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  • Theory of formal languages - Automaton

    - by dader51
    Hi everybody ! I'm wondering about formal languages. I have a kind of parser : It reads à xml-like serialized tree structure and turn it into a multidimmensionnal array. I figured out that i need at least three variables to achieve the job : $tree = array(); // a new array $pTree = array(&$tree); // a new array which the first element points to $tree; $deep = 0; plus the one containing the sentence splitted into words. My point is on the similarities between the algorithm deing used and the differents kinds of automatons ( state machines turing machines stack ... ). The $words variable is the "tape" of the automaton, the test/conditions of the algorithm are transitions, $deep is the state and $tree is the output. I cannont figure what is $pTree. So the question is : which is the automaton I implictly use here, and to which formal languages family does it fit ? And what's about recursion ?

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  • Passing control references as ref parameters

    - by Enmanuel
    Hi everyone. Please help me out here because im getting kind of confused.. I have a form in a C# winforms project and a couple of methods that are suposed to perform some tasks for this particular form and all derived ones, so one of those helper methods can make the example.. this one should fill comboboxes with a dataset. Its working properly now but when i coded the method with this signature protected void FillComboBox(kComboBox target, IEntClass_DA entity) { target.DataSource = entity.GetList().Tables[0]; target.DisplayMember = "name"; target.ValueMember = "id"; } I saw that the displayMember and ValueMember in the comboboxes were not holding the values after the method call. I just thought I should use ref parameters so the asignments are not wasted in read-only reference variables. It was ok by then but later, making an exercise of passing the whole form as a parameter I was warned by the compiler with the notice that this could not be passed as a ref parameter because it is read-only. Fine then, I keep working and see that even without the ref keyword i can use the ref variable from the form, update some properties and see the changes. So whats happening here: passing a reference of the control to the helper method gives me ability to change its members even when not using the ref parameter?? Thanks.

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  • How can I extend this SQL query to find the k nearest neighbors?

    - by Smigs
    I have a database full of two-dimensional data - points on a map. Each record has a field of the geometry type. What I need to be able to do is pass a point to a stored procedure which returns the k nearest points (k would also be passed to the sproc, but that's easy). I've found a query at http://blogs.msdn.com/isaac/archive/2008/10/23/nearest-neighbors.aspx which gets the single nearest neighbour, but I can't figure how to extend it to find the k nearest neighbours. This is the current query - T is the table, g is the geometry field, @x is the point to search around, Numbers is a table with integers 1 to n: DECLARE @start FLOAT = 1000; WITH NearestPoints AS ( SELECT TOP(1) WITH TIES *, T.g.STDistance(@x) AS dist FROM Numbers JOIN T WITH(INDEX(spatial_index)) ON T.g.STDistance(@x) < @start*POWER(2,Numbers.n) ORDER BY n ) SELECT TOP(1) * FROM NearestPoints ORDER BY n, dist The inner query selects the nearest non-empty region and the outer query then selects the top result from that region; the outer query can easily be changed to (e.g.) SELECT TOP(20), but if the nearest region only contains one result, you're stuck with that. I figure I probably need to recursively search for the first region containing k records, but without using a table variable (which would cause maintenance problems as you have to create the table structure and it's liable to change - there're lots of fields), I can't see how.

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  • MySQL - NULL value check and Dynamic SQL inside stored procedure

    - by Mithun P
    DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS HaveSomeFun; CREATE PROCEDURE HaveSomeFun(user_id CHAR(50),house_id CHAR(50),room_id CHAR(50),fun_text TEXT,video_url CHAR(100)) BEGIN DECLARE query_full TEXT; SET @fields_part = 'INSERT INTO fun(FunKey,UserKey,FunBody,LastModified'; SET @values_part = CONCAT(') VALUES( NewBinKey(), KeyToBin(\"', user_id, '\"), \"', fun_text, '\", NOW() '); IF (house_id) THEN SET @fields_part = CONCAT(@fields_part, ', HouseKey'); SET @values_part = CONCAT(@values_part, ', KeyToBin(\'', house_id, '\')'); END IF; IF (room_id) THEN SET @fields_part = CONCAT(@fields_part, ', RoomKey'); SET @values_part = CONCAT(@values_part, ', KeyToBin(\'', room_id, '\')'); END IF; IF (video_url IS NOT NULL) THEN SET @fields_part = CONCAT(@fields_part, ', VideoURL'); SET @values_part = CONCAT(@values_part, ', "', video_url, '"'); END IF; SET query_full = CONCAT(@fields_part, @values_part, ' );'); SET @query_full = query_full; PREPARE STMT FROM @query_full; EXECUTE STMT; SELECT query_full; END; And CALL HaveSomeFun('29B455DE-A9BC-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC', '', 'F82C47A8-64DE-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364', 'Jokes apart', ''); will construct the below string in the variable query_full INSERT INTO fun(FunKey,UserKey,FunBody,LastModified, VideoURL) VALUES( NewBinKey(), KeyToBin("29B455DE-A9BC-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC"), "Jokes apart", NOW() , "" ); But I need to get INSERT INTO fun(FunKey,UserKey,FunBody,LastModified, RoomKey, VideoURL) VALUES( NewBinKey(), KeyToBin("29B455DE-A9BC-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC"), "Jokes apart", NOW() , KeyToBin('F82C47A8-64DE-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364'), "" ); Something is missing in the check IF (room_id) THEN. But I cannot impose IF (room_id IS NOT NULL) THEN since it will create KeyToBin('') and RoomKey is foreign key , KeyToBin('') will produce an invalid RoomKey. Any Idea?

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  • CMBufferQueueCreate fail, required parameters?

    - by Agustin
    Reading the documentation about iOS SDK CMBufferQueueCreate, it says that getDuration and version are required, all the others callbacks can be NULL. but running the following code: CFAllocatorRef allocator; CMBufferCallbacks *callbacks; callbacks = malloc(sizeof(CMBufferCallbacks)); callbacks->version = 0; callbacks->getDuration = timeCallback; callbacks->refcon = NULL; callbacks->getDecodeTimeStamp = NULL; callbacks->getPresentationTimeStamp = NULL; callbacks->isDataReady = NULL; callbacks->compare = NULL; callbacks->dataBecameReadyNotification = NULL; CMItemCount capacity = 4; OSStatus s = CMBufferQueueCreate(allocator, capacity, callbacks, queue); NSLog(@"QUEUE: %x", queue); NSLog(@"STATUS: %i", s); with timeCallback: CMTime timeCallback(CMBufferRef buf, void *refcon){ return CMTimeMake(1, 1); } and queue is: CMBufferQueueRef* queue; queue creations fails (queue = 0) and returns a status of: kCMBufferQueueError_RequiredParameterMissing = -12761, The callbacks variable is correctly initialized, at least the debugger says so. Somebody have played arround with CMBufferQueue? google doesn't know about that! Thanks

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  • Getting PCM values of WAV files

    - by user2431088
    I have a .wav mono file (16bit,44.1kHz) and im using this code below. If im not wrong, this would give me an output of values between -1 and 1 which i can apply FFT on ( to be converted to a spectrogram later on). However, my output is no where near -1 and 1. This is a portion of my output 7.01214599609375 17750.2552337646 8308.42733764648 0.000274658203125 1.00001525878906 0.67291259765625 1.3458251953125 16.0000305175781 24932 758.380676269531 0.0001068115234375 This is the code which i got from another post Edit 1: public static Double[] prepare(String wavePath, out int SampleRate) { Double[] data; byte[] wave; byte[] sR = new byte[4]; System.IO.FileStream WaveFile = System.IO.File.OpenRead(wavePath); wave = new byte[WaveFile.Length]; data = new Double[(wave.Length - 44) / 4];//shifting the headers out of the PCM data; WaveFile.Read(wave, 0, Convert.ToInt32(WaveFile.Length));//read the wave file into the wave variable /***********Converting and PCM accounting***************/ for (int i = 0; i < data.Length; i += 2) { data[i] = BitConverter.ToInt16(wave, i) / 32768.0; } /**************assigning sample rate**********************/ for (int i = 24; i < 28; i++) { sR[i - 24] = wave[i]; } SampleRate = BitConverter.ToInt16(sR, 0); return data; }

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  • What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

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  • BindingList<T> and reflection!

    - by Aren B
    Background Working in .NET 2.0 Here, reflecting lists in general. I was originally using t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable)) to detect if a Property I was traversing supported the IEnumerable Interface. (And thus I could cast the object to it safely) However this code was not evaluating to True when the object is a BindingList<T>. Next I tried to use t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable)) and didn't have any luck either. Code /// <summary> /// Reflects an enumerable (not a list, bad name should be fixed later maybe?) /// </summary> /// <param name="o">The Object the property resides on.</param> /// <param name="p">The Property We're reflecting on</param> /// <param name="rla">The Attribute tagged to this property</param> public void ReflectList(object o, PropertyInfo p, ReflectedListAttribute rla) { Type t = p.PropertyType; //if (t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable))) if (t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable))) { IEnumerable e = p.GetValue(o, null) as IEnumerable; int count = 0; if (e != null) { foreach (object lo in e) { if (count >= rla.MaxRows) break; ReflectObject(lo, count); count++; } } } } The Intent I want to basically tag lists i want to reflect through with the ReflectedListAttribute and call this function on the properties that has it. (Already Working) Once inside this function, given the object the property resides on, and the PropertyInfo related, get the value of the property, cast it to an IEnumerable (assuming it's possible) and then iterate through each child and call ReflectObject(...) on the child with the count variable.

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  • Calling PHP functions within HEREDOC strings

    - by Doug Kavendek
    In PHP, the HEREDOC string declarations are really useful for outputting a block of html. You can have it parse in variables just by prefixing them with $, but for more complicated syntax (like $var[2][3]), you have to put your expression inside {} braces. In PHP 5, it is possible to actually make function calls within {} braces inside a HEREDOC string, but you have to go through a bit of work. The function name itself has to be stored in a variable, and you have to call it like it is a dynamically-named function. For example: $fn = 'testfunction'; function testfunction() { return 'ok'; } $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {$fn()} heredoc; As you can see, this is a bit more messy than just: $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {testfunction()} heredoc; There are other ways besides the first code example, such as breaking out of the HEREDOC to call the function, or reversing the issue and doing something like: ?> <!-- directly outputting html and only breaking into php for the function --> plain text and now a function: <?PHP print testfunction(); ?> The latter has the disadvantage that the output is directly put into the output stream (unless I'm using output buffering), which might not be what I want. So, the essence of my question is: is there a more elegant way to approach this? Edit based on responses: It certainly does seem like some kind of template engine would make my life much easier, but it would require me basically invert my usual PHP style. Not that that's a bad thing, but it explains my inertia.. I'm up for figuring out ways to make life easier though, so I'm looking into templates now.

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  • Passing row from UIPickerView to integer CoreData attribute

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I'm missing something here, and feeling like an idiot about it. I'm using a UIPickerView in my app, and I need to assign the row number to a 32-bit integer attribute for a Core Data object. To do this, I am using this method: -(void)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView didSelectRow:(NSInteger)row inComponent:(NSInteger)component { object.integerValue = row; } This is giving me a warning: warning: passing argument 1 of 'setIntegerValue:' makes pointer from integer without a cast What am I mixing up here? --EDIT 1-- Ok, so I can get rid of the errors by changing the method to do the following: NSNumber *number = [NSNumber numberWithInteger:row]; object.integerValue = rating; However, I still get a value of 0 for object.integerValue if I use NSLog to print it out. object.integerValue has a max value of 5, so I print out number instead, and then I'm getting a number above 62,000,000. Which doesn't seem right to me, since there are 5 rows. If I NSLog the row variable, I get a number between 0 and 5. So why do I end up with a completely different number after casting the number to NSNumber?

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  • Trying to use Rhino, getEngineByName("JavaScript") returns null in OpenJDK 7

    - by Yuval
    When I run the following piece of code, the engine variable is set to null when I'm using OepnJDK 7 (java-7-openjdk-i386). import javax.script.ScriptEngine; import javax.script.ScriptEngineManager; import javax.script.ScriptException; public class TestRhino { /** * @param args */ public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub ScriptEngineManager factory = new ScriptEngineManager(); ScriptEngine engine = factory.getEngineByName("JavaScript"); try { System.out.println(engine.eval("1+1")); } catch (ScriptException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } It runs fine with java-6-openjdk and Oracle's jre1.7.0. Any idea why? I'm using Ubuntu 11.10. All JVMs are installed under /usr/lib/jvm. I noticed OpenJDK 7 has a different directory structure. Perhaps something is not installed right? $ locate rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-openjdk/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-common/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-i386/jre/lib/rhino.jar Edit Since ScriptEngineManager uses a ServiceProvider to find the available script engines, I snooped around resources.jar's META-INF/services. I noticed that in OpenJDK 6, resources.jar has a META-INF/services/javax.script.ScriptEngineFactory entry which is missing from OpenJDK 7. Any idea why? I suspect this is a bug? Here is the contents of that entry (from OpenJDK 6): #script engines supported com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory #javascript Another edit Apparently, according to this thread, the code simply isn't there, perhaps because of merging issues between Sun and Mozilla code. I still don't understand why it was present in OpenJDK 6 and not 7. The class com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory exists in 6's rt.jar but not in 7's. If it was not meant to be included, why is there a OpenJDK 7 rhino.jar then; and why is the source still in the OpenJDK source tree (here)?

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  • Error in creating trigger using PHP script.. Please help!!!! Geeks

    - by Parth
    I've been successful in creating a simple trigger with a PHP script. The problem comes when I have to use "DELIMITER" in my trigger creating because I have nested if/then statements. For example, the following DOES work: $sql = 'CREATE TRIGGER `database`.`detail` BEFORE INSERT on `database`.`vibez_detail` FOR EACH ROW set @a=new.realtime_value'; $junk = mysqli_query($link, $sql); However, if I need to use "DELIMITER" I get errors galore. Here's what works if I go to the MySQL client at the server: DELIMITER $$; DROP TRIGGER `database`.`detail`$$ CREATE TRIGGER `database`.`detail` BEFORE INSERT on `database`.`vibez_detail` FOR EACH ROW BEGIN set new.data_rate = 69; insert into alarm_trips_parent values (null, new.data_rate, 6969, now()); set @tripped_time = now(); set @tripped:=true; end if; end if; END$$ DELIMITER ;$$ How can I construct the PHP code to get this to work? Seems the mysqli_query($link, $sql) chokes as soon as I put "DELIMITER" in the $sql variable. I get the following error when I attempt to do so: Error: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'DELIMITER //; CREATE TRIGGER `database`.`detail` BEFORE INS' at line 1 Even The concept for using mysqli_multi_query(); didn't worked for me.... :(

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  • mod_rewrite with question marks and ampersands (with PHP)

    - by Chris
    I have a PHP-based web app that I'm trying to apply Apache's mod_rewrite to. Original URLs are of the form: http://example.com/index.php?page=home&x=5 And I'd like to transform these into: http://example.com/home?x=5 Note that while rewriting the page name, I'm also effectively "moving" the question mark. When I try to do this, Apache happily performs this translation: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)\?(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] But it messes up the $_GET variables in PHP. For example, a call to http://example.com/home?x=88 yields only one $_GET variable (page => home). Where did x => 88 go? However, when I change my rule to use an ampersand rather than a question mark: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)&(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] a call like http://example.com/home&x=88 will work just as I'd expect it to (i.e. both the page and x $_GET variables are set appropriately). The difference is minimal I know, but I'd like my URL variables to "start" with a question mark, if it's possible. I'm sure this reflects my own misunderstanding of how mod_rewrite redirects interact with PHP, but it seems like I should be able to do this (one way or another). Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

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  • Am I Writing Assembly Or NASM?

    - by cam
    I'm fed up with this. I've been trying to just get a grip on assembly for awhile, but I feel like I'm coding towards my compiler rather than a language. I've been using this tutorial, and so far it's giving me hell. I'm using NASM, which may be the problem, but I figured it was the most popular one. I'm simply trying to learn the most general form of assembly, so I decided to learn x86. I keep running into stupid errors, like not being able to increment a variable. Here's the latest one: not being able to use div. mov bx, 0; mov cx, 0; jmp start; start: inc cx; mov ax, cx; div 3; <-- invalid combination of opcode and operand cmp ah,0; jz totalvalue; mov ax, cx; div 5; <-- invalid combination of opcode and operand cmp ah, 0; jz totalvalue; cmp cx, 1000; jz end; totalvalue: add bx,cx; jmp start; jmp end; end: mov ah,4ch; mov al,00; int 21h; Should I change compilers? It seems like division should be standard. Do I need to read two tutorials (one on NASM, and one on x86?). Any specific help on this problem?

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  • matching an element's class to another element's ID, or *part* of another element's ID

    - by shecky
    hello again Such a simple concept but I'm struggling to express it ... apologies in advance for my verbosity. I have a container div with a class, e.g., ; I want to use that class to do two things: add a class (e.g., 'active') to the nav element whose ID matches the class of div#container (e.g., #nav-primary li# apples) add the same class to another element if part of this element's ID matches the class of #container (e.g., div#secondary-apples) I assume there's an .each() loop to check the primary nav's list items' IDs, and to check the div IDs of the secondary nav ... though the latter needs to have its prefix trimmed ... or should I say more simply if the secondary nav div IDs contain the class of div#container? I've tried a few variations of something like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav-primary li').each(function(){ var containerClass = $('#container').attr('class'); var secondaryID = $('#nav-primary li').attr('id'); // something like if ('#nav-primary li id' == (containerClass) { } // or should I first store a variable of the LI's ID and do something like this: if ( secondaryID == containerClass ) { } // and for the trickier part, how do I filter/trim the secondary nav div IDs, something like this: var secondaryNavID = $('#aux-left div[id ... something here to strip the 'secondary-' bit ... ]'); }); // end each }); // end doc.ready.func </script> The markup is, e.g.: ... ... ... ... ... ... ... Many thanks in advance for any suggestions, svs

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  • Jquery ajax auto complete problem

    - by squeaker
    Hi all, I'm having newbie problems resolving an ajax autocomplete script if anyone would like to offer advise? In my form i wish for users to select an event type (drop down box) which on selecting then displays a text box. This text box then offers a user the ability to autocomplete as they start typing, the options having been generated through AJAX depending on the event type selected. I'm using a mix of http://pengoworks.com/workshop/jquery/autocomplete.htm - to carry out the autocomplete and some basic jquery to identify the value of the event type selected. The problem I have within the code below is to pass the selected event type value, set as the variable 'caturl', into the 'extraParams:{cat:4}' replacing the 4 with the event type dynamically selected. Any help would be greatly received. $('#select').change(function() { $('.eventtype').hide(); $('#eventtype' + $(this).find('option:selected').attr('id')).show(); caturl = $('#select :selected').val(); }); $("#CityAjax").autocomplete( 'caturl.php', { delay:10, minChars:2, matchSubset:1, matchContains:1, cacheLength:10, onItemSelect:selectItem, onFindValue:findValue, formatItem:formatItem, extraParams:{cat:4}, autoFill:true });

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  • Reading a large file into Perl array of arrays and manipulating the output for different purposes

    - by Brian D.
    Hello, I am relatively new to Perl and have only used it for converting small files into different formats and feeding data between programs. Now, I need to step it up a little. I have a file of DNA data that is 5,905 lines long, with 32 fields per line. The fields are not delimited by anything and vary in length within the line, but each field is the same size on all 5905 lines. I need each line fed into a separate array from the file, and each field within the line stored as its own variable. I am having no problems storing one line, but I am having difficulties storing each line successively through the entire file. This is how I separate the first line of the full array into individual variables: my $SampleID = substr("@HorseArray", 0, 7); my $PopulationID = substr("@HorseArray", 9, 4); my $Allele1A = substr("@HorseArray", 14, 3); my $Allele1B = substr("@HorseArray", 17, 3); my $Allele2A = substr("@HorseArray", 21, 3); my $Allele2B = substr("@HorseArray", 24, 3); ...etc. My issues are: 1) I need to store each of the 5905 lines as a separate array. 2) I need to be able to reference each line based on the sample ID, or a group of lines based on population ID and sort them. I can sort and manipulate the data fine once it is defined in variables, I am just having trouble constructing a multidimensional array with each of these fields so I can reference each line at will. Any help or direction is much appreciated. I've poured over the Q&A sections on here, but have not found the answer to my questions yet. Thanks!! -Brian

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  • grep 5 seconds of input from the serial port inside a shell-script

    - by pica
    I've got a device that I'm operating next to my PC and as it runs it's spitting log lines out it's serial port. I have this wired to my PC and I can see the log lines fine if I'm using either minicom or something like: ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 I want to write 5 seconds of the device serial output to a temp file (or assign it to a variable) and then later grep that file for keywords that will let me know how the device is operating. I've already tried redirecting the output to a file while running the command in the background, and then sleeping 5 seconds and killing the process, but the log lines never get written to my temp file. Example: touch tempFile ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 >> tempFile & serialPID=$! sleep 5 #kill ${serialPID} #does not work, gets wrong PID killall ttylog cat tempFile The file gets created but never filled with any data. I can also replace the ttylog line with: ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 |tee -a tempFile & In neither case do I ever see any log lines logged to stdout or the log file unless I have multiple versions of ttylog running by mistake (see commented out line, D'oh). I have no idea what's going on here. It seems to be a failure of redirection within my script. Am I on the right track? Is there a better way to sample 5 seconds of the serial port?

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  • Gadget vista error var with flyout

    - by Jiinn
    hello ! i have a problem with a variable for the flyout : var friendsUser = ""; var friendsMdp = ""; System.Gadget.Settings.write("variableName", variableName); System.Gadget.settingsUI = "Settings.html"; System.Gadget.onSettingsClosed = SettingsClosed; System.Gadget.Flyout.visible = SettingsClosed; function SettingsClosed() { variableName = System.Gadget.Settings.read("variableName"); friendsUser = System.Gadget.Settings.read("friendUser"); friendsMdp = System.Gadget.Settings.read("friendMdp"); setContentText(); } function flyFriends() { System.Gadget.Flyout.file = 'friends.htm'; System.Gadget.Flyout.show = true ; var flyoutDiv = System.Gadget.Flyout.document.parentWindow; flyoutDiv.gMyVar = friendsUser; flyoutDiv.gMyVar2 = friendsMdp; } If i use this my flyout var is undefined , and if i write : var friendsUser = "test"; i have Test in var and after use setting i have nothing ... if i write var in flyoutDiv before System.Gadget.Flyout.show = true ; gadget bug . my settings dont have a problem, but the refresh of the var ... have you a idea ? thank you for all !

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  • Cannot read value from SYS_CONTEXT

    - by AppleGrew
    I have a PL/SQL procedure which sets some variable in user session, like the following:- Dbms_Session.Set_Context( NAMESPACE =>'MY_CTX', ATTRIBUTE => 'FLAG_NAME', Value => 'some value'); Just after this (in the same procedure), I try to read the value of this flag, using:- SYS_CONTEXT('MY_CTX', 'FLAG_NAME'); The above returns nothing. How did the DB lose this value? The weirder part is that if I invoke this proc directly from Oracle SQL Developer then it works. It doesn't work when I invoke this proc from my web application from callable statement. --EDIT-- Added an example as to how we are invoking the proc from our Java code. String statement = "Begin package_name.proc_name( flag_val => :1); END;"; OracleCallableStatement st = <some object by some framework> .createCallableStatement(statement); st.setString(1, 'flag value'); st.execute(); st.close();

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  • What are the security implications of making a clientaccesspolicy proxy workaround?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I wanted to use a published GoogleDocs document as the datasource of a Silverlight application but ran into clientaccesspolicy issues. I read many articles like this and this about how difficult it is to get around the clientaccesspolicy issue. So I wrote this 15-line CURL script and put it on my PHP site and now I can get the text of any GoogleDocs document and any text from any URL into my Silverlight application: <?php $url = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'url',FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING); $user_agent = 'Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 5.01; Windows NT 5.0)'; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url ); // set url to post to curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 1); // Fail on errors curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 0); // allow redirects curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); // return into a variable curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 15); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 0); echo curl_exec($ch); ?> So it makes me wonder: Why is there so much discussion about whether or not URLs support clientaccesspolicy or not, since you just have to write a simple proxy script and get the information through it? Why aren't there services, e.g. like the URL shortening services, which supply this functionality? What are the security implications of having a script like this?

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  • is this uibutton autoreleased ?

    - by dubbeat
    HI This is just a question to check my sanity really. I'm hunting memory leaks that show up in instruments but not the static analyzer. In one spot the analyzer is pointing to this block of code UIButton *randomButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect ]; randomButton.frame = CGRectMake(205, 145, 90, 22); // size and position of button [randomButton setTitle:@"Random" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; randomButton.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; randomButton.adjustsImageWhenHighlighted = YES; [randomButton addTarget:self action:@selector(getrandom:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [self.view addSubview:randomButton]; For some reason I thought the above code would auto release the button because I'm not calling init or alloc? If I add [randombutton release] at the bottom of the code my button fails to show. Could somebody describe to me the correct way to release a button from memory that is created in the above way? Or would I be better off making the button a class variable and sticking the release in the dealloc method?

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  • Mixins, variadic templates, and CRTP in C++

    - by Eitan
    Here's the scenario: I'd like to have a host class that can have a variable number of mixins (not too hard with variadic templates--see for example http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/summary?doi=10.1.1.103.144). However, I'd also like the mixins to be parameterized by the host class, so that they can refer to its public types (using the CRTP idiom). The problem arises when trying to mix the too--the correct syntax is unclear to me. For example, the following code fails to compile with g++ 4.4.1: template <template<class> class... Mixins> class Host : public Mixins<Host<Mixins>>... { public: template <class... Args> Host(Args&&... args) : Mixins<Host>(std::forward<Args>(args))... {} }; template <class Host> struct Mix1 {}; template <class Host> struct Mix2 {}; typedef Host<Mix1, Mix2> TopHost; TopHost *th = new TopHost(Mix1<TopHost>(), Mix2<TopHost>()); With the error: tst.cpp: In constructor ‘Host<Mixins>::Host(Args&& ...) [with Args = Mix1<Host<Mix1, Mix2> >, Mix2<Host<Mix1, Mix2> >, Mixins = Mix1, Mix2]’: tst.cpp:33: instantiated from here tst.cpp:18: error: type ‘Mix1<Host<Mix1, Mix2> >’ is not a direct base of ‘Host<Mix1, Mix2>’ tst.cpp:18: error: type ‘Mix2<Host<Mix1, Mix2> >’ is not a direct base of ‘Host<Mix1, Mix2>’ Does anyone have successful experience mixing variadic templates with CRTP?

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  • Why Sql not bringing back results unless I set varchar size?

    - by Tom
    I've got an SQL script that fetches results based on the colour passed to it, but unless I set the size of the variable defined as a varchar to (50) no results are returned. If I use: like ''+@Colour+'%' then it works but I don't really want to use it in case it brings back results I don't need or want. The column FieldValue has a type of Varchar(Max) (which can't be changed as this field can store different things). It is part of aspdotnetstorefront package so I can't really change the tables or field types. This doesn't work: declare @Col VarChar set @Col = 'blu' select * from dbo.MetaData as MD where MD.FieldValue = @Colour But this does work: declare @Col VarChar (50) set @Col = 'blu' select * from dbo.MetaData as MD where MD.FieldValue = @Colour The code is used in the following context, but should work either way <query name="Products" rowElementName="Variant"> <sql> <![CDATA[ select * from dbo.MetaData as MD where MD.Colour = @Colour ]]> </sql> <queryparam paramname="@ProductID" paramtype="runtime" requestparamname="pID" sqlDataType="int" defvalue="0" validationpattern="^\d{1,10}$" /> <queryparam paramname="@Colour" paramtype="runtime" requestparamname="pCol" sqlDataType="varchar" defvalue="" validationpattern=""/> </query> Any Ideas?

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  • Warning in image_graphviz

    - by garcon1986
    Hello, I have got a warning in image_graphviz, i have viewed a post, who has a similar error. I have installed pear image_graphviz package(Image_GraphViz-1.2.1), I also installed graphviz.msi(Graphviz2.25.msi) in windows(But i don't know if does something with image_graphviz and if it does have some effects when i use image_graphviz). Do i need to do something else? Here is my code from pear image_graphviz site. <?php require_once 'Image/GraphViz.php'; error_reporting(E_ALL ^ E_NOTICE); //Added E_NOTICE $gv = new Image_GraphViz(); $gv->addEdge(array('wake up' => 'visit bathroom')); $gv->addEdge(array('visit bathroom' => 'make coffee')); $gv->image(); ?> This is the warning: Warning: fopen(C:\WINDOWS\Temp\gra50.tmp.svg) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: No such file or directory in C:\wamp\bin\php\php5.3.0\PEAR\Image\GraphViz.php on line 210 Notice: Undefined variable: data in C:\wamp\bin\php\php5.3.0\PEAR\Image\GraphViz.php on line 218 Thanks Pekka Gaiser, I used error_reporting(E_ALL ^ E_NOTICE);. I don't know how to change the temp directory, but c:/windows/temp exists in my computer. I haven't solve the problem. Thanks all for advice.

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