Search Results

Search found 22416 results on 897 pages for 'url validation'.

Page 45/897 | < Previous Page | 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52  | Next Page >

  • Using {% url ??? %} in django templates

    - by user563247
    I have looked a lot on google for answers of how to use the 'url' tag in templates only to find many responses saying 'You just insert it into your template and point it at the view you want the url for'. Well no joy for me :( I have tried every permutation possible and have resorted to posting here as a last resort. So here it is. My urls.py looks like this: from django.conf.urls.defaults import * from login.views import * from mainapp.views import * import settings # Uncomment the next two lines to enable the admin: from django.contrib import admin admin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', # Example: # (r'^weclaim/', include('weclaim.foo.urls')), (r'^login/', login_view), (r'^logout/', logout_view), ('^$', main_view), # Uncomment the admin/doc line below and add 'django.contrib.admindocs' # to INSTALLED_APPS to enable admin documentation: # (r'^admin/doc/', include('django.contrib.admindocs.urls')), # Uncomment the next line to enable the admin: (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), #(r'^static/(?P<path>.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve',{'document_root': '/home/arthur/Software/django/weclaim/templates/static'}), (r'^static/(?P<path>.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve',{'document_root': settings.MEDIA_ROOT}), ) My 'views.py' in my 'login' directory looks like: from django.shortcuts import render_to_response, redirect from django.template import RequestContext from django.contrib import auth def login_view(request): if request.method == 'POST': uname = request.POST.get('username', '') psword = request.POST.get('password', '') user = auth.authenticate(username=uname, password=psword) # if the user logs in and is active if user is not None and user.is_active: auth.login(request, user) return render_to_response('main/main.html', {}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) #return redirect(main_view) else: return render_to_response('loginpage.html', {'box_width': '402', 'login_failed': '1',}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) else: return render_to_response('loginpage.html', {'box_width': '400',}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) def logout_view(request): auth.logout(request) return render_to_response('loginpage.html', {'box_width': '402', 'logged_out': '1',}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) and finally the main.html to which the login_view points looks like: <html> <body> test! <a href="{% url logout_view %}">logout</a> </body> </html> So why do I get 'NoReverseMatch' every time? *(on a slightly different note I had to use 'context_instance=RequestContext(request)' at the end of all my render-to-response's because otherwise it would not recognise {{ MEDIA_URL }} in my templates and I couldn't reference any css or js files. I'm not to sure why this is. Doesn't seem right to me)*

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to urlencode a url that contains a url encoded url?

    - by Mark
    I have a website that uses the facebook, twitter, delicious share links. They contain a a url encoded url of the website that you wish to share. The problem is I then want to send the facebook/twitter/delicious url through a php redirect page. Will it work to encode a url within an encoded url? Will there be side effects? To simplify my question: www.website.com/redirect.php?url=" URLENCODED (http://www.facbook.com/sharer.php?t='URLENCODED(title)'&u='URLENCODED(http://www.hotel.com)')

    Read the article

  • Weird URL parse issue. (Android)

    - by Tarmon
    I am attempting to parse in a URL to a KML file from maps.google.com. When I try and use this link: http://maps.google.com/maps/ms?ie=UTF8&hl=en&msa=0&msid=112748174025829638330.000483ad6315714cc941d&z=13&output=kml` I am unable to overlay this KML file on my MapView. If I were to take the KML file that I get from following this link and upload it to my Dropbox it will work just fine. I think there may be something about the URL from Google that it doesn't like? Link from dropbox: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/1037184/Blue_original.kml Also it would be better if we could just save these KML files locally and pass them in the same way but I can't figure out a way to do this. Here is the code I am using: Intent mapIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); Uri uri1 = Uri.parse("geo:0,0?q=http://code.google.com/apis/kml/ documentation/KML_Samples.kml"); mapIntent.setData(uri1); startActivity(Intent.createChooser(mapIntent, "Test")); The URL used in this example also works. So to recap: I am curious as to why some URLs work and others don't. Is there a way to place this KML file locally on the device and pass it to a Uri object? Any other suggestions? Thanks, Rob

    Read the article

  • chrome frame causes postback to wrong url and a Server Error in '/' Application error

    - by Johnny S
    I have a simple asp page with no code behind defined as: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="chrome=1" /> <title>test login</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button runat="server" CommandName="test" Text="test" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> This is being hosted on an IIS server that ships with XP (looks like 5.1). If I have machine with native IE6 running chrome frame click the TEST button, I receive: Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /Default.aspx I have tried this test on an IIS 7 host and several other IE6 machines with the same result. What I have noticed is that it is trying to postback to the wrong URL. I have checked with fiddler and have seen it will start at hostname/test/default.aspx but when I click the button it is trying to post to hostname/default.aspx Any help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Javascript for conditional URL append or redirect based on window.location.href

    - by Wintermute
    ::Hi all:: I am trying to make a bookmarklet that when clicked will check the URL of the current tab\window to see if it contains 'char1' and\or 'char2' (a given character). If both chars are present it redirects to another URL, for the other two it will append the current URL respectively. I believe there must be a more elegant way of stating this than the following (which has so far worked perfectly for me) but I don't have great knowledge of Javascript. My (unwieldy & repetitive) working code (apologies): if (window.location.href.indexOf('char1')!=-1 && window.location.href.indexOf('char2')!=-1) {window.location="https://website.com/";} else if (window.location.href.indexOf('char1')!=-1) {window.location.assign(window.location.href+='append1');} else if (window.location.href.indexOf('char2')!=-1) {window.location.assign(window.location.href+='append2');} Does exactly what I need it to but, well... not very graceful to say the least. Is there a simpler way to do this, perhaps with vars or a pseudo-object? Or better code :D

    Read the article

  • Send HTTPService Request in flex 3 with '-' in the URl Paramerters to get Google Feeds

    - by Goysar
    I am developing application in flex 3 which interacts with the Google feeds to produce my results. The URL to which i want to send request is something like this http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes?q=football+-soccer&start-index=11&max-results=10 Now i can send and receive results with q parameter, but in the next two parameters has a '-' (start-index and max-results). I am using HTTPService to send the requeset like this. SearchService.url = "http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes"; SearchService.method = "GET"; SearchService.contentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Here SearchService is the HTTPService var params:Object = new Object(); params.q = searchText; params.start-index = 11; params.max-results = 100; service.SearchService.send(params); Now my flex IDE throws me a error stating 'Cannot assign a non-reference value'. Only if i send the request with this parameters, i could put pagination in my application. So how can i send HTTPService request with '-' in the URL parameters?

    Read the article

  • Best way to convert a Unicode URL to ASCII (UTF-8 percent-escaped) in Python?

    - by benhoyt
    I'm wondering what's the best way -- or if there's a simple way with the standard library -- to convert a URL with Unicode chars in the domain name and path to the equivalent ASCII URL, encoded with domain as IDNA and the path %-encoded, as per RFC 3986. I get from the user a URL in UTF-8. So if they've typed in http://?.ws/? I get 'http://\xe2\x9e\xa1.ws/\xe2\x99\xa5' in Python. And what I want out is the ASCII version: 'http://xn--hgi.ws/%E2%99%A5'. What I do at the moment is split the URL up into parts via a regex, and then manually IDNA-encode the domain, and separately encode the path and query string with different urllib.quote() calls. # url is UTF-8 here, eg: url = u'http://?.ws/?'.encode('utf-8') match = re.match(r'([a-z]{3,5})://(.+\.[a-z0-9]{1,6})' r'(:\d{1,5})?(/.*?)(\?.*)?$', url, flags=re.I) if not match: raise BadURLException(url) protocol, domain, port, path, query = match.groups() try: domain = unicode(domain, 'utf-8') except UnicodeDecodeError: return '' # bad UTF-8 chars in domain domain = domain.encode('idna') if port is None: port = '' path = urllib.quote(path) if query is None: query = '' else: query = urllib.quote(query, safe='=&?/') url = protocol + '://' + domain + port + path + query # url is ASCII here, eg: url = 'http://xn--hgi.ws/%E3%89%8C' Is this correct? Any better suggestions? Is there a simple standard-library function to do this?

    Read the article

  • Spring URL mapping question

    - by es11
    I am using Java with Spring framework. Given the following url: www.mydomain.com/contentitem/234 I need to map all requests that come to /contentitem/{numeric value} mapped to a given controller with the "numeric value" passed as a parameter to the controller. Right now in my servlet container xml I have simple mappings similar to the following: ... <entry key="/index.html"> <ref bean="homeController" /> </entry> ... I am just wondering what I need to add to the mapping in order to achieve what I described? Edit: I unaccepted the answer temporarily because I can't seem to figure out how to do the mapping in my web.xml (I am using annotations as described in axtavt's answer below). How do I add a proper <url-pattern>..</url-pattern> in my <servlet-mapping> so that the request for "/contentitem/{numeric_value}" gets properly picked up? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Codeigniter - change url at method call

    - by NemoPS
    I was wondering if the following can be done in codeigniter. Let's assume I have a file, called Post.php, used to manage posts in an admin interface. It has several methods, such as index (lists all posts), add, update, delete... Now, I access the add method, so that the url becomes /posts/add And I add some data. I click "save" to add the new post. It calls the same method with an if statement like "if "this-input-post('addnew')"" is passed, call the model, add it to the database Here follows the problem: If everything worked fine, it goes to the index with the list of all posts, and displays a confirmation BUT No the url would still be posts/add, since I called the function like $this-index() after verifying data was added. I cannot redirect it to "posts/" since in that case no confirmation message would be shown! So my question is: can i call a method from anther one in the same class, and have the url set to that method (/posts/index instead of /posts/add)? It's kinda confusing, but i hope i gave you enough info to spot the problem Cheers!

    Read the article

  • PHP - complete url parser help

    - by Mark
    I have been trying to find an effective url parser, php's own does not include subdomain or extension. On php.net a number of users had contributed and made this: function parseUrl($url) { $r = "^(?:(?P<scheme>\w+)://)?"; $r .= "(?:(?P<login>\w+):(?P<pass>\w+)@)?"; $r .= "(?P<host>(?:(?P<subdomain>[-\w\.]+)\.)?" . "(?P<domain>[-\w]+\.(?P<extension>\w+)))"; $r .= "(?::(?P<port>\d+))?"; $r .= "(?P<path>[\w/]*/(?P<file>\w+(?:\.\w+)?)?)?"; $r .= "(?:\?(?P<arg>[\w=&]+))?"; $r .= "(?:#(?P<anchor>\w+))?"; $r = "!$r!"; // Delimiters preg_match ( $r, $url, $out ); return $out; } Unfortunately it fails on paths with a '-' and I can't for the life of me workout how to amend it to accept '-' in the path name. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Remove php extension from URL on Windows hosting account using web.config

    - by asprin
    I've searched before asking this question. The answered ones were related to Linux hosting account and the ones with Windows hosting account didn't match what I was looking for. As you might have guessed, I've a Windows shared hosting account with godaddy. My aim was to remove the '.php' extension from the url. After researching I found that .htaccess would do exactly what I want. But I also found that .htaccess doesn't work in Windows environment and that I'll need a web.config file to do the same task. Now I know there are modules through which the code can be generated, but the problem is I don't know how to get them installed on my hosting account. I don't want to go through the process of contacting the people over at godaddy and hence I'm looking to solve this on my own. What I'm looking for is a web.config equivalent of .htaccess This is what I'm trying to achieve: Current URL : www.abcdef.com/contact.php Desired URL : www.abcdef.com/contact Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Nisar.

    Read the article

  • How do I use jquery validate remote validation on a field that depends on another field in the form?

    - by Kevin J
    I have a form in which I am using remote validation to check if an email address already exists in the database. However, the catch is that on this form, the user can select between several different "groups", and each group has its own distinct set of email addresses (thus the same email can exist once in each group). The group selection is a dropdown on the form, and the email address is an input field with remote validation. I have a couple issues. First, I have set up my remote rule like this: remote: { url: 'remote_script.php', data: { group_id: $('select.group_id').val() } } However, this seems to statically set the group_id parameter to whatever the first value in the select is. Meaning, if I change the select, then trigger the remote validation again, the group_id parameter does not change First, how can I make this parameter dynamic, depending on the value of a select in the form? Secondly, how do I manually trigger the remote validation on the email address field? When the group_id select is changed, I want to re-trigger the remote validation on the email address field (without changing the value of the field). I tried using $(selector).validate().element('.email_addr') But this appears to only trigger the standard validation (required, email), and not the remote call.

    Read the article

  • Should I be relying on WebTests for data validation?

    - by Alexander Kahoun
    I have a suite of web tests created for a web service. I use it for testing a particular input method that updates a SQL Database. The web service doesn't have a way to retrieve the data, that's not its purpose, only to update it. I have a validator that validates the response XML that the web service generates for each request. All that works fine. It was suggested by a teammate that I add data validation so that I check the database to see the data after the initial response validator runs and compare it with what was in the input request. We have a number of services and libraries that are separate from the web service I'm testing that I can use to get the data and compare it. The problem is that when I run the web test the data validation always fails even when the request succeeds. I've tried putting the thread to sleep between the response validation and the data validation but to no avail; It always gets the data from before the response validation. I can set a break point and visually see that the data has been updated in the DB, funny thing is when I step through it in debug with the breakpoint it does validate successfully. Before I get too much more into this issue I have to ask; Is this the purpose of web tests? Should I be able to validate data through service calls in this manner or am I asking too much of a web test and the response validation is as far as I should go?

    Read the article

  • Where to put data management rules for complex data validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by TheRHCP
    Hello, I am currently working on an ASP.NET MVC2 project. This is the first time I am working on a real MVC web application. The ASP.NET MVC website really helped me to get started really fast, but I still have some obscure knowledge concerning datamodel validation. My problem is that I do not really know where to manage my filled datamodel when it comes to complex validation rules. For example, validating a string field with a Regex is quite easy and I know that I just have to decorate my field with a specific attribute, so data management rules are implemented in the model. But if I have multiple fields that I need to validate which each other, for example multiple datetime that need to be correctly set following a specific time rule, where do I need to validate them? I know that I could create my own validation attributes, but sometimes validation ask a specific validation path which is to complex to be validated using attributes. This first question also leads me to a related question which is, is it right to validate a model in the controller? Because for the moment that is the only way I found for complex validation. But I find this a bit dirty and I feel it does not really fit a the controller role and much harder to test (multiple code path). Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I prevent a page to jump to top position after failed validation?

    - by Slauma
    I have a simple aspx page with a few TextBoxes and a submit button. Some fields are required and below the button is a ValidationSummary. The complete form is larger than screen height so one has to scroll down to reach the submit button. If I don't fill all required fields and click on submit validation fails as expected and the validation summary displays some info messages below the button. Validation happens on the client and no postback occurs. So this all works as wished. But disturbing is that the page moves ("jumps") to top position when I click on the submit button. To see the validation summary one has to move down the page again. I've tried to set the ShowSummary property to false (which doesn't make much sense): The validation still works (no postback) but in this case the page does not move to top position. So the problem seems to depend on rendering the validation texts. Is there a way to prevent this page jump? Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net: HTTP 400 Bad Request error when trying to process http://localhost:5957/http://yahoo.com

    - by mat3
    I'm trying to create something similar to the diggbar : http://digg.com/http://cnn.com I'm using Visual Studio 2010 and Asp Development server. However, I can't get the ASP dev server to handle the request because it contains "http:" in the path. I've tried to create an HTTPModule to rewrite the URL in the BeginRequest , but the event handler doesn't get called when the url is http://localhost:5957/http://yahoo.com. The event handler does get called if the url is http://localhost:5957/http/yahoo.com To summarize http://localhost:5957/http/yahoo.com works http://localhost:5957/http//yahoo.com does not work http://localhost:5957/http://yahoo.com does not work http://localhost:5957/http:/yahoo.com does not work Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • htaccess url rewrite with multiple variables in url

    - by Cata
    Hello, I want to make some url rewrite rules on my .htaccess file so that this link: http://myseite.com/index.php?var1=value1&var2=value2 will become : http://myseite.com/var1/value2.html So far I have managed successfully to solve this problem but only for one variable. I also tried this code: RewriteRule ^([^/]*)/([^/]*)\.html$ /index.php?var1=$1&var2=$2 [L] But it doesn't work.. Thank you for the help!

    Read the article

  • Authorize.Net, Silent Posts, and URL Rewriting Don't Mix

    The too long, didn't read synopsis: If you use Authorize.Net and its silent post feature and it stops working, make sure that if your website uses URL rewriting to strip or add a www to the domain name that the URL you specify for the silent post matches the URL rewriting rule because Authorize.Net's silent post feature won't resubmit the post request to URL specified via the redirect response. I have a client that uses Authorize.Net to manage and bill customers. Like many payment gateways, Authorize.Net supports recurring payments. For example, a website may charge members a monthly fee to access their services. With Authorize.Net you can provide the billing amount and schedule and at each interval Authorize.Net will automatically charge the customer's credit card and deposit the funds to your account. You may want to do something whenever Authorize.Net performs a recurring payment. For instance, if the recurring payment charge was a success you would extend the customer's service; if the transaction was denied then you would cancel their service (or whatever). To accomodate this, Authorize.Net offers a silent post feature. Properly configured, Authorize.Net will send an HTTP request that contains details of the recurring payment transaction to a URL that you specify. This URL could be an ASP.NET page on your server that then parses the data from Authorize.Net and updates the specified customer's account accordingly. (Of course, you can always view the history of recurring payments through the reporting interface on Authorize.Net's website; the silent post feature gives you a way to programmatically respond to a recurring payment.) Recently, this client of mine that uses Authorize.Net informed me that several paying customers were telling him that their access to the site had been cut off even though their credit cards had been recently billed. Looking through our logs, I noticed that we had not shown any recurring payment log activity for over a month. I figured one of two things must be going on: either Authorize.Net wasn't sending us the silent post requests anymore or the page that was processing them wasn't doing so correctly. I started by verifying that our Authorize.Net account was properly setup to use the silent post feature and that it was pointing to the correct URL. Authorize.Net's site indicated the silent post was configured and that recurring payment transaction details were being sent to http://example.com/AuthorizeNetProcessingPage.aspx. Next, I wanted to determine what information was getting sent to that URL.The application was setup tolog the parsed results of the Authorize.Net request, such as what customer the recurring payment applied to; however,we were not logging the actual HTTP request coming from Authorize.Net. I contacted Authorize.Net's support to inquire if they logged the HTTP request send via the silent post feature and was told that they did not. I decided to add a bit of code to log the incoming HTTP request, which you can do by using the Request object's SaveAs method. This allowed me to saveevery incoming HTTP request to the silent post page to a text file on the server. Upon the next recurring payment, I was able to see the HTTP request being received by the page: GET /AuthorizeNetProcessingPage.aspx HTTP/1.1Connection: CloseAccept: */*Host: www.example.com That was it. Two things alarmed me: first, the request was obviously a GET and not a POST; second, there was no POST body (obviously), which is where Authorize.Net passes along thedetails of the recurring payment transaction.What stuck out was the Host header, which differed slightly from the silent post URL configured in Authorize.Net. Specifically, the Host header in the above logged request pointed to www.example.com, whereas the Authorize.Net configuration used example.com (no www). About a month ago - the same time these recurring payment transaction detailswere no longer being processed by our ASP.NET page - we had implemented IIS 7's URL rewriting feature to permanently redirect all traffic to example.com to www.example.com. Could that be the problem? I contacted Authorize.Net's support again and asked them if their silent post algorithmwould follow the301HTTP response and repost the recurring payment transaction details. They said, Yes, the silent post would follow redirects. Their reports didn't jive with my observations, so I went ahead and updated our Authorize.Net configuration to point to http://www.example.com/AuthorizeNetProcessingPage.aspx instead of http://example.com/AuthorizeNetProcessingPage.aspx. And, I'm happy to report, recurring payments and correctly being processed again! If you use Authorize.Net and the silent post feature, and you notice that your processing page is not longer working, make sure you are not using any URL rewriting rules that may conflict with the silent post URL configuration. Hope this saves someone the time it took me to get to the bottom of this. Happy Programming!Did you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

    Read the article

  • Pretty URL in ADF Faces of JDeveloper 11.1.2.2

    - by Frank Nimphius
    Many features planned for Oracle JDeveloper 12c find their way into current releases of Oracle JDeveloper 11g R1 and JDeveloper 11g R2. One example of such a feature is "pretty URL" - or "clean URL" as the Oracle JDeveloper 11g R2 (11.1.2.2) documentation puts it. "A.2.3.24 Clean URLs Historically, ADF Faces has used URL parameters to hold information, such as window IDs and state. However, URL parameters can prevent search engines from recognizing when URLs are actually the same, and therefore interfere with analytics. URL parameters can also interfere with bookmarking. By default, ADF Faces removes URL parameters using the HTML5 History Management API. If that API is unavailable, then session cookies are used.You can also manually configure how URL parameters are removed using the context parameter oracle.adf.view.rich.prettyURL.OPTIONS. Set the parameter to off so that no parameters are removed. Set the parameter to useHistoryApi to only use the HTML5 History Management API. If a browser does not support this API, then no parameters will be removed. Set the parameter to useCookies to use session cookies to remove parameters. If the browser does not support cookies, then no parameters will be removed." See: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26098_01/web.1112/e16181/ap_config.htm#ADFUI12856 So basically, what this part in the documentation says is: In JDeveloper 11g R2 (11.1.2.2), Oracle ADF Faces automatically removes its internally used dynamic parameters from the URL You can influence the setting with the prettyURL.OPTIONS context option, which however is not recommended you to do because the default behavior is able to detect if the browser client supports HTML 5 History management or not. In the latter case it the uses a session cookie and if this doesn't work, falls back to the "old" URL parameter adding. The information that is not so explicit and clearly mentioned in the documentation is that this is only for ADF Faces parameters (such as _afrLoop, Adf-Window-Id, etc.), but not the ADF controller token (_adf.ctrl-state)! Removing the ADF controller token is an enhancement request that will be implemented in Oracle JDeveloper 12c

    Read the article

  • Alternatives to using WebClient.BaseAddress to get base url in Silverlight

    - by Martin Liversage
    In a Silverlight application I sometimes need to connect to the web site where the application is hosted. To avoid hard coding the web site in my Silverlight application I use code like this: WebClient webClient = new WebClient(); Uri baseUri = new Uri(webClient.BaseAddress); UriBuilder uriBuilder = new UriBuilder(baseUri.Scheme, baseUri.Host, baseUri.Port); // Continue building the URL ... It feels very clunky to create a WebClient instance just to get access to the URL of the XAP file. Are there any alternatives?

    Read the article

  • Google index vs asp.net url routing

    - by vani
    I've made the change from querystring asp.net webforms application to an url routing one. Now I'm trying to let google know that there's a new set of urls to be aware of. The G has indexed 133 out of 179 new urls sent in sitemap.xml, but the site:mistral.hr command returns the old querystring version of the links. This could partly be so because I left the functionality of the old querystring version of the site(for backwards compatibility), and haven't done any 301 redirects(nor do I know how to achieve them in my shared hosting account). The old querystring and the new url routing both point to the same Default.aspx page.

    Read the article

  • Handling redirected URL within Flex app?

    - by fortpointuiguy
    We have a Flex client and a server that is using the Spring/Blazeds project. After the user logs in and is authenticated, the spring security layer sends a redirect to a new URL which is where our main application is located. However, within the flex client, I'm currently using HTTPService for the initial request and I get the redirected page sent back to me in its entirety. How can I just get the URL so that I can use navigatetourl to get where the app to go where it needs to? Any help would greatly be appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Get IFrame parent url or referrer using javascript or php

    - by Pawel
    I am creating a widget that would load in a IFrame and users will be able to place the widget on their own website. How would I get the URL of the website that is using the IFrame in javascript and/or PHP? The IFrame loads a php file. I have tried "parent.top.location.href" and "parent.document.referrer" in the IFrame page but that is undefined. I have also tried to echo "$_Server[referrer]" in the IFrame page and that did return the IFrame parent URL, but how easy is it for someone to manipulate the referrer variable? I dont want to get misleading information.

    Read the article

  • jQuery ajax doesn't work on url without www

    - by steamboy
    The jQuery ajax script below doesn't work on my site if url is without www. I checked Firebug and it doesn't send the ajax call. $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "http://www.mysite.com/beta/products.php", data: "page_type=index&sort=relevancerank&CartId=<?php echo $CartId;?>&HMAC=<?php echo $HMAC;?>", success: function(msg) { $('#content-holder').html(msg); }, error: function() { alert("An error occurred while updating. Try again in a while"); } });

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET url MAX_PATH limit

    - by Greg Ballard
    Hi, I've found an issue with ASP.NET that I know at least has stumped one other person out there. We were trying to use an HttpModule to handle wildcard requests to a web application. The generated url is dynamic and could potentially be several hundred characters long. Unfortunately there appears to be a limitation in the aspnet_isapi.dll file that limits the length of the path in the url to MAX_PATH which is hardcoded at 260 chars. Has anyone else ran into this and found a way around this limit? Query string parameters are not an option. Thanks, Greg Ballard

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52  | Next Page >