Search Results

Search found 1332 results on 54 pages for 'interaction'.

Page 45/54 | < Previous Page | 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52  | Next Page >

  • Many tables for many users?

    - by Seagull
    I am new to web programming, so excuse the ignorance... ;-) I have a web application that in many ways can be considered to be a multi-tenant environment. By this I mean that each user of the application gets their own 'custom' environment, with absolutely no interaction between those users. So far I have built the web application as a 'single user' environment. In other words, I haven't actually done anything to support multi-users, but only worked on the functionality I want from the app. Here is my problem... What's the best way to build a multi-user environment: All users point to the same 'core' backend. In other words, I build the logic to separate users via appropriate SQL queries (eg. select * from table where user='123' and attribute='456'). Each user points to a unique tablespace, which is built separately as they join the system. In this case I would simply generate ALL the relevant SQL tables per user, with some sort of suffix for the user. (eg. now a query would look like 'select * from table_ where attribute ='456'). In short, it's a difference between "select * from table where USER=" and "select * from table_USER".

    Read the article

  • Elegant solution to retrieve custom date and time?

    - by kefs
    I am currently using a date and time picker to retrieve a user-submitted date and time, and then I set a control's text to the date and time selected. I am using the following code: new DatePickerDialog(newlog3.this, d, calDT.get(Calendar.YEAR), calDT.get(Calendar.MONTH), calDT.get(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH)).show(); new TimePickerDialog(newlog3.this, t, calDT.get(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY), calDT.get(Calendar.MINUTE), true).show(); optCustom.setText(fmtDT.format(calDT.getTime())); Now, while the above code block does bring up the date and time widgets and sets the text, the code block is being executed in full before the user can select the date.. ie: It brings up the date box first, then the time box over that, and then updates the text, all without any user interaction. I would like the date widget to wait to execute the time selector until the date selection is done, and i would like the settext to execute only after the time widget is done. How is this possible? Or is there is a more elegant solution that is escaping me? Edit: This is the code for DatePickerDialog/TimePickerDialog which is located within the class: DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener d=new DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener() { public void onDateSet(DatePicker view, int year, int monthOfYear, int dayOfMonth) { calDT.set(Calendar.YEAR, year); calDT.set(Calendar.MONTH, monthOfYear); calDT.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, dayOfMonth); //updateLabel(); } }; TimePickerDialog.OnTimeSetListener t=new TimePickerDialog.OnTimeSetListener() { public void onTimeSet(TimePicker view, int hourOfDay, int minute) { calDT.set(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY, hourOfDay); calDT.set(Calendar.MINUTE, minute); //updateLabel(); } }; Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Python: need to get energies of charge pairs.

    - by Two786
    I am new to python. I have to make a program for a project that takes a PDB format file as input and returns a list of all the intra-chain and inter-chain charge pairs and their energies (using coulomb’s law assuming a dielectric constant of (?) of 40.0). For simplicity, the charged residues for this program are just Arg (CZ), Lys (NZ), Asp (CG) and Glu (CD) with the charge bearing atoms for each indicated in parentheses. The program should report any attractive or repulsive interactions within 8.0 Å. Here is some additional information needed for the program. Eij = energy of interaction between atoms i and j in kilocalories/mole (kcals/mol) qi = charge for atom i (+1 for Lys or Arg, -1 for Glu or Asp) rij = distance between atoms i and j in angstroms using the distance formula The output should adhere to the following format: First residue : Second residue Distance Energy Lys 10 Chain A: ASP 46 Chain A D= 4.76 ang E= -2.32 kcals/mol (For some reason I can't organize the top two rows, but the first row should be lables and below it the corresponding values.) I really have no idea how to tackle this problem, any and all help is greatly appreciated. I hope this is the right place to ask. Thank you in advance. Using python 2.5

    Read the article

  • Getting hover text with selenium in java

    - by BinaryEmpire
    I am trying to figure out how to get the product availability text from a page like http://www.walmart.com/browse/TV-Video/TVs/_/N-96v3? (once a store has been selected) I selected 76574 as my zipcode and went to the "In My Store" tab The code I have now is WebElement hoverElement = driver.findElement(By.xpath(".//*[@id='Body_15992428']/span")); WebElement hidden = driver.findElement(By.xpath(".//*[@id='slapInfo_NoVariant_15992428']/div")); Actions builder = new Actions(driver); builder.clickAndHold(hoverElement).build().perform(); System.out.println(hidden.getText()); **Edit: I tried profile.setEnableNativeEvents(false); and the text is now displayed in the automated browser window. I still cannot get to the text I want though. It does not throw an exception, only displays nothing because the driver thinks its still hidden. Any one know how to fix this? I keep getting Exception in thread "main" org.openqa.selenium.InvalidElementStateException: Cannot perform native interaction: Could not load native events component. Even after I do profile.setEnableNativeEvents(true); Are there any other ways I can get the hidden text, or what am I doing wrong here? Additionally while I was inspecting the code with firebug, I saw that there is this code <script type="text/javascript"> WALMART.$(document).ready(function(){ WALMART.$('#Body_15992428').hover(function(){ WALMART.$('#SeeStoreAvailBubble').wmBubble('update',WALMART.$('#bubbleMsgUpdate_15992428').html()); }); }); </script> I dont really know how to do things directly with javascript but is there is any way of getting the message text directly from that with a javascript executor?

    Read the article

  • Why does the BackgroundWorker in WPF need Thread.Sleep to update UI controls?

    - by user364060
    namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { BackgroundWorker bgWorker; Action<int> myProgressReporter; public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); bgWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); bgWorker.DoWork += bgWorker_Task; bgWorker.RunWorkerCompleted += myWorker_RunWorkerCompleted; // hook event to method bgWorker.ProgressChanged += bgWorker_ReportProgress; // hook the delegate to the method myProgressReporter = updateProgress; bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress = true; } private void myWorker_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, System.ComponentModel.RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { object result; result = e.Result; MessageBox.Show(result.ToString()); progressBar1.Value = 0; button1.IsEnabled = true; } private void bgWorker_ReportProgress(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher disp = button1.Dispatcher; disp.BeginInvoke(myProgressReporter,e.ProgressPercentage); //Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(myProgressReporter, DispatcherPriority.Normal, e.ProgressPercentage); } private void updateProgress(int progressPercentage) { progressBar1.Value = progressPercentage; } private void bgWorker_Task(Object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { int total = 1000; for (int i = 1; i <= total; i++) { if (bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress) { int p = (int)(((float)i / (float)total) * 100); bgWorker.ReportProgress(p); } Thread.Sleep(1); // Without Thread.Sleep(x) the main thread freezes or gives stackoverflow exception, } e.Result = "Completed"; } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { if(!bgWorker.IsBusy) bgWorker.RunWorkerAsync("This is a background process"); button1.IsEnabled = false; } } }

    Read the article

  • sqlite database help

    - by mamila
    Hi all i have some questions regarding database in android. 1. in my project, I would like to create a database with single table. i would also like to insert data on this table from word or excel document. is it possible? if so please how can i do it? some code snippets would be of great help. 2. i have four different activities which i would like them to interact with this single table. the first is the main activity and its purpose is just to launch the other three activities according to user choice. so it has no interaction with the db. but the other three activities will read from the table whenever called. can you please tell me how to call the dbhelper on these activities. am kind of unable to do this.and am currently creating one db per each activity which is not the optimal way. any help is really appreciated and would be better if very soon tahnks

    Read the article

  • Choosing approach for an IM client-server app

    - by John
    Update: totally re-wrote this to be more succint. I'm looking at a new application, one part of which will be very similar to standard IM clients, i.e text chat, ability to send attachments, maybe some real-time interaction like a multi-user whiteboard. It will be client-server, i.e all traffic goes through my central server. That means if I want to support cross-communication with other IM systems, I am still free to pick any protocol for my own client<--server communication - my server can use XMPP or whatever to talk to other systems. Clients are expected to include desktop apps, but probably also browser-based as well either through Flex/Silverlight or HTML/AJAX. I see 3 options for my own client-server communication layer: XMPP. The benefits are clients already exist as do open-source servers. However it requires the most up-front research/learning and also appears like it might raise legal issues due to GPL. Custom sockets. A server app makes connections with the clients, allowing any text/binary data to be sent very fast. However this approach requires building said server from scratch, and also makes a JS client tricky Servlets (or similar web server). Using tried and tested Java web-stack, clients send HTTP requests similar to AJAX-based websites. The benefit is the server is easy to write using well-established technologies, and easy to talk to. But what restrictions would this bring? Is it appropriate technology for real-time communication? Advice and suggests are welcome, especially what pros and cons surround using a web-server approach as compared to a socket-based approach.

    Read the article

  • Permission Denied error in IE when closing popups

    - by Kenia
    Hi everyone! I have a simple web testing application which is supposed to open and close several popups by itself (without user interaction). For this purpose i have a javascript function to access the variable where the popup reference is stored and close it if it´s not null, fairly simple. However I get random errors in IE (in FF it works as expected, all popups are closed correctly) like Message: No such interface supported Line: 86 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://10.10.0.61:10000/savmailer/adm/tests/common_tests_code.js and Message: Permission denied Line: 86 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://10.10.0.61:10000/savmailer/adm/tests/common_tests_code.js The line 86 references exactly the point at which I do popup.close(); in the following function function closePopupWindow(popup){ if (popup != null) { popup.close(); popup = null; } } I have googled and it seems this permission denied error is quite common to come through among IE developers, however there´s no clear solution for it, it´s just a matter of changing the code slightly "to please" IE, so to speak. However i have no idea how to change mine since it´s just 3 lines! Tried also to change the security browser settings by adding my domain to the trusted zone, but nothing, doesn't help either. If anyone has any helpful idea or notices something i might be forgetting, please, reply to this! Thanks in advance, Kenia

    Read the article

  • How to re-enable the idle timer in ios once it has been disabled (to allow the display to sleep again)?

    - by lindon fox
    I have figured out how to stop an iOS device from going to sleep (see below), but I am having troubles undoing that setting. According to the Apple Documentation, it should just be changing the value of the idleTimerDisabled property. But when I test this, it does not work. This is how I am initially stopping the device from going to sleep: //need to switch off and on for it to work initially [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = NO; [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = YES; I would have thought that the following would do the trick: [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = NO; From the Apple Documentation: The default value of this property is NO. When most applications have no touches as user input for a short period, the system puts the device into a "sleep” state where the screen dims. This is done for the purposes of conserving power. However, applications that don't have user input except for the accelerometer—games, for instance—can, by setting this property to YES, disable the “idle timer” to avert system sleep. Important: You should set this property only if necessary and should be sure to reset it to NO when the need no longer exists. Most applications should let the system turn off the screen when the idle timer elapses. This includes audio applications. With appropriate use of Audio Session Services, playback and recording proceed uninterrupted when the screen turns off. The only applications that should disable the idle timer are mapping applications, games, or similar programs with sporadic user interaction. Has anyone come across this problem? I am testing on iOS6 and iOS5. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is starting to use CDATA a breaking change?

    - by kicsit
    For interaction with a customer's application we use XML documents. That is, we send an XML over HTTP and receive a response XML document the same way. The customer specified two XML schemata that describe the format of both the request and reply. All was working fine, until one day the customer started to use CDATA sections in the response XML. We set up our parser unmindful of CDATA sections, so we failed to interpret them. My question is: Who made a mistake here? I tried to find an answer in the XML standards, but I'm still not sure. I think I cannot prescribe using or not using CDATA's in an XSD, is that right? If so, is it not enough to agree upon an XSD, but a separate agreement has to be made about CDATA sections? Or one is obliged to be prepared to parse CDATA and regular text as well? I'm interested in both your personal views and official statements too. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Can't use method from class in other file

    - by user1833848
    I am not able to use one of my methods that i implemented in my tableviewcell file in my tableview controller implementation. I tried searching the web and xcode help with no luck. My codes looks like this: TableViewController.h: #import TableViewCell.h @interface TableViewController : UITableViewController @property (nonatomic, strong) IBOutlet UIBarButtonItem *A1Buy; @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender; TableViewController.m: @implementation A1ViewController @synthesize A1Buy = _A1Buy; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender { [TableViewCell Enable]; //this is where it gives an error } TableViewCell.h: @interface TableViewCell : UITableViewCell { BOOL Enable; BOOL Disable; } @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; TableViewCell.m: @implementation TableViewCell; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (BOOL) Enable { return userInteractionEnabled = YES; } - (BOOL) Disable { return userInteractionEnabled = NO; } As you can see i am trying to enable user interaction with a button, but Xcode only gives me errors like "class does not have this method" and stuff like that. All files are importet correctly so thats not why. Would appreciate any help. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • EF4 querying through the generations

    - by Hans Kesting
    I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select it's grandchildren. Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing needed methods like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

    Read the article

  • loading remote page into DOM with javascript

    - by scoobydoo
    I am trying to write a web widget which will allow users to display customized information (from my website) in their own web page. The mechanism I want to use (for creating the web widget) is javascript. So basically, I want to be able to write some javascript code like this (this is what the end user copies into their HTML page, to get my widget displayed in their page) <script type="text/javascript"> /* javascript here to fetch page from remote url and insert into DOM */ </script> I have two questions: how do I write a javascript code to fetch the page from the remote url? Ideally this will be PLAIN javascript (i.e. not using jQuery etc - since I dont want to force the user to get third party scripts jQuery which may conflict with other scripts on their page etc) The page I am fetching contains inline javascript, which gets executed in an body.onLoad event, as well as other functions which are used in response to user actions - my questions are: i). will the body.onLoad event be triggered for the retrieved document?. ii). If the retrieved page is dumped directly into the DOM, then the document will contain two <body> sections, which is no longer valid (X)HTML - however, I need the body.onLoad event to be triggered for the page to be setup correctly, and I also need the other functions in the retrieved page, for the retrieved page to be able to respond to the user interaction. Any suggestions/tips on how I can solve these problems?

    Read the article

  • How to store arbitrary data for some HTML tags

    - by nickf
    I'm making a page which has some interaction provided by javascript. Just as an example: links which send an AJAX request to get the content of articles and then display that data in a div. Obviously in this example, I need each link to store an extra bit of information: the id of the article. The way I've been handling it in case was to put that information in the href link this: <a class="article" href="#5"> I then use jQuery to find the a.article elements and attach the appropriate event handler. (don't get too hung up on the usability or semantics here, it's just an example) Anyway, this method works, but it smells a bit, and isn't extensible at all (what happens if the click function has more than one parameter? what if some of those parameters are optional?) The immediately obvious answer was to use attributes on the element. I mean, that's what they're for, right? (Kind of). <a articleid="5" href="link/for/non-js-users.html"> In my recent question I asked if this method was valid, and it turns out that short of defining my own DTD (I don't), then no, it's not valid or reliable. A common response was to put the data into the class attribute (though that might have been because of my poorly-chosen example), but to me, this smells even more. Yes it's technically valid, but it's not a great solution. Another method I'd used in the past was to actually generate some JS and insert it into the page in a <script> tag, creating a struct which would associate with the object. var myData = { link0 : { articleId : 5, target : '#showMessage' // etc... }, link1 : { articleId : 13 } }; <a href="..." id="link0"> But this can be a real pain in butt to maintain and is generally just very messy. So, to get to the question, how do you store arbitrary pieces of information for HTML tags?

    Read the article

  • My HTML5 web app crashes and I have no clue how to debug

    - by Shouvik
    Hi All, I have written a word game using HTML5 canvas tag and a little bit of audio. I developed the application on the chrome web browser on a linux system. Recently during the testing phase it was tried on safari 5.0.3 on Mac and the webpage froze. Not just the canvas element, but interactive element on the page froze. I have at some times experienced this problem on google chrome when I was developing but since the console did not throw any error before this happened, I did not give it much credence. Now as per requirements I am supposed to support both chrome and safari but this dismal performance on safari has left me shocked and I cannot see what error can be thrown which might lead to such a situation. Worse yet the CPU usage on using this application peaks to 70-80percent on my 2yr old macbook running ubuntu... I can only but pity the person who uses mac to operate this app, which undoubtedly is a heavier OS. Could someone help me out with a place I can start with to find out what exactly is causing this issue. I have run profiles on this webapp on google chromes console and noticed that in the heap spanshot value increases steadily with the playing of the game, specifically (root) value which jumps up by 900 counts. Any help would be very appreciated! Thanks EDIT: I don't know if this helps, but I have noticed that even on refreshing the page after the app becomes unresponsive the page reloads and I am still not able to interact with the page elements but the tab scroll bar continues to work and I can see my application window completely. So to summaries the tab stops accepting any sort of user interaction inside the page. Edit2: Nop. It doesn't work still... The app crashes on double click on the canvas element. The console is not throwing any errors either! =/ I have noticed this problem is isolated only to safari!

    Read the article

  • Comparing lists of field-hashes with equivalent AR-objects.

    - by Tim Snowhite
    I have a list of hashes, as such: incoming_links = [ {:title => 'blah1', :url => "http://blah.com/post/1"}, {:title => 'blah2', :url => "http://blah.com/post/2"}, {:title => 'blah3', :url => "http://blah.com/post/3"}] And an ActiveRecord model which has fields in the database with some matching rows, say: Link.all => [<Link#2 @title='blah2' @url='...post/2'>, <Link#3 @title='blah3' @url='...post/3'>, <Link#4 @title='blah4' @url='...post/4'>] I'd like to do set operations on Link.all with incoming_links so that I can figure out that <Link#4 ...> is not in the set of incoming_links, and {:title => 'blah1', :url =>'http://blah.com/post/1'} is not in the Link.all set, like so: #pseudocode #incoming_links = as above links = Link.all expired_links = links - incoming_links missing_links = incoming_links - links expired_links.destroy missing_links.each{|link| Link.create(link)} One route I've tried: I'd rather not rewrite Array#- and such, and I'm okay with converting incoming_links to a set of unsaved Link objects; so I've tried overwriting hash eql? and so on in Link so that it ignored the id equality that AR::Base provides by default. But this is the only place this sort of equality should be considered in the application - in other places the Link#id default identity is required. Is there some way I could subclass Link and apply the hash, eql?, etc overwriting there? The other route I've tried is to pull out the attributes hash for each Link and doing a .slice('id',...etc) to prune the hashes down. But this requires writing seperate methods for keeping track of the Link objects while doing set operations on the hashes, or writing seperate Collection classes to wrap the incoming_links hash-list and Link-list which seems a bit overkill. What is the best way to design this interaction? Extra credit for cleanliness.

    Read the article

  • Detect if Download is Complete

    - by user604138
    I have a very simple and standard PHP force download script. How do I check if/when the download has completed in order to notify the user on the clientside? I don't even need to show the progress in real time, I am only interested in the very specific event: "when the download completes". Based on my research, it seems like it would have to be determined from the serverside as there is noondownloadready event and I don't think it is possible to intercept browser events. So it seems that my best bet would be to compare bytes sent to total bytes with some sort of clientside/severside interaction. How would I go about checking the bytes sent from the server for a PHP forced download? is there some sort of global PHP variable that store these data that I can ping with AJAX? <?php header("Content-Type: video/x-msvideo"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=\"".basename($realpath)."\";"); ... $chunksize = 1 * (1024 * 1024); // how many bytes per chunk if ($size > $chunksize) { $handle = fopen($realpath, 'rb'); $buffer = ''; while (!feof($handle)) { $buffer = fread($handle, $chunksize); echo $buffer; ob_flush(); flush(); } fclose($handle); } else { readfile($realpath); } exit(); ?> The reason I need this: For the project I am working on, it is required that after the download starts, the page redirects to (or displays) a "please wait while the download completes" page. Then, once it is complete, it should redirect to (or display) a "Your download is complete, thank you" page. I am open to other ideas that would achieve the same result.

    Read the article

  • Disable a form and all contained elements until an ajax query completes (or another solution to prev

    - by Max Williams
    I have a search form with inputs and selects, and when any input/select is changed i run some js and then make an ajax query with jquery. I want to stop the user from making further changes to the form while the request is in progress, as at the moment they can initiate several remote searches at once, effectively causing a race between the different searches. It seems like the best solution to this is to prevent the user from interacting with the form while waiting for the request to come back. At the moment i'm doing this in the dumbest way possible by hiding the form before making the ajax query and then showing it again on success/error. This solves the problem but looks horrible and isn't really acceptable. Is there another, better way to prevent interaction with the form? To make things more complicated, to allow nice-looking selects, the user actually interacts with spans which have js hooked up to them to tie them to the actual, hidden, selects. So, even though the spans aren't inputs, they are contained in the form and represent the actual interactive elements of the form. Grateful for any advice - max. Here's what i'm doing now: function submitQuestionSearchForm(){ //bunch of irrelevant stuff var questionSearchForm = jQuery("#searchForm"); questionSearchForm.addClass("searching"); jQuery.ajax({ async: true, data: jQuery.param(questionSearchForm.serializeArray()), dataType: 'script', type: 'get', url: "/questions", success: function(msg){ //more irrelevant stuff questionSearchForm.removeClass("searching"); }, error: function(msg){ questionSearchForm.removeClass("searching"); } }); return true; }

    Read the article

  • Questions about shifting from mysql to PDO

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have recently decided to switch all my current plain mysql queries performed with php mysql_query to PDO style queries to improve performance, portability and security. I just have some quick questions for any experts in this database interaction tool Will it prevent injection if all statements are prepared? (I noticed on php.net it wrote 'however, if other portions of the query are being built up with unescaped input, SQL injection is still possible' I was not exactly sure what this meant). Does this just mean that if all variables are run through a prepare function it is safe, and if some are directly inserted then it is not? Currently I have a connection at the top of my page and queries performed during the rest of the page. I took a look at PDO in more detail and noticed that there is a try and catch procedure for every query involving a connection and the closing of that connection. Is there a straightforward way to connecting and then reusing that connection without having to put everything in a try or constantly repeat the procedure by connecting, querying and closing? Can anyone briefly explain in layman's terms what purpose a set_exception_handler serves? I appreciate any advice from any more experienced individuals.

    Read the article

  • How to give "Share with" option while opening documents in iphone mail

    - by rishabh
    So I've been going through the "Document Interaction Programming Topics for iOS". I've been able to achieve the "Open with myapp" option through Mail, was wondering how can I change the option to "Share with myapp" depending upon the file types specified? This is what I've tried: <key>CFBundleDocumentTypes</key> <array> <dict> <key>CFBundleTypeName</key> <string>Document</string> <key>LSHandlerRank</key> <string>Alternate</string> <key>CFBundleTypeRole</key> <string>Owner</string> <key>LSItemContentTypes</key> <array> <string>public.data</string> </array> </dict> </array>

    Read the article

  • How can I avoid garbage collection delays in Java games? (Best Practices)

    - by Brian
    I'm performance tuning interactive games in Java for the Android platform. Once in a while there is a hiccup in drawing and interaction for garbage collection. Usually it's less than one tenth of a second, but sometimes it can be as large as 200ms on very slow devices. I am using the ddms profiler (part of the Android SDK) to search out where my memory allocations come from and excise them from my inner drawing and logic loops. The worst offender had been short loops done like, for(GameObject gob : interactiveObjects) gob.onDraw(canvas); where every single time the loop was executed there was an iterator allocated. I'm using arrays (ArrayList) for my objects now. If I ever want trees or hashes in an inner loop I know that I need to be careful or even reimplement them instead of using the Java Collections framework since I can't afford the extra garbage collection. That may come up when I'm looking at priority queues. I also have trouble where I want to display scores and progress using Canvas.drawText. This is bad, canvas.drawText("Your score is: " + Score.points, x, y, paint); because Strings, char arrays and StringBuffers will be allocated all over to make it work. If you have a few text display items and run the frame 60 times a second that begins to add up and will increase your garbage collection hiccups. I think the best choice here is to keep char[] arrays and decode your int or double manually into it and concatenate strings onto the beginning and end. I'd like to hear if there's something cleaner. I know there must be others out there dealing with this. How do you handle it and what are the pitfalls and best practices you've discovered to run interactively on Java or Android? These gc issues are enough to make me miss manual memory management, but not very much.

    Read the article

  • Windows Server 2003 IPSec Tunnel Connected, But Not Working (Possibly NAT/RRAS Related)

    - by Kevinoid
    Configuration I have setup a "raw" IPSec tunnel between a Windows Server 2003 (SBS) machine and a Netgear FVG318 according to the instructions in Microsoft KB816514. The configuration is as follows (using the same conventions as the article): NetA | SBS2003 | FVG318 | NetB 10.0.0.0/24 | 216.x.x.x | 69.y.y.y | 10.0.254.0/24 Both the Main Mode and Quick Mode Security Associations are successfully completed and appear in the IP Security Monitor. I am also able to ping the SBS2003 server on its private address from any computer on NetB. The Problem Any traffic sent from a computer on NetA to NetB, or from SBS2003 to NetB (excluding ICMP Ping responses), is sent out on the public network interface outside the IPSec tunnel (no encryption or header authentication, as if the tunnel were not there). Pings sent from a computer on NetB to a computer on NetA successfully reach computers on NetA, but the responses are silently discarded by SBS2003 (they do not go out in the clear and do not generate any encrypted traffic). Possible Solutions Incorrect Configuration I could have mistyped something, somewhere, or KB816514 could be incorrect in some way. I have tried very hard to eliminate the first option. Have re-created the configuration several times, tried tweaking and adjusting all the settings I could without success (most prevent the SA from being established). NAT/RRAS I have seen multiple posts elsewhere suggesting that this could be due to interaction between NAT and the IPSec filters. Possibly the NetA private addresses get rewritten to 216.x.x.x before being compared with the Quick Mode IPSec filters and don't get tunneled because of the mismatch. In fact, The Cable Guy article from June 2005 "TCP/IP Packet Processing Paths" suggests that this is the case, (see step 2 and 4 of the Transit Traffic path). If this is the case, is there a way to exclude NetA-NetB traffic from NAT? Any thoughts, ideas, suggestions, and/or comments are appreciated. Update (2011-06-26) After failing to solve the problem, I resorted to paid Microsoft support. They were unable to solve the problem. Since then I have implemented a solution based on Linux that is working quite well. I will attempt to evaluate any proposed answers as best I can, but current configurations and time constraints will make this slow...

    Read the article

  • SQL 2008 R2 Named Instance Client Connectivity Issues?

    - by Jerry Dodge
    We're upgrading our software from using SQL 2000 to 2008 R2. Our customers will be installing an update which uninstalls 2000 and installs 2008 R2 under the same instance. So if no instance existed, then no instance name will be set (default). However, the problem starts with the customers which have a named SQL instance. Starting in 2008 R2 (not sure of ones before), for some reason, a client connecting to the server by its instance name is unsuccessful. I'm testing from the Management Studio - if I can't connect this, then nothing can connect. I browse network servers, and find the specific server\instance in the list. But, upon trying to connect to an instance name like MyServer\INST, I get: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: -1) I do in fact have TCP/IP and Named Pipes protocols enabled, this is the first thing I did. When I connect to the server using a comma (,) and port number like MyServer, 49195, it works just fine. So it appears that client computers are just unable to identify the instance names. This has happened on all our installations of SQL 2008 R2 and from all client computers, including Win 7, XP, Vista, Server 2008, and Server 2003. We never experienced such issues on earlier versions of SQL. The problem even persists if the firewalls and antiviruses are all disabled. Now, this is a large update which we will be distributing soon to all our customers, and we want to minimize the interaction they need with us to get this installed. We absolutely hate the idea of using a port number, because it will always be different, and we would have to modify each client to point to this server/port. Some of our customers may have hundreds of client computers. How do I make client connections to a named SQL instance work again? After all, this is the whole purpose of named instances, and if a client can't connect to this instance by its name, then what is it even named for? EDIT It was mentioned to make sure SQL Browser is running, so I checked, and it is running. The server is also able to connect to its self (locally) - just external connections are refused. UPDATE After more careful checking, I learned the firewall wasn't completely disabled when testing, and upon disabling it completely, this works. So it appears that SQL Browser is being blocked by the firewall from external clients from accessing.

    Read the article

  • Linux bonded Interfaces hanging periodically

    - by David
    I've several hosts that are showing problems with connectivity. When working from the command line, for example, typing is frozen for a second or so, then recovers - then it does it again. The most egregious example host would freeze (input) for 15-30 seconds, then recover and go out 5 seconds later. Switching cables didn't do anything - but removing one of the physical cables caused everything to clear up instantly (which why I think this is a network problem). Looking at the network I couldn't see any packets floating that would explain this. These ethernet interfaces (Gigabit Dell) were working normally previously, but since we moved the systems - and put them on a new set of switches - this has been a problem on multiple theoretically identically-configured hosts. The original switches were an HP Procurve 1810-24G and an HP Procurve 1800-24G connected with LLDP; the new switches are both Cisco SG 200-26, which I understand are rebranded Linksys switches. Is this caused by a problem with the switches? Is it the switch configurations? Are the Cisco switches incapable of handling this? I don't see where the configuration is located; I searched the usual /etc/sysconfig/network/devices but there's nothing in there about options (like mii polling) and nothing about the method of balancing the two. Searching scripts, I can't find anything in /etc/init.d/network either. The hosts are almost all Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5.x systems (5.6, 5.7) but some are Ubuntu Server 10.04.3 Lucid Lynx. I need help with both if it comes to that. UPDATE: We're also seeing some problems with servers on the original switches. The HP switches and the Cisco switches are also interconnected (temporarily); there is a cable run from one switch to the next. Pings on any of these hosts show about one ICMP packet out of every 5-6 getting dropped (timed out). Could there be an interaction between the two switches? Oh, and the hosts are using bonding with Balance-RR as the method.

    Read the article

  • Managing hosts and iptables in scalable architecture

    - by hakunin
    Let's say I have a load balancer in front of 3 app servers. Let's say I also have these services available at certain IPs: Postgres server Redis server ElasticSearch server Memcached server 1 Memcached server 2 Memcached server 3 So that's 6 nodes at 6 different IP addresses. Naturally, every one of my 3 app servers needs to talk to these 6 servers above. Then, to make it a bit funkier, I also have 3 worker servers. And each worker also talks to the above 6 servers, but thankfully workers and apps never need to talk to each other. Now's the kicker. Everything is on Digital Ocean VPS. What that means is: you have no private network, no private IPs. You only have separate, random IP address on each machine. You can't mask them or anything. So in order to build a secure environment I would have to configure some iptables. For example: Open app servers be accessed by load balancer server Open redis, ES, PG, and each memcached servers to be accessed by each app's IP and each worker's IP This means that every time I add an app or worker I have to also reconfigure iptables in those above 6 servers to welcome the new app or worker. Is there a way to simplify this type of setup? I was thinking — what if there was a gateway machine between apps/workers and the above 6 machines. This way all the interaction would always happen via the gateway server, and when I add a new app or worker I wouldn't need to teach the 6 servers to let it in. If I went this route, then I'd hope a small 512mb server could handle that perhaps, and there wouldn't be almost any overhead. Or would there? Please help with best way to handle this situation. I would appreciate an answer as concrete as possible. I don't think this is too specific, because this general architecture is very common, and Digital Ocean is becoming increasingly popular. A concrete solution here would be much appreciated by many.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52  | Next Page >