

    - by Jeff Wain
    Our system complexity has risen to the point that we need to make permission names tied to the client from the database more specific. In the client, permissions are referenced from a static class since a lot of client functionality is dependent on the permissions each user has and the roles have a ton of variety. I've referenced this post as an example, but I'm looking for a more specific use case. Take for instance this reference, where PermissionAlpha would be a const string: return HasPermission(PermissionNames.PermissionAlpha); Which is great, except now that things are growing more complex the classes are being structured like this: public static class PermissionNames { public static class PermissionAlpha { public const string SubPermission; } } I'm trying to find an easy way to reference PermissionAlpha in this new setup that will act similar to the first declaration above. Would the only way to do this be to resort to pulling the value of the class name like in the example below? I'm trying to keep all the names in one place that can be reference anywhere in the application. public static class PermissionAlpha { public static string Name { get { return typeof(PermissionAlpha).Name; } } }

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  • Web development tool that can comprehend the concept of more than one language in a file at once

    - by thecoshman
    I currently use notepad++ on windows or gedit on ubuntu. Both of them work great with code highlighting and hinting etc. But both of them suffer from a huge flaw. I am yet to find a code editor that can handle this concept: <?php // ooh, look I am doing some php ?><a onclick="alert('hay, some javascript in here now!')"> This link is HTML?!</a> <?PHP echo("NOW we have some php as well!"); ?> At the moment, I just have to settle for the one language. I want something that can think of a that text as a default as HTML, but notice when sections are PHP. I want those sections of PHP to have there own code hinting and highlighting. Even more, lets say in an 'if else' I exit PHP, write some HTML then back into PHP, I want it to work out how the braces ( '{' and '}' ) should match up and let me know if I have missed one. I want the sections of in-line JavaScript to be picked up as such. I want all of these languages to get checked for syntax! Damn it, I want to tool that understands more than one language at once!

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  • GWT - problems with constants in css

    - by hba
    Hi, I'm new to GWT; I'm building a small sample app. I have several CSS files. I'm able to successfully use the ClientBundle and CssResource to assign styles to the elements defined in my UiBinder script. Now I'd like to take it one step further and introduce CSS constants using @def css-rule. The @def works great when I define a constant and use it in the same CSS file. However I cannot use it in another CSS file. When I try to use the @eval rule to evaluate an existing constant the compiler throws an execption: "cannot make a static reference to the non-static method ". Here is an example of what I'm trying to do: ConstantStyle.css @def BACKGROUND red; ConstantStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String BACKGROUND(); } MyStyle.css @eval BACKGROUND abc.ConstantStyle.BACKGROUND(); .myClass {background-color: BACKGROUND;} MyStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String myClass; } MyResources.java package abc; import ...; interface MyResources extends ClientBundle { @Source("ConstantStyle.css") ConstantStyle constantStyle(); @Source("MyStyle.css") MyStyle myStyle(); } Thanks in advance!

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  • MSBuild: automate collecting of db migration scripts?

    - by P Dub
    Summary of environment. Asp.net web application (source stored in svn) sqlserver database. (Database schema (tables/sprocs) stored in svn) db version is synced with web application assembly version. (stored in table 'CurrentVersion') CI hudson server that checks out web app from repo and runs custom msbuild file to publish/package app. My msbuild script updates the assembly version of the web app (Major.Minor.Revision.Build) on each build. The 'Revision' is set to the currently checked out svn revision and the 'Build' to the hudson build number (incremented on each automated build). This way i can match the app to a specific trunk revision also get other build stats from the hudson build number. I'd like to automate the collecting of migration scripts (updated sprocs etc) to add to the zip package. I guess by comparing the svn revision of the db that has yet to be deployed to, to the revision being deployed, i can find what db files have changed in the trunk since the last deployment to that database/environment. This could easily be achieved by manually calling the svn diff -r REVNO:REVNO command to list changed .sql files. These files could then manually have to be added to the package. It would be great if this could be automated. Firstly i'd imagine I'll have to write a custom task to check the version of the db that has yet to be deployed to. After that I'm quite unsure. Does anyone have any suggestion on how this would be achieved through an msbuild task either existing or custom? Finally I'll have to autogen a script to add to the package that updates the database version table so as to be in sync with the application.

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  • Code promotion: Enforcing the rules

    - by jbarker7
    So here is our problem: We have a small team of developers with their own ways of doing things-- I am trying to formalize a process in which we are required to promote our code in the following order: Local sandbox Dev UAT Staging Live Developers develop/test as they go on their own sandbox, Dev is its own box that we would use for continuous integration, UAT is another site in IIS on the dev box, which uses our dev database. We then promote to staging, which is a site in IIS on the Live box and using live data (just like the live, hence staging). Then, finally, we promote to live. Here are a few of my questions: 1.) Does this seem to be best practice? If not, what needs to be done differently? 2.) How do I enforce the rules to the developers? Often developers skip steps in order to save time... this should not be tolerated and would be great if it could be physically enforced. 3.) How do I enforce these rules to the business group? The business group just wants to get features out FAST. Do we promote only on certain days? Thanks! Josh

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  • How do I determine if form field is empty with jQuery?

    - by user338413
    I've got a form with two fields, firstname and lastname. The user does not have to fill in the fields. When the user clicks the submit button, a jquery dialog displays with the data the user entered in the form. I only want to show the data for the fields that were entered. I'm trying to do an if statement and use the length() function but it isn't working. Help would be great! Here is my dialog jquery script: $(function(){ //Initialize the validation dialog $('#validation_dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 600, width: 600, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { "Submit Form": function() { document.account.submit(); }, "Cancel": function() { $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); // Populate the dialog with form data $('form#account').submit(function(){ $("p#dialog-data").append('<span>First Name: </span>'); $("p#dialog-data").append('<span>'); $("p#dialog-data").append($("input#firstname").val()); $("p#dialog-data").append('</span><br/>'); if (("input#lastname").val().length) > 0) { $("p#dialog-data").append('<span>Last Name: </span>'); $("p#dialog-data").append('<span>'); $("p#dialog-data").append($("input#lastname").val()); $("p#dialog-data").append('</span><br/>'); }; $('#validation_dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }); });

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  • Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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  • bitly php url wont work???

    - by mathiregister
    Hi guys, <?php include('bitly.php'); $bitly = new bitly('myusername', 'myapikey'); print $bitly->shorten('http://www.google.com'); ?> WORKING!!! $currenturl = (!empty($_SERVER['HTTPS'])) ? "https://".$_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'].$_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'] : "http://".$_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'].$_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']; include('bitly.php'); $bitly = new bitly('myusername', 'myapikey'); print $bitly->shorten($currenturl); WORKING!!! include('bitly.php'); $currenturl = (!empty($_SERVER['HTTPS'])) ? "https://".$_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'].$_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'] : "http://".$_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'].$_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']; $url = "somehashtag" $shareurl = $currenturl . '#' . $url; $bitly = new bitly('myusername', 'myapikey'); print $bitly->shorten($shareurl); NOT WORKING!!! Any idea why? If i print out the $shareurl i can see that it's a completely normal url that i could paste onto the normal bit.ly website. I don't get it! Any ideas? Would be great if you could help me!

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  • Is it posible to use "confirmit" to open new url in the same window?

    - by Dan Peschio
    I'm using a the confirmit java script function to redirect to a new url with a positive response. It doesn't do exactly what I want - and maybe I can't have exactly what I want. Here's what it does - onunload, with a positive response it opens the new url in a new window, which can be blocked by a pop-up blocker without the user even knowing, giving the impression that nothing happened. When it does open the new URL it opens in a new window making the desktop crowded. Its just not a great solution. What I want it to do - onunload I'd like it to open the new url in the same window and have it not be classified as a "pop-up" to be blocked. I tried switching to onbeforeunload.... nuthin. Is there a simple solution? here's my current code: <script language=javascript> function confirmit() { var closeit= confirm("My message"); if (closeit == true) {window.open("http://MyDestinationURL");} else {window.close();} } window.onunload = confirmit </script>

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  • Zend Framework Form Element Validators - validate a field even if not required

    - by Jeremy Hicks
    Is there a way to get a validator to fire even if the form element isn't required? I have a form where I want to validate the contents of a texbox (make sure not empty) if the value of another form element, which is a couple of radio buttons, has a specific value selected. Right now I'm doing this by overriding the isValid() function of my form class and it works great. However, I'd like to move this to either its on validator or use the Callback validator. Here's what I have so far, but it never seems to get called unless I change the field to setRequired(true) which I don't want to do at all times, only if the value of the other form element is set to a specific value. // In my form class's init function $budget = new Zend_Form_Element_Radio('budget'); $budget->setLabel('Budget') ->setRequired(true) ->setMultiOptions($options); $budgetAmount = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('budget_amount'); $budgetAmount->setLabel('Budget Amount') ->setRequired(false) ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator(new App_Validate_BudgetAmount()); //Here is my custom validator (incomplete) but just testing to see if it even gets called. class App_Validate_BudgetAmount extends Zend_Validate_Abstract { const STRING_EMPTY = 'stringEmpty'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::STRING_EMPTY => 'please provide a budget amount' ); public function isValid($value) { echo 'validating...'; var_dump($value); return true; } }

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  • visual studio 2008 (VB)

    - by Ousman
    hello guys, Am writing a programming with visual basic 2008 and i want the programme to be able to read and loop through a text file line by line and showing the event of the loop on a textbox or label until a button is press and the loop will stop on any number that happend to be at the loop event and when a button is press again the loop will continue from where it starts. this is my codes below and having problem with it and any help will be really great. tanks ==========================my codes======================= Imports System.IO '========================================================================================== Public Class Form1 '====================================================================================== 'Dim nFileNum As Integer = FreeFile() ' Get a free file number Dim strFileName As String = "C:\scb.txt" Dim objFilename As FileStream = New FileStream(strFileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read) Dim objFileRead As StreamReader = New StreamReader(objFilename) 'Dim lLineCount As Long 'Dim sNextLine As String '====================================================================================== '======================================================================================== Private Sub btStart_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btStart.Click Try If objFileRead.ReadLine = Nothing Then MsgBox("No Accounts Available to show!", MsgBoxStyle.Information, MsgBoxStyle.DefaultButton2 = MsgBoxStyle.OkOnly) Return Else Do While (objFileRead.Peek() > -1) Loop lblAccounts.Text = objFileRead.ReadLine() 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End If Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message) Finally 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End Try End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class

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  • How do I nicely manage many localhost web site URIs with IIS7

    - by Simeon
    I'm having trouble setting up a clean development environment with all the web sites I'm working on. I'm working on up to 40 different web sites, and at least 5 of them simultaneously. I need them all to be in a site root, for URL management to work with all CMSes. My first attempt was to use increasing port numbers for them, beginning with localhost:1000 and working upwards. Unfortunately, it took a great deal of looking up which port belonged to which web site, and it was very irritating. My second try was mapping the irritating ports to real words using the hosts file. So I ended up with localhost.tele2, localhost.ikea, localhost.volvo etc. Unfortunately, this takes a long time to set up (cleaning and adding to the hosts file, setting web site with highest port number in IIS etc.) and regularly I have to flush the DNS cache in order to get some sites working that I've added/removed from the hosts file. So how do I organize a lot of web sites in IIS7 nicely? Perhaps I've missed a very clever method that you're using.

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  • Using a join with three tables when a field might be null

    - by John
    Hello, The code below works great. It combines data from two MySQL tables. I would like to modify it by pulling in some data from a third MySQL table called "comment." In the HTML table below, "title" is a field in the MySQL table "submission." Every "title" has a corresponding "submissionid" field. The field "submissionid" is also found in the "comment" MySQL table. In the HTML table below, I would like "countComments" to equal the number of times a field called "commentid" appears in the MySQL table "comment" for any given "submissionid," where the "submissionid" is the same in both the "submission" and "comment" tables, and where the "submissionid" corresponds to the "title" being used. Here's the catch: if there is no row in the MySQL table "comment" that corresponds with the "submissionid" being used for "table", I would like "countComments" to equal to zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username FROM submission AS s, login AS l WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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  • Unserializing an API return object (PHP/Ebay API)

    - by DavidYell
    I have been working with the Ebay api for a project and have found it great. I have however found a problem now, more PHP related. When I read my items from Ebay, I store a bunch of details in the database. Currently, just for the sake of it really, I serialize the whole return object and store it in the database in a related table. The idea being, that when I display my information, I have all the details to hand should I need them. The problem arises in that the pricing information is always in a sub object. [ConvertedAdjustmentAmount] => __PHP_Incomplete_Class Object ( [__PHP_Incomplete_Class_Name] => eBayAmountType [_] => 0 [currencyID] => USD ) As you can see when I unserialize my object, my cunning plan falls foul of the Incomplete class problem. I have checked the following question, without success. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/965611/forcing-access-to-php-incomplete-class-object-properties The main issue lies, as far as I can see, in that the price class is stored in the Ebay api, so how do I recreate it? I have been reading this page, http://uk3.php.net/manual/en/function.unserialize.php and trying to figure out, unserialize_callback_func which I can't figure out either, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • Problem shrinking with StretchBlt()

    - by SparkyNZ
    Hi. I have some code that paints my own rectangular buttons based on a source bitmap. Most of the time the destination buttons are bigger than my source bitmap image and StretchBlt works fine. However, when the destination is smaller than the source image, StretchBlt refuses to fill the entire destination area. I know StretchBlt isn't great on quality when it comes to scaling down images but I'm not too concerned about that. I just don't want missing pixels. Here a link with the source image at the top and destination at the bottom: link text Note, I am actually shrinking parts of the source image into the destination. I am not shrinking the entire image down. So for example, I copy the corners size for size with BitBlt() then I stretch (squash) the horizontal pixel data between the corners from the source image into the destination DC. There is no fault with my source and destination coordinates. If I change from SRCCOPY to WHITENESS, the entire area fills with white as you'd expect. There is no grey bar where pixels haven't copied as you see in the Broken.bmp image above. Has anyone had this problem before, and if so, can somebody please suggest a solution? Cheers

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  • how to extract information from JSON using jQuery

    - by Richard Reddy
    Hi, I have a JSON response that is formatted from my C# WebMethod using the JavascriptSerializer Class. I currently get the following JSON back from my query: {"d":"[{\"Lat\":\"51.85036\",\"Long\":\"-8.48901\"},{\"Lat\":\"51.89857\",\"Long\":\"-8.47229\"}]"} I'm having an issue with my code below that I'm hoping someone might be able to shed some light on. I can't seem to get at the information out of the values returned to me. Ideally I would like to be able to read in the Lat and Long values for each row returned to me. Below is what I currently have: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "page.aspx/LoadWayPoints", data: "{'args': '" + $('numJourneys').val() + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { if (msg.d != '[]') { var lat = ""; var long = ""; $.each(msg.d, function () { lat = this['MapLatPosition']; long = this['MapLongPosition']; }); alert('lat =' + lat + ', long =' + long); } } }); I think the issue is something to do with how the JSON is formatted but I might be incorrect. Any help would be great. Thanks, Rich

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  • Python Loop for mysql statement

    - by user552974
    Hi, I have a project that i need to compile number of cities in each state and make an insert statement for mysql database. I think the easiest way to do it is via python but since i m a complete noob i would like to reach out all the python gurus here. Here is what the input looks like. Example below is for Florida. cities = ['Boca Raton', 'Boynton Beach', 'Bradenton', 'Cape Coral', 'Deltona'] and this what the output should be. INSERT INTO `oc_locations` (`idLocation`, `name`, `idLocationParent`, `friendlyName`) VALUES (1, 'Florida', 0, 'Florida'), (2, 'Boca Raton', 1, 'Boca Raton'), (3, 'Boynton Beach', 1, 'Boynton Beach'), (4, 'Bradenton', 1, 'Bradenton'), (5, 'Cape Coral', 1, 'Cape Coral'), (6, 'Deltona', 1, 'Deltona'), If you look at carefully the "idLocationParent" for "Florida" value is "0" so which means it is a top level value. This will be done for 50 states so ability to plug the state name into the mysql statement would be icing on the cake if there is a easy way to do it. Also alphabetical order and auto increment for the idLocation would be great. Here is an example of what i m trying to achieve concatenation is the part i need to figure out. for city in cities: print (1, 'city', 0, 'city'), city

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  • Rewarding iOS app beta testers with in app purchase?

    - by Partridge
    My iOS app is going to be free, but with additional functionality enabled via in app purchase. Currently beta testers are doing a great job finding bugs and I want to reward them for their hard work. I think the least I can do is give them a full version of the app so that they don't have to buy the functionality themselves. However, I'm not sure what the best way to do this is. There do not appear to be promo codes for in app purchase so I can't just email out promo codes. I have all the tester device UDIDs so when the app launches I could grab the device UDID and compare it to an internal list of 'approved' UDIDs. Is this what other developers do? My concerns: The in app purchase content would not be tied to their iTunes account, so if beta testers move to a new device they would not be able to enable the content unless I released a new build in the app store with their new UDID. So they may have to buy it eventually anyway. Having an internal list leaves a hole for hackers to modify the list and add themselves to it. What would you do?

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  • Forms authentication: disable redirect to the login page

    - by codeka
    I have an application that uses ASP.NET Forms Authentication. For the most part, it's working great, but I'm trying to add support for a simple API via an .ashx file. I want the ashx file to have optional authentication (i.e. if you don't supply an Authentication header, then it just works anonymously). But, depending on what you do, I want to require authentication under certain conditions. I thought it would be a simple matter of responding with status code 401 if the required authentication was not supplied, but it seems like the Forms Authentcation module is intercepting that and responding with a redirect to the login page instead. What I mean is, if my ProcessRequest method looks like this: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { Response.StatusCode = 401; Response.StatusDescription = "Authentication required"; } Then instead of getting a 401 error code on the client, like I expect, I'm actually getting a 302 redirect to the login page. For nornal HTTP traffic, I can see how that would be useful, but for my API page, I want the 401 to go through unmodified so that the client-side caller can respond to it programmatically instead. Is there any way to do that?

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  • Need some advice before starting coding my next iPhone app...

    - by Tom
    Hi! I need some advice about how should I start coding something. So here is the context: I've just finished building a CMS that manage a SQLite database. My application will be picking this database and use its content as the application's content. So far it's pretty simple. The application will have a navigation that will browse through various workflows, and once at the end workflow, it'll show contents from the database. A consultation kind a thing, example: Liquids - Juice - Orange Juice - Informations about Orange Juice. For my SQLite transactions, so far I believe I'll be using fmdb. It looks like a great wrapper. Here's a simple schema from one of the database: Workflow: id: { type: integer(3), primary: true, autoincrement: true } workflow_id: { type: integer(1) } name: { type: string(255) } That table's rows will be my navigations. Do you believe I should use a navigation controller? If so, then how could I generate the navigation tree from it? I have a good working knowledge of Objective-C and Foundation framework, but never went too far with it so that is why I'm asking before starting in the wrong direction :) Thanks a lot.

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  • Custom Android control with children

    - by Gromix
    Hi, I'm trying to create a custom Android control that contains a LinearLayout. You can think of it as an extended LinearLayout with fancy borders, a background, an image on the left... I could do it all in XML (works great) but since I have dozens of occurences in my app it's getting hard to maintain. I thought it would be nicer to have something like this: /* Main.xml */ <MyFancyLayout> <TextView /> /* what goes inside my control's linear layout */ </MyfancyLayout> How would you approach this? I'd like to avoid re-writing the whole linear layout onMeasure / onLayout methods. This is what I have for the moment: /* MyFancyLayout.xml */ <TableLayout> <ImageView /> <LinearLayout id="container" /> /* where I want the real content to go */ </TableLayout> and /* MyFancyLayout.java */ public class MyFancyLayout extends LinearLayout { public MyFancyLayout(Context context) { super(context); View.inflate(context, R.layout.my_fancy_layout, this); } } How would you go about inserting the user-specified content (the TextView in main.xml) in the right place (id=container)? Cheers! Romain ----- edit ------- Still no luck on this, so I changed my design to use a simpler layout and decided to live with a bit of repeated XML. Still very interested in anyone knows how to do this though!

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