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  • LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

    - by Manuel Navarro
    I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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  • How do you parse with SAX using Attributes & Values to a URL path using iPhone SDK?

    - by Jim
    I'm trying to get my head around parsing with SAX and thought a good place to start was the TopSongs example found at the iPhone Dev Center. I get most of it but when it comes to reaching Attributes and Values within a node I can't find a good example anywhere. The XML has a path to a URL for the coverArt. And the XML node looks like this. <itms:coverArt height="60" width="60">http://a1.phobos.apple.com/us/r1000/026/Music/aa/aa/27/mzi.pbxnbfvw.60x60-50.jpg</itms:coverArt> What I've tried is this for the startElement… ((prefix != NULL && !strncmp((const char *)prefix, kName_Itms, kLength_Itms)) && (!strncmp((const char *)localname, kName_CoverArt, kLength_Item) && !strncmp((const char *)attributes, kAttributeName_CoverArt, kAttributeLength_CoverArt) && !strncmp((const char *)attributes, kValueName_CoverArt, kValueLength_CoverArt) || !strncmp((const char *)localname, kName_Artist, kLength_Artist) || and picking it up again with just the localname at the end like this. if (!strncmp((const char *)localname, kName_CoverArt, kLength_CoverArt)) { importer.currentSong.coverArt = [NSURL URLWithString:importer.currentString]; The trace is -[Song setCoverArt:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance.

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  • How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

    - by sperling
    How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • unable to set fields of a collection-property elements after changing their order (elements becoming

    - by Jaroslav Záruba
    Hello I want to change order of objects in a collection, and then to access+modify fields of those items. Unfortunately the items somehow become 'deleted'. This is what I do... if(someCondition) { MainEvent mainEvent = pm.getObjectById(MainEvent.class, mainEventKey); /* * events in the original order * MainEvent.subEvents field is not in default fetch group, * therefore I also tried to add the named group into the * persistenceManeger fetch plan, no difference * (mainEvent is not instance of the Event sub/class BTW) */ List<Event> subEvents = mainEvent.getSubEvents(); // re-arrange the events according to keysOrdered { Map<Key, Event> eventMap = new HashMap<Key, Event>(); for(Event event : subEvents) eventMap.put(event.getKey(), event); List<Event> eventsOrdered = new LinkedList<Event>(); for(Key eventKey : keysOrdered) eventsOrdered.add(eventMap.put(eventKey, eventMap.get(eventKey))); // } // put the re-arranged items back into the collection property { subEvents.clear(); subEvents.addAll(eventsOrdered); // } pm.makePersistent(mainEvent); eventsOrdered = subEvents; } else eventsOrdered = getEventsUsingAlternateApproach(); /* * so by now the mainEvent variable does not exist; * could it be this lead the persistence manager to mark * my events as abandoned/obsolete/invalid/deleted...? */ for(Event event : eventsOrdered) event.setDate(new Date()); // -> "Cannot write fields to a deleted object" What am I doing wrong please?

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  • Linux network stack : adding protocols with an LKM and dev_add_pack

    - by agent0range
    Hello, I have recently been trying to familiarize myself with the Linux Networking stack and device drivers (have both similarly named O'Reilly books) with the eventual goal of offloading UDP. I have already implemented UDP on the NIC but now the hard part... Rather than ask for assistance on this larger goal I was hoping someone could clarify for me a particular snippet I found that is part of a LKM which registeres a new protocol (OTP) that acts as a filter between the device driver and network stack. http://www.phrack.org/archives/55/p55_0x0c_Building%20Into%20The%20Linux%20Network%20Layer_by_lifeline%20&%20kossak.txt (Note: this Phrack article contains three different modules, code for the OTP is at the bottom of the page) In the init function of his example he has: otp_proto.type = htons(ETH_P_ALL); otp_proto.func = otp_func; dev_add_pack(&otp_proto); which (if I understand correctly) should register otp_proto as a packet sniffer and put it into the ptype_all data structure. My question is about the dev_add_pack. Is it the case that the protocol being registered as a filter will always be placed at this layer between L2 and the device driver? Or, for instance could I make such a filtering occur between the application and transport layers (analyze socket parameters) using the same process? I apologize if this is confusing - I am having some trouble wrapping my head around the bigger picture when it comes to modules altering kernel stack functionality. Thanks

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  • Disposing ActiveX resources owned by another thread

    - by Stefan Teitge
    I've got a problem problem with threading and disposing resources. I've got a C# Windows Forms application which runs expensive operation in a thread. This thread instantiates an ActiveX control (AxControl). This control must be disposed as it uses a high amount of memory. So I implemented a Dispose() method and even a destructor. After the thread ends the destructor is called. This is sadly called by the UI thread. So invoking activexControl.Dispose(); fails with the message "COM object that has been separated from its underlying RCW", as the object belongs to another thread. How to do this correctly or is it just a bad design I use? (I stripped the code down to the minimum including removing any safety concerns.) class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { // do stuff here, e.g. open a form new Thread(new ThreadStart(RunStuff); // do more stuff } private void RunStuff() { DoStuff stuff = new DoStuff(); stuff.PerformStuff(); } } class DoStuff : IDisposable { private AxControl activexControl; DoStuff() { activexControl = new AxControl(); activexControl.CreateControl(); // force instance } ~DoStuff() { Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { activexControl.Dispose(); } public void PerformStuff() { // invent perpetuum mobile here, takes time } }

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  • c# multi inheritance

    - by user326839
    So ive got a base class which requires a Socket: class Sock { public Socket s; public Sock(Socket s) { this.s = s; } public virtual void Process(byte[] data) { } ... } then ive got another class. if a new socket gets accepted a new instance of this class will be created: class Game : Sock { public Random Random = new Random(); public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; public Game(Socket s) : base(s) { } public static void ReceiveNewSocket(object s) { Game Client = new Game((Socket)s); Client.Start(); } public override void Process(byte[] buf) { Timers = new Timerr(s); Test = new Test(s); Test.T(); } } in the Sock class ive got a virtual function that gets overwritten by the Game class.(Process function) in this function im calling a function from the Test Class(Test+ Timerr Class: class Test : Game { public Test(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void T() { Console.WriteLine(Random.Next(0, 10)); Timers.Start(); } } class Timerr : Game { public Timerr(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } ) So in the Process function im calling a function in Test. And in this function(T) i need to call a function from the Timerr Class.But the problem is its always NULL , although the constructor is called in Process. And e.g. the Random Class can be called, i guess its because its defined with the constructor.: public Random Random = new Random(); and thats why the other classes(without a constructor): public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; are always null in the inherited class Test.But its essentiel that i call other Methods of other classes in this function.How could i solve that?

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  • How to model a mutually exclusive relationship in sql server

    - by littlechris
    Hi, I have to add functionality to an existing application and I've run into a data situation that I'm not sure how to model. I am being restricted to the creation of new tables and code. If I need to alter the existing structure I think my client may reject the proposal..although if its the only way to get it right this is what I will have to do. I have an Item table that can me link to any number of tables, and these tables may increase over time. The Item can only me linked to one other table, but the record in the other table may have many items linked to it. Examples of the tables/entities being linked to are "Person", "Vehicle", "Building", "Office". These are all separate tables. Example of Items are "Pen", "Stapler", "Cushion", "Tyre", "A4 Paper", "Plastic Bag", "Poster", "Decoration" For instance a "Poster" may be allocated to a "Person" or "Office" or "Building". In the future if they add a "Conference Room" table it may also be added to that. My intital thoughts are: Item { ID, Name } LinkedItem { ItemID, LinkedToTableName, LinkedToID } The LinkedToTableName field will then allow me to identify the correct table to link to in my code. I'm not overly happy with this solution, but I can't quite think of anything else. Please help! :) Thanks!

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  • Linq In Clause & Predicate building

    - by Michael G
    I have two tables. Report and ReportData. ReportData has a constraint ReportID. How can I write my linq query to return all Report objects where the predicate conditions are met for ReportData? Something like this in SQL: SELECT * FROM Report as r Where r.ServiceID = 3 and r.ReportID IN (Select ReportID FROM ReportData WHERE JobID LIKE 'Something%') This is how I'm building my predicate: Expression<Func<ReportData, bool>> predicate = PredicateBuilder.True<ReportData>(); predicate = predicate.And(x => x.JobID.StartsWith(QueryConfig.Instance.DataStreamName)); var q = engine.GetReports(predicate, reportsDataContext); reports = q.ToList(); This is my query construction at the moment: public override IQueryable<Report> GetReports(Expression<Func<ReportData, bool>> predicate, LLReportsDataContext reportDC) { if (reportDC == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("reportDC"); var q = reportDC.ReportDatas.Where(predicate).Where(r => r.ServiceID.Equals(1)).Select(r => r.Report); return q; }

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  • How are declared private ivars different from synthesized ivars?

    - by lemnar
    I know that the modern Objective-C runtime can synthesize ivars. I thought that synthesized ivars behaved exactly like declared ivars that are marked @private, but they don't. As a result, come code compiles only under the modern runtime that I expected would work on either. For example, a superclass: @interface A : NSObject { #if !__OBJC2__ @private NSString *_c; #endif } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *d; @end @implementation A @synthesize d=_c; - (void)dealloc { [_c release]; [super dealloc]; } @end and a subclass: @interface B : A { #if !__OBJC2__ @private NSString *_c; #endif } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *e; @end @implementation B @synthesize e=_c; - (void)dealloc { [_c release]; [super dealloc]; } @end A subclass can't have a declared ivar with the same name as one of its superclass's declared ivars, even if the superclass's ivar is private. This seems to me like a violation of the meaning of @private, since the subclass is affected by the superclass's choice of something private. What I'm more concerned about, however, is how should I think about synthesized ivars. I thought they acted like declared private ivars, but without the fragile base class problem. Maybe that's right, and I just don't understand the fragile base class problem. Why does the above code compile only in the modern runtime? Does the fragile base class problem exist when all superclass instance variables are private?

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  • Compilation errors calling find_if using a functor

    - by Jim Wong
    We are having a bit of trouble using find_if to search a vector of pairs for an entry in which the first element of the pair matches a particular value. To make this work, we have defined a trivial functor whose operator() takes a pair as input and compares the first entry against a string. Unfortunately, when we actually add a call to find_if using an instance of our functor constructed using a temporary string value, the compiler produces a raft of error messages. Oddly (to me, anyway), if we replace the temporary with a string that we've created on the stack, things seem to work. Here's what the code (including both versions) looks like: typedef std::pair<std::string, std::string> MyPair; typedef std::vector<MyPair> MyVector; struct MyFunctor: std::unary_function <const MyPair&, bool> { explicit MyFunctor(const std::string& val) : m_val(val) {} bool operator() (const MyPair& p) { return p.first == m_val; } const std::string m_val; }; bool f(const char* s) { MyFunctor f(std::string(s)); // ERROR // std::string str(s); // MyFunctor f(str); // OK MyVector vec; MyVector::const_iterator i = std::find_if(vec.begin(), vec.end(), f); return i != vec.end(); } And here's what the most interesting error message looks like: /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/bits/stl_algo.h:260: error: conversion from ‘std::pair, std::allocator , std::basic_string, std::allocator ’ to non-scalar type ‘std::string’ requested Because we have a workaround, we're mostly curious as to why the first form causes problems. I'm sure we're missing something, but we haven't been able to figure out what it is.

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  • Transaction to find an entity - locks all entities of that type?

    - by user246114
    Hi, Reading the docs for transactions: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html An example provided shows one way to make an instance of an object: try { tx.begin(); Key k = KeyFactory.createKey("SalesAccount", id); try { account = pm.getObjectById(Employee.class, k); } catch (JDOObjectNotFoundException e) { account = new SalesAccount(); account.setId(id); } ... When the above transaction gets executed, it will probably block all other write attempts on Account objects? I'm wondering because I'd like to have a user signup which checks for a username or email already in use: tx.begin(); "select from User where mUsername == str1 LIMIT 1"; if (count > 0) { throw new Exception("username already in use!"); } "select from User where mEmail == str1 LIMIT 1"; if (count > 0) { throw new Exception("email already in use!"); } pm.makePersistent(user(username, email)); // ok. tx.commit(); but the above would be even more time consuming I think, making an even worse bottleneck? Am I understanding what will happen correctly? Thanks

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  • Thread Safety of C# List<T> for readers

    - by ILIA BROUDNO
    I am planning to create the list once in a static constructor and then have multiple instances of that class read it (and enumerate through it) concurrently without doing any locking. In this article http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/6sh2ey19.aspx MS describes the issue of thread safety as follows: Public static (Shared in Visual Basic) members of this type are thread safe. Any instance members are not guaranteed to be thread safe. A List can support multiple readers concurrently, as long as the collection is not modified. Enumerating through a collection is intrinsically not a thread-safe procedure. In the rare case where an enumeration contends with one or more write accesses, the only way to ensure thread safety is to lock the collection during the entire enumeration. To allow the collection to be accessed by multiple threads for reading and writing, you must implement your own synchronization. The "Enumerating through a collection is intrinsically not a thread-safe procedure." Statement is what worries me. Does this mean that it is thread safe for readers only scenario, but as long as you do not use enumeration? Or is it safe for my scenario?

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  • Castle, sharing a transient component between a decorator and a decorated component

    - by Marius
    Consider the following example: public interface ITask { void Execute(); } public class LoggingTaskRunner : ITask { private readonly ITask _taskToDecorate; private readonly MessageBuffer _messageBuffer; public LoggingTaskRunner(ITask taskToDecorate, MessageBuffer messageBuffer) { _taskToDecorate = taskToDecorate; _messageBuffer = messageBuffer; } public void Execute() { _taskToDecorate.Execute(); Log(_messageBuffer); } private void Log(MessageBuffer messageBuffer) {} } public class TaskRunner : ITask { public TaskRunner(MessageBuffer messageBuffer) { } public void Execute() { } } public class MessageBuffer { } public class Configuration { public void Configure() { IWindsorContainer container = null; container.Register( Component.For<MessageBuffer>() .LifeStyle.Transient); container.Register( Component.For<ITask>() .ImplementedBy<LoggingTaskRunner>() .ServiceOverrides(ServiceOverride.ForKey("taskToDecorate").Eq("task.to.decorate"))); container.Register( Component.For<ITask>() .ImplementedBy<TaskRunner>() .Named("task.to.decorate")); } } How can I make Windsor instantiate the "shared" transient component so that both "Decorator" and "Decorated" gets the same instance? Edit: since the design is being critiqued I am posting something closer to what is being done in the app. Maybe someone can suggest a better solution (if sharing the transient resource between a logger and the true task is considered a bad design)

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  • Why are my event listeners firing more than once?

    - by Arms
    In my Flash project I have a movieclip that has 2 keyframes. Both frames contain 1 movieclip each. frame 1 - Landing frame 2 - Game The flow of the application is simple: User arrives on landing page (frame 1) User clicks "start game" button User is brought to the game page (frame 2) When the game is over, the user can press a "play again" button which brings them back to step 1 Both Landing and Game movieclips are linked to separate classes that define event listeners. The problem is that when I end up back at step 1 after playing the game, the Game event listeners fire twice for their respective event. And if I go through the process a third time, the event listeners fire three times for every event. This keeps happening, so if I loop through the application flow 7 times, the event listeners fire seven times. I don't understand why this is happening because on frame 1, the Game movieclip (and I would assume its related class instance) does not exist - but I'm clearly missing something here. I've run into this problem in other projects too, and tried fixing it by first checking if the event listeners existed and only defining them if they didn't, but I ended up with unexpected results that didn't really solve the problem. I need to ensure that the event listeners only fire once. Any advice & insight would be greatly appreciated, thanks!

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  • Can't use Visual Studio 2008 Designer with MVVMLight V3 SP1

    - by mcauthorn
    I wish I knew what I did to cause this, but I cannot use the Visual Studio 2008 Designer at all with with MVVMLight templates. I receive a "Could not create an instance of type 'ViewModelLocator'. in any of my xaml pages. The application builds and runs fine but only the designer is broken. In the App.xaml is <Application x:Class="ExcelReportGenerator.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:vm="clr-namespace:ExcelReportGenerator.ViewModel" xmlns:res="clr-namespace:ExcelReportGenerator.Resources" Startup="Application_Startup" mc:Ignorable="d"> <Application.Resources> <!--Global View Model Locator--> <vm:ViewModelLocator x:Key="Locator" d:IsDataSource="True" /> </Application.Resources> I even receive the error when I create a brand new MVVMLight application. The interesting thing is if I use an express version of VS2010 I can view, edit and work in designer just fine. As much as I would love to go to VS2010, I can't right now convince IT to make that move.

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  • Some specific questions about object oriented and MVC design.

    - by Samn
    I have two objects, Users and Mail. Users create Mail objects and send them to other users. If I wanted to get all mail for a User, I could create a method like GetMail() that would return an array of Mail objects owned by that User. But if I wanted to get all mail across the system, what "type" of object would be responsible for that? To solve this problem, I usually create a Manager, which is an object responsible for dealing with a collection of a particular type of object. MailManager deals with collections of Mail objects. GetMailForUser() is one method, GetAllMail() is another method. The User objects invokes the MailManager and executes GetMailForUser(me). Is this stupid? When a user executes the controller CreateMail, a new instance of the Mail object is created. The Mail object, seeing it is creating a new Mail of type 'sent', decides to go ahead and create a second Mail object for the recipient, of type 'received'. Creating one Mail object triggers the creation of a second Mail object. Is this stupid? Should the controller have created both Mail objects, or just the first 'sent' one? When two Users are friends, the association is stored in a table of Relationships. I use a simple object for Relationships. A RelationshipManager has a method called GetFriendsForUser(). The User object has a method GetFriends(), which invokes the RelationshipManager. Is this stupid?

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  • Create PDF from HTML page with formatting retained in PDF in ASP.Net

    - by Vishal Avhad
    I am trying to convert an HTML page to a PDF using iTextSharp.dll in ASP.Net. I am able to convert the contents to my PDF , but the problem is that the Formatting of HTML page (which is inline) get removed from my PDF created. For instance I have the following code block to be formatted from my HTML page to PDF. <table style="width:90%; float:left; background:#dddddd; padding:15px; border:1px solid #000; color:#000;"><tr><td style="text-transform:uppercase; font-size:14px;font-weight:bold;">SPECIAL DELIVERY FOR:</td></tr><tr><td style="padding-left:40px; font-size:12px; color:#4e4e4e;">Name: #CustomerName# <br /><br /><label> <b>Date: #CreatedOn# </b></label><br /> </td></tr> </table> I have to format my PDF with much more HTML codes like this. I have used the Stylesheet class also, but that was not much of help.

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  • Printing to different printers using mozilla.

    - by Nick-ACNB
    I am currently creating a web application that will be deployed in an intranet environment. I chose firefox to be the browser that will run it. However, in the application I am building, I need to be able to print to different printers quickly since they use different paper size depending on what client is coming. To avoid many time-wasting mistakes that could occur, for instance someone choosing the wrong printer and wasting paper. Also, the time used to find the right printer for the job and then pressing print is considered too long in the current context. Is there any solution to this problem? I understand the potential security flaw behind this, but please be aware that this is solely an intranet project and that I can reduce the browser's security to the lowest since they don't access internet. I know there could be something doable behind IE (ActiveX or VBScript) but I am using firefox. Also, I guess there could also be something rather tricky that when you press print on the browser, it saves what needs to be printed to a DB and then there is an exe app that runs and fetch that DB every set ammount of time and print to the right printer. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated. I doubt I am the only one to ever face this issue! :) Thank you very much.

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  • How do I iterate over a collection that is in an object passed as parameter in a jasper report?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I have an object A that has as an instance variable a collection of object Bs. Example: public class A{ String name; List<B> myList; ... public List<B> getMyList(){ return myList; } ... } I want this object to be the only source of information the jasper report gets, since all the information the report need is in A. I am currently doing something like: A myObjectA = new A(...); InputStream reportFile = MyPage.this.getClass().getResourceAsStream("test.jrxml"); HashMap<String, Object> parameters = new HashMap<String, Object>(); parameters.put("objectA", myObjectA); ... JasperReport report = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportFile); JasperPrint print = JasperFillManager.fillReport(report, parameters, new JRBeanCollectionDataSource(myObjectA.getMyList())); return JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(print); thereby passing "two" parameters, the objectA as a concrete parameter and the collection of object Bs that is in A as a bean data source. How do I iterate over the Bs in A by passing only A? Thanks!

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  • Is there a standard syntax for encoding structure objects as HTTP GET request parameters?

    - by lexicore
    Imagine we need to pass a a number structured objects to the web application - for instance, locale, layout settings and a definition of some query. This can be easily done with JSON or XML similar to the following fragment: <Locale>en</Locale> <Layout> <Block id="header">hide</Block> <Block id="footer">hide</Block> <Block id="navigation">minimize</Block> </Layout> <Query> <What>water</What> <When> <Start>2010-01-01</Start> </When> </Query> However, passing such structures with HTTP implies (roughly speaking) HTTP POST. Now assume we're limited to HTTP GET. Is there some kind of a standard solution for encoding structured data in HTTP GET request parameters? I can easily imagine something like: Locale=en& Layout.Block.header=hide& Layout.Block.footer=hide& Layout.Block.navigation=minimize& Query.What=water& Query.When.Start=2010-01-01 But what I'm looking for is a "standard" syntax, if there's any. ps. I'm surely aware of the problem with URL length. Please assume that it's not a problem in this case.

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  • How to use the `itemDoubleClicked(QTreeWidgetItem*,int)` signal in qtHaskell

    - by nano
    I want to use the itemDoubleClicked(QTreeWidgetItem*,int) signal in a Haskell program I'm writing where I am using qtHaskell for the GUI. To connect a function I have at other places done the following: dummyWidget <- myQWidget connectSlot object signal dummyWidget "customSlot()" $ f Where object is some QWidget and signal is a string giving the signal, e.g. "triggered()", and f is the function I want to be called when the signaled is send. The definition of connectSlot in the API is: class Qcs x where connectSlot :: QObject a -> String -> QObject b -> String -> x -> IO () where the instances ofQcs are: Qcs () Qcs (QObject c -> String -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Object d -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Bool -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Int -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> OpenGLVersionFlag -> IO ()) The first Arguments passed is supposed to be the QObject of which I'm using a signal. As you can see, there is no instance where f, the function to connect to the signal, can have two further arguments to recieve the QWidget and the integer send by the signal. Is there a way to nevertheless connect that signal to a custom function?

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  • How to efficiently compare the sign of two floating-point values while handling negative zeros

    - by François Beaune
    Given two floating-point numbers, I'm looking for an efficient way to check if they have the same sign, given that if any of the two values is zero (+0.0 or -0.0), they should be considered to have the same sign. For instance, SameSign(1.0, 2.0) should return true SameSign(-1.0, -2.0) should return true SameSign(-1.0, 2.0) should return false SameSign(0.0, 1.0) should return true SameSign(0.0, -1.0) should return true SameSign(-0.0, 1.0) should return true SameSign(-0.0, -1.0) should return true A naive but correct implementation of SameSign in C++ would be: bool SameSign(float a, float b) { if (fabs(a) == 0.0f || fabs(b) == 0.0f) return true; return (a >= 0.0f) == (b >= 0.0f); } Assuming the IEEE floating-point model, here's a variant of SameSign that compiles to branchless code (at least with with Visual C++ 2008): bool SameSign(float a, float b) { int ia = binary_cast<int>(a); int ib = binary_cast<int>(b); int az = (ia & 0x7FFFFFFF) == 0; int bz = (ib & 0x7FFFFFFF) == 0; int ab = (ia ^ ib) >= 0; return (az | bz | ab) != 0; } with binary_cast defined as follow: template <typename Target, typename Source> inline Target binary_cast(Source s) { union { Source m_source; Target m_target; } u; u.m_source = s; return u.m_target; } I'm looking for two things: A faster, more efficient implementation of SameSign, using bit tricks, FPU tricks or even SSE intrinsics. An efficient extension of SameSign to three values.

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  • Linux C debugging library to detect memory corruptions

    - by calandoa
    When working sometimes ago on an embedded system with a simple MMU, I used to program dynamically this MMU to detect memory corruptions. For instance, at some moment at runtime, the foo variable was overwritten with some unexpected data (probably by a dangling pointer or whatever). So I added the additional debugging code : at init, the memory used by foo was indicated as a forbidden region to the MMU; each time foo was accessed on purpose, access to the region was allowed just before then forbidden just after; a MMU irq handler was added to dump the master and the address responsible of the violation. This was actually some kind of watchpoint, but directly self-handled by the code itself. Now, I would like to reuse the same trick, but on a x86 platform. The problem is that I am very far from understanding how is working the MMU on this platform, and how it is used by Linux, but I wonder if any library/tool/system call already exist to deal with this problem. Note that I am aware that various tools exist like Valgrind or GDB to manage memory problems, but as far as I know, none of these tools car be dynamically reconfigured by the debugged code. I am mainly interested for user space under Linux, but any info on kernel mode or under Windows is also welcome!

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  • How do I perform this MutliArray setup in Java?

    - by Andy Barlow
    I come from a PHP background and I'm just getting my teeth into some Java. I was wondering how I could implement the following in Java as simply as possible, just echoing the results to a terminal via the usual "System.out.print()" method. <?php $Results[0]['title'] = "No Country for Old Men"; $Results[0]['run_time'] = "122 mins"; $Results[0]['cert'] = "15"; $Results[1]['title'] = "Old School"; $Results[1]['run_time'] = "88 mins"; $Results[1]['cert'] = "18"; // Will basically show the above in order. foreach($Results as value) { echo $Results[$value]['title']; echo $Results[$value]['run_time']; echo $Results[$value]['cert']; } // Lets add some more as I need to do this in Java too $Results[2]['title'] = "Saving Private Ryan"; $Results[2]['run_time'] = "153 mins"; $Results[2]['cert'] = "15"; // Lets remove the first one as an example of another need $Results[0] = null; ?> I hear there are "list iterators" or something that are really good for rolling through data like this. Perhaps it could be implemented with that? A fully working .java file would be most handy in this instance, including how to add and remove items from the array like the above. P.S. I do plan on using this for an Android App in the distant future, so, hopefully it should all work on Android fine too, although, I imagine this sort of thing works on anything Java related :).

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