Search Results

Search found 62161 results on 2487 pages for 'set difference'.

Page 450/2487 | < Previous Page | 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457  | Next Page >

• Clarification/explanation of RegisterClientScriptInclude method

  - by mpminnich

  I've been looking on the Internet for a fairly clear explanation of the different methods of registering javascript in an asp.net application. I think I have a basic understating of the difference between registerStartupScript and registerClientScriptBlock (the main difference being where in the form the script is inserted). I'm not sure I understand what the RegisterClientScriptInclude method does or when it is used. From what I can gather, it is used to register an external .js file. Does this then make any and all javascript functions in that file available to the aspx page it was registered on? For example, if it was registered in the onLoad event of a master page, would all pages using that master page be able to use the javascript functions in the .js file? What problems would arise when trying to use document.getElementById in this case, if any? Also, when it is necessary/advantageous to use multiple .js files and register them separately? I appreciate any help you can give. If you know of any really good resources I can use to get a thorough understanding of this concept, I'd appreciate it!

  Read the article

• Does IE completely ignore cache control headers for AJAX requests?

  - by Joshua Hayworth

  Hello there, I've got, what I would consider, a simple test web site. A single page with a single button. Here is a copy of the source I'm working with if you would like to download it and play with it. When that button is clicked, it creates a JavaScript timer that executes once a second. When the timer function is executed, An AJAX call is made to retrieve a text value. That text value is then placed into the DOM. What's my problem? IE Caching. Crack open Task Manager and watch what happens to the iexplorer.exe process (IE 8.0.7600.16385 for me) while the timer in that page is executing. See the memory and handle count getting larger? Why is that happening when, by all accounts, I have caching turned off. I've got the jQuery cache option set to false in $.ajaxSetup. I've got the CacheControl header set to no-cache and no-store. The Expires header is set to DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1). The headers are set in both the page code-behind as well as the HTTP Handler's response. Anybody got any ideas as to how I could prevent IE from caching the results of the AJAX call? Here is what the iexplorer.exe process looks like in ProcessMonitor. I believe that the activity shown in this picture is exactly what I'm attempting to prevent.

  Read the article

• Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

  - by Jon Artus

  I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

  Read the article

• Utilizing a Queue

  - by Nathan

  I'm trying to store records of transactions all together and by category for the last 1, 7, 30 or 360 days. I've tried a couple things, but they've brutally failed. I had an idea of using a queue with 360 values, one for each day, but I don't know enough about queue's to figure out how that would work. Input will be an instance of this class: class Transaction { public string TotalEarned { get; set; } public string TotalHST { get; set; } public string TotalCost { get; set; } public string Category { get; set; } } New transactions can occur at any time during the day, and there could be as many as 15 transactions in a day. My program is using a plain text file as external storage, but how I load it depends on how I decide to store this data. What would be the best way to do this?

  Read the article

• Should I still be using jquery .getJson in 1.4.2?

  - by chobo2

  Hi I was looking at the 14 days of jquery http://jquery14.com/day-01/jquery-14 and I saw this and it got me to wondering is there a point to use getJson anymore? JSON and script types auto-detected by content-type (jQuery.ajax Documentation, Commit 1, Commit 2) If the response to an Ajax request is returned with a JSON mime type (application/json), the dataType defaults to “json” (if no dataType is specified). Additionally, if the response to an Ajax request is returned with a JavaScript mime type (text/javascript or application/x-javascript) , the dataType defaults to “script” (if no dataType is specified), causing the script to automatically execute. First I can see such a huge benefit of this. In jquery 1.3 I came to a situation where in some cases I would return a partial view and some cases I would return a json result (asp.net mvc). It worked in firefox but in no other browser and one of the problems was I basically had to tell jquery to either do json or text/html. With it automatically detecting I could get away with this. Anyways I found a solution around this at that time. So now it just makes me wonder if there is any point to using GetJson. I am also unsure how to set these JavaScript mime types? I am assuming that if you return a JsonResult from asp.net mvc it will set it. but I am not sure if I was just sending a text result if it would be set( I am not sure if ContentResult would set this).

  Read the article

• jQuery : how to determine that a div is scrolled down

  - by subtenante

  I have a div with defined height, and overflow:scroll;. Its content is too long so scrollbars appear. Now for the ichy part. Some of its inner HTML strangely appears all the time (to be precise, the footer of a table generated by the tableFilter plugin). I'd like to make this footer disappear when it is not needed (it actually appears out of the containing <div>'s border). I resolved to make it disappear but setting its z-index to -1000. But I want to make it appear when the containing <div> is totally scrolled down. How can I know the user has scrolled at the bottom ? Using the help from answers below, I used scrollTop attribute but the difference between scrollTop and innerHeight is the size of the scrollbar plus some unidentified delta. A scrollbar is 16 pixels high in most browsers under Windows, but I get a difference of 17 in Firefox and something like 20 in IE, where my <div> content's borders seems to be rendered bigger. A way (actually two ways...) to compute the scrollbar size has been given there.

  Read the article

• how to fill missing values from a list

  - by Stephane

  I have an object containing a date and a count. public class Stat { public DateTime Stamp {get; set;} public int Count {get; set ;} } I have a Serie object that holds a list of thoses Stat plus some more info such as name and so on... public class Serie { public string Name { get; set; } public List<Stat> Data { get; set; } ... } Consider that I have a List of Serie but the series don't all contain the same Stamps. I need to fill in the missing stamps in all series with a default value. I thought of an extension method with signature like this (please provide better name if you find one :) ) : public static IEnumerable<Serie> Equalize(this IEnumerable<ChartSerie> series, int defaultCount) this question seems to treat the same problem, but when querying directly the DB. of course I could loop through the dates and create another list. But is there any more elegant way to achieve this? i.e.: Serie A: 01.05.2010 1 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 I should get : Serie A : 01.05.2010 1 02.05.2010 0 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 03.05.2010 0

  Read the article

• Passing additional data value to strongly typed partial views in ASP.NET MVC

  - by fearofawhackplanet

  I have an OrderForm domain class, which has property subclasses, something like: interface IOrderForm { int OrderId { get; } ICustomerDetails CustomerDetails { get; set; } IDeliveryDetails DeliveryDetails{ get; set; } IPaymentsDetails PaymentsDetails { get; set; } IOrderDetails OrderDetails { get; set; } } My "Details" view is strongly typed inheriting from IOrderForm. I then have a strongly type partial for rendering each section: <div id="CustomerDetails"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CustomerDetails", Model.CustomerDetails); %> </div> <div id="DeliveryDetails"> <% Html.RenderPartial("DeliveryDetails", Model.DeliveryDetails); %> </div> ... etc This works ok up to this point, but I'm trying to add some nice ajax bits for updating some parts of the order form, and I've realised that each of my partial views also needs access to the IOrderForm.OrderId. Whats the easiest way to give my partials access to this value?

  Read the article

• overridePendingTransition doesn't work

  - by Ixx

  Have found already some people asking the same, but the solutions didn't work for me. I see no animation. Calling it this way: Intent intent = new Intent(this, MyActivity.class); startActivity(intent); overridePendingTransition(R.anim.fadein, R.anim.fadeout); fadein.xml and fadeout.xml are in the anim folder: fadein.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" > <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="0.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="1.0" /> </set> fadeout.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="1.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="0.0" /> </set> Using min. API 7: manifest: <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> API 7 is also in my project.properties file: target=android-7 What am I doing wrong? P.D. Removing the lines with the interpolator doesn't change anything. Already seen / tried: overridePendingTransition doesn't work overridePendingTransition does not work when flag_activity_reorder_to_front is used Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Activity transition in Android

  Read the article

• Not crawling the same content twice

  - by sirrocco

  I'm building a small application that will crawl sites where the content is growing (like on stackoverflow) the difference is that the content once created is rarely modified. Now , in the first pass I crawl all the pages in the site. But next, the paged content of that site - I don't want to re-crawl all of it , just the latest additions. So if the site has 500 pages, on the second pass if the site has 501 pages then I would only crawl the first and second pages. Would this be a good way to handle the situation ? In the end, the crawled content will end up in lucene - creating a custom search engine. So, I would like to avoid crawling multiple times the same content. Any better ideas ? EDIT : Let's say the site has a page : Results that will be accessed like so : Results?page=1 , Results?page=2 ...etc I guess that keeping a track of how many pages there were at the last crawl and just crawl the difference would be enough. ( maybe using a hash of each result on the page - if I start running into the same hashes - I should stop)

  Read the article

• Fluent NHibernate no data being returned

  - by czuroski

  Hello, I have been successfully using NHibernate, but now I am trying to move to Fluent NHibernate. I have created all of my mapping files and set up my session manager to use a Fluent Configuration. I then run my application and it runs successfully, but no data is returned. There are no errors or any indication that there is a problem, but nothing runs. when using NHibernate, if I don't set my hbm xml files as an embedded resource, this same thing happens. This makes me wonder what I have to set my Map classes to. Right now, they are just set to Compile, and they are compiled into the dll, which I can see by disassembling it. Does anyone have any thoughts as to what may be happening here? Thanks private ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database( IfxOdbcConfiguration .Informix1000 .ConnectionString("Provider=Ifxoledbc.2;Password=mypass;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=myuser;Data Source=mysource") .Dialect<InformixDialect1000>() .ProxyFactoryFactory<ProxyFactoryFactory>() .Driver<OleDbDriver>() .ShowSql() ) .Mappings( m => m.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<cmCase>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<attorney>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<creditor>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<party>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<person>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<sardbk>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<schedule>() //x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssembly(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()) //.ExportTo("C:\\mappings") ) .BuildSessionFactory(); }

  Read the article

• Binding the selected value from a combobox to a member of a class.

  - by CM

  I have a combobox that is bound to a an instance of a class. I need to get the user's selection ID of the combobox and set a class property equal to it. For example, here is the class: public class robot { private string _ID; private string _name; private string _configFile; [XmlElement("hardware")] public hardware[] hardware; public string ID { get { return _ID; } set { _ID = value; } } public string name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } public string configFile { get { return _configFile; } set { _configFile = value; } } } Now here is the code to bind the combobox to an instance of that class. This display's the name of each robot in the array in the combobox. private void SetupDevicesComboBox() { robot[] robot = CommConfig.robot; cmbDevices.DataSource = robot; cmbDevices.DisplayMember = "name"; cmbDevices.ValueMember = "ID"; } But now I can't seem to take what the user selects and use it. How do I use the "ID" of what the user select's from the combobox? Settings.selectedRobotID = cmbDevices.ValueMember; //This just generates "ID" regardless of what is selected. I also tried Settings.selectedRobotID = cmbDevices.SelectedItem.ToString(); //This just generates "CommConfig.robot" Thanks

  Read the article

• LINQ2SQL: How to let a column accept null values as zero (0) in Self-Relation table

  - by Remon

  As described in the img, I got a parent-Children relation and since the ParentID not accepting null values (and I can't change to nullabel due to some restriction in the UI I have), how can I remove an existence relation between ReportDataSources in order to change the parent for them (here i want to set the parentId for one of them = 0) how could i do that since i cant change the ParentID directly and setting Parent = null is not valid public void SetReportDataSourceAsMaster(ReportDataSource reportDataSource) { //Some logic - not necessarily for this scenario //Reset Master this.ReportDataSources.ToList().ForEach(rds => rds.IsMaster = false); //Set Master reportDataSource.IsMaster = true; //Set Parent ID for the rest of the Reports data sources this.ReportDataSources.Where(rds => rds.ID != reportDataSource.ID).ToList().ForEach(rds => { //Change Parent ID rds.Parent = reportDataSource; //Remove filttering data rds.FilteringDataMembers.Clear(); //Remove Grouping Data rds.GroupingDataMembers.Clear(); }); //Delete parent HERE THE EXCEPTION THROWN AFTER CALLING SUBMITCHANGES() reportDataSource.Parent = null; //Other logic } Exception thrown after calling submitChanges An attempt was made to remove a relationship between a ReportDataSource and a ReportDataSource. However, one of the relationship's foreign keys (ReportDataSource.ParentID) cannot be set to null.

  Read the article

• How do I use Haml in a view in my new plugin?

  - by Eric

  I'm creating a new plugin for a jruby on rails application that will eventually be turned into a gem. Inside my plugin I have controllers, helpers and views. For my views I'd like to use Haml. The problem is that I can't seem to get it to recognize that they are haml templates. Is it even possible to do this? Is there a way for a plugin to have Haml as a dependency for its view? And by that I mean, I intend for the plugin that I'm creating to have a view created by the plugin, that can be used by the application developer. for example: vendor/ plugins/ my_plugin/ lib/ app/ views/ my_plugin_demo/ index.haml.html controllers/ my_plugin_demo_controller.rb helpers/ In my plugin's init.rb, I tried: require 'my_plugin' require 'haml' #doesn't seem to make a difference :( but that didn't seem to make any difference. Has anybody had any experience with this? I can't seem to find any documentation on how to make this work. Are plugin views restricted to .erb templates?

  Read the article

• INotifyPropertyChanged event listener within respective class not firing on client side (silverlight)

  - by Rob

  I'm trying to work out if there's a simple way to internalize the handling of a property change event on a Custom Entity as I need to perform some bubbling of the changes to a child collection within the class when the Background Property is changed via a XAML binding: public class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { [Key] public int MyClassId { get; set; } [DataMember] public ObservableCollection<ChildMyClass> MyChildren { get; set; } public string _backgroundColor; [DataMember] public string BackgroundColor { get { return this._backgroundColor; } set { this._backgroundColor = value; if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("BackgroundColor")); } } } public MyClass() { this.BackgroundColor = "#FFFFFFFF"; this.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { //Do something here - fires client side but not server side } } I can listen to the event by externalizing it without any problems but it's an ugly way to handle something that want to set and forget inside my class e.g.: public class SomeOtherClass { public SomeOtherClass() { MyClass mc = new MyClass(); mc.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { MyClass mc = (MyClass)sender; mc.UpdateChildren(); } }

  Read the article

• XML Serialization : Has property of type Class1 : Class1 has another property : How to write the property of Class1 into XML?

  - by Wonderlander

  I want to serialize a class. In this class there's a property, type of Class1, while there are other properties in Class1. public abstract class ComponentBase { [ToSerialize]//An attribute defined my me, indicating whether or not to serialize this property. public ComponentArgs Parameters { get; set; } } public class ComponentArgs { public string WorkingPath { get; set; } public IList<Language> Languages { get; set; } public string ComponentOutputPath { get; set; } } The information serialized must be put into a Dictionary, such as ComponentSettings[str_Name]=str_Value. The method used in reading this value is Reflection. pinfo: Property Info got via Type.GetProperties(); componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); The information after serialization is: <Parameters>MS.STBIntl.Pippin.Framework.ComponentArgs</Parameters> instead of the value of ComponentArgs.WorkingPath. The solution I thought of is to append to the following line an if judgement: componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); if(pinfo is ComponentArgs) componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue( (ComponentArgs)this, null).WorkingPath+"\n"+ LanguageList+"\n"+ //Language list is a concatinated string of all elements in the list. (ComponentArgs)this, null).ComponentOutputPath+"\n"+ ); When deserializing, add a judgement of whether the value contains more than 2 "\n", if so, extract each value from the string. But this way seems clumsy and much more like an workaround. I wonder if there's any more professional way of doing it? My reviewer is very particular and he won't accept such a solution. If you know a way, could you please share it with me? Thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• C# properties: How are they instantiated?

  - by Pedery

  Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

  Read the article

• copy rows with special condition

  - by pooria_googooli

  I have a table with a lot of columns. For example I have a table with these columns : ID,Fname,Lname,Tel,Mob,Email,Job,Code,Company,...... ID column is auto number column. I want to copy all rows in this table to this table and change the company column value to 12 in this copied row. I don't want to write name all of the columns because I have a lot of table with a lot of columns. I tried this code but I had this error : declare @c int; declare @i int; select * into CmDet from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end error : Msg 2714, Level 16, State 6, Line 3 There is already an object named 'CmDet' in the database. I changed the code to this declare @c int declare @i int insert into CmDet select * from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end and I had this error : Msg 8101, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 An explicit value for the identity column in table 'CmDet' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. What should I do ?

  Read the article

• What is a better, cleaner way of using List<T>

  - by Tim Meers

  I'm looking to implement a few nicer ways to use List in a couple of apps I'm working on. My current implementation looks like this. MyPage.aspx.cs protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { BLL.PostCollection oPost = new BLL.PostCollection(); oPost.OpenRecent(); rptPosts.DataSource = oArt; rptPosts.DataBind(); } BLL Class(s) public class Post { public int PostId { get; set; } public string PostTitle { get; set; } public string PostContent { get; set; } public string PostCreatedDate { get; set; } public void OpenRecentInitFromRow(DataRow row) { this.PostId = (int) row["id"]; this.PostTitle = (string) row["title"]; this.PostContent = (string) row["content"]; this.PostCreatedDate = (DateTime) row["createddate"]; } } public class PostCollection : List<Post> { public void OpenRecent() { DataSet ds = DbProvider.Instance().Post_ListRecent(); foreach (DataRow row in ds.Tables[0].Rows) { Post oPost = new Post(); oPost.OpenRecentInitFromRow(row); Add(oPost); } } } Now while this is working all well and good, I'm just wondering if there is any way to improve it, and just make it cleaner that having to use the two different classes do to something I think can happen in just one class or using an interface.

  Read the article

• SQL Server 2005: Internal Query Processor Error:

  - by Geetha

  I am trying to execute this following procedure in SQL Server 2005. I was able to execute this in my development server and when i tried to use this in the Live Server I am getting an Error "Internal Query Processor Error: The query processor could not produce a query plan. For more information, contact Customer Support Services". am using the same Database and the same format. when we searched in the web it shows some fixes to be used in sql server 2005 to avoid this error but my DBA has confirmed that all the patches are updated in our server. can anyone give me some clue on this. Query: create Procedure [dbo].[sample_Select] @ID as varchar(40) as Declare @Execstring as varchar(1000) set @Execstring = ' Declare @MID as varchar(40) Set @MID = '''+@ID+''' select * from ( select t1.field1, t1.field2 AS field2 , t1.field3 AS field3 , L.field1 AS field1 , L. field2 AS field2 from table1 AS t1 INNER JOIN MasterTable AS L ON L. field1 = t1. field2 where t1. field2 LIKE @MID ) as DataTable PIVOT ( Count(field2) FOR field3 IN (' Select @Execstring=@Execstring+ L.field2 +',' FROM MasterTable AS L inner join table1 AS t1 ON t1.field1= L.field2 Where t1.field2 LIKE @ID set @Execstring = stuff(@Execstring, len(@Execstring), 1, '') set @Execstring =@Execstring +')) as pivotTable' exec (@Execstring)

  Read the article

• How can I use Perl to determine whether the contents of two files are identical?

  - by Zaid

  This question comes from a need to ensure that changes I've made to code doesn't affect the values it outputs to text file. Ideally, I'd roll a sub to take in two filenames and return 1or return 0 depending on whether the contents are identical or not, whitespaces and all. Given that text-processing is Perl's forté, it should be quite easy to compare two files and determine whether they are identical or not (code below untested). use strict; use warnings; sub files_match { my ( $fileA, $fileB ) = @_; open my $file1, '<', $fileA; open my $file2, '<', $fileB; while (my $lineA = <$file1>) { next if $lineA eq <$file2>; return 0 and last; } return 1; } The only way I can think of (sans CPAN modules) is to open the two files in question, and read them in line-by-line until a difference is found. If no difference is found, the files must be identical. But this approach is limited and clumsy. What if the total lines differ in the two files? Should I open and close to determine line count, then re-open to scan the texts? Yuck. I don't see anything in perlfaq5 relating to this. I want to stay away from modules unless they come with the core Perl 5.6.1 distribution.

  Read the article

• Linq-to-sql join/where?

  - by Curtis White

  I've the following table structures Users id Types id isBool UsersTypes userid types I want to select all the UserTypes based on id and isBool. I tried this query var q = from usertype in usertypes from type in types where type.isBool == false where userstypes.user == id select usertype; But this did not work as expected. My questions are: Why? Is there any difference in using the join on syntax vs where, where vs where cond1 && cond2? My understanding is query optimizer will optimize. Is there any difference in using where cond1 == var1 && cond2 == var2 with and without the parenthesis? This seems peculiar that it is possible to build this without parenthesis What type of query do I need in this case? I can see that I could do a subquery or use a group but not 100% sure if it is required. An example might be helpful. I'm thinking a subquery may be required in this case.

  Read the article

• Using SimpleDB (with SimpleSavant) with POCO / existing entities, not attributes on my classes

  - by alex

  I'm trying to use Simple Savant within my application, to use SimpleDB I currently have (for example) public class Person { public Guid Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } public DateTime DateOfBirth { get; set; } } To use this with Simple Savant, i'd have to put attributes above the class declaration, and property - [DomainName("Person")] above the class, and [ItemName] above the Id property. I have all my entities in a seperate assembly. I also have my Data access classes an a seperate assembly, and a class factory selects, based on config, the IRepository (in this case, IRepository I want to be able to use my existing simple class - without having attributes on the properties etc.. In case I switch out of simple db, to something else - then I only need to create a different implementation of IRepository. Should I create a "DTO" type class to map the two together? Is there a better way?

  Read the article

• How to filter List<T> with LINQ and Reflection

  - by Ehsan Sajjad

  i am getting properties via reflection and i was doing like this to iterate on the list. private void HandleListProperty(object oldObject, object newObject, string difference, PropertyInfo prop) { var oldList = prop.GetValue(oldObject, null) as IList; var newList = prop.GetValue(newObject, null) as IList; if (prop.PropertyType == typeof(List<DataModel.ScheduleDetail>)) { List<DataModel.ScheduleDetail> ScheduleDetailsOld = oldList as List<DataModel.ScheduleDetail>; List<DataModel.ScheduleDetail> ScheduleDetailsNew = newList as List<DataModel.ScheduleDetail>; var groupOldSchedules = ScheduleDetailsOld .GroupBy(x => x.HomeHelpID) .SelectMany(s => s.DistinctBy(d => d.HomeHelpID) .Select(h => new { h.HomeHelpID, h.HomeHelpName })); } } Now i am making it generic because there will be coming different types of Lists and i don't want to put if conditions this way i want to write generic code to handle any type of list. I came up with this way: private void HandleListProperty(object oldObject, object newObject, string difference, PropertyInfo prop) { var oldList = prop.GetValue(oldObject, null) as IList; var newList = prop.GetValue(newObject, null) as IList; var ListType = prop.PropertyType; var MyListInstance = Activator.CreateInstance(ListType); MyListInstance = oldList; } i am able to get the items in MyListInstance but as the type will come at runtime i am not getting how to write linq query to filter them, any ideah how to do.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457  | Next Page >