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  • What are the most time consuming checks performed by .NET when executing a managed appplication?

    - by ltorje
    I've developed a .NET based Windows service that uses part managed (C#) and unmanaged code (C/C++ libraries). In some domain environments (e.g. Win 2k3 32bit server inside domain abc.com) sometimes the service takes more than 30 seconds to start (especially on OS restart), thus failing to start the service. I suspect that it has something to do with enterprise level security but I do not know for sure. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa720255%28VS.71%29.aspx I've tried the following without success: - delay loading references by moving the using directives as far as possible from the servicebase implementation (especially the xml namespace - know to cause delays in loading) - delay loading and configuring log4net - precompiling the code by using ngen - delaying the start of the worker thread - add/remove manifest + decencies set inside - sign/unsign the binaries - use the configuration settings (there are a lot of settings and the scope level for all is set to application ) as later as possible - add all dependencies to GAC I didn't tried yet to add security demands for the class that has the Main method implemented. I didn't tries to implement my own configuration loader because after inspecting the autogenerated code, I've noticed that the setting class is a singletone and it gets its instance on call. By completely removing the log4net dependency it worked, but this is not an option. When the network card is disabled the service starts immediately. Any suggestions/comments/solution you have would be most welcomed.

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  • Limit iPhone in-app purchase by user's country

    - by Ryan
    Hello everyone. I'm a product manager who works for a small internet company that is developing an iPhone application for a social network. We monetize by offering limited and premium memberships to users (premium members get additional features not available to limited members). For billing on the web, we use a 3rd-party payment gateway that is nearing retirement, and will be replaced by an in-house solution. The business wants a global launch for our iPhone app using iTunes + in-app purchasing as a payment gateway. The problem with going global using this payment method is that for our web service membership level, available features, and subscription costs are defined by country. For example, in the US premium/limited memberships are available at 5 pricing tiers; in France premium/limited memberships are available at 5 different pricing tiers from the US; and in Chile the service is available for free and all features are available to users. Is it possible then to have the server-side, based on the user's country of registration, control the level of access, features, and payment options for users on the iPhone? I'd also note that since iTunes Connect does not allow variable pricing by currency and country, each "region" would need 5 in app purchase options. I argued for a US-only launch for iPhone using iTunes in app purchase until an in-house payment gateway is available. But you know...

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  • Long running transactions with Spring and Hibernate?

    - by jimbokun
    The underlying problem I want to solve is running a task that generates several temporary tables in MySQL, which need to stay around long enough to fetch results from Java after they are created. Because of the size of the data involved, the task must be completed in batches. Each batch is a call to a stored procedure called through JDBC. The entire process can take half an hour or more for a large data set. To ensure access to the temporary tables, I run the entire task, start to finish, in a single Spring transaction with a TransactionCallbackWithoutResult. Otherwise, I could get a different connection that does not have access to the temporary tables (this would happen occasionally before I wrapped everything in a transaction). This worked fine in my development environment. However, in production I got the following exception: java.sql.SQLException: Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction This happened when a different task tried to access some of the same tables during the execution of my long running transaction. What confuses me is that the long running transaction only inserts or updates into temporary tables. All access to non-temporary tables are selects only. From what documentation I can find, the default Spring transaction isolation level should not cause MySQL to block in this case. So my first question, is this the right approach? Can I ensure that I repeatedly get the same connection through a Hibernate template without a long running transaction? If the long running transaction approach is the correct one, what should I check in terms of isolation levels? Is my understanding correct that the default isolation level in Spring/MySQL transactions should not lock tables that are only accessed through selects? What can I do to debug which tables are causing the conflict, and prevent those tables from being locked by the transaction?

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  • How much does Website Development cost nowadays?

    - by Andreas Grech
    I am thinking of setting up my own freelance business but coming from a workplace that offers a particular service to huge clients, I do not know what are the current charges for websites are nowadays. I know that as technology just keeps changing and changing (most of the time, for the better...), the amount you charge for a single website is constantly differing. Like for example, I don't think static websites (with just static html pages) are that expensive today, no? (as i said, I might be mistaken since I haven't really touched on this freelance industry yet) So, freelance web-developers out there, can you give me estimates on how much you charge for your clients? Some examples of websites that I want to know an approx charge: ~10 static html pages ~10 dhtml pages (with maybe a flasy menu on the top/side) Database driven websites with a standard CMS (be it the one you developed, or an existing one) Database driven but with a custom-built cms for the particular client Using an existing template for a design Starting the design from scratch etc... I know that the normally clients don't really care about the technologies used to construct their websites, but do you charge differently according to which technology you use to build the website with?; as in, is the technology a factor when setting the price? ...being ASP.Net, PHP, Ruby On Rails etc... Also, how do you go on about charging your clients for your services? What are the major factors that you consider when setting a price tag for a website to a client ? And better yet, how do you even find prospective clients? <= [or should I leave this question for a different post?] Btw, in your post, also mention some numbers (in cash values, be it in USD, GBP, EUR or anything) because I want to be able to take calculate some averages from this post when some answers stack up

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  • Manage multiple UDP calls

    - by rayman
    Hi all, I would like to have an advice for this issue: I am using Jbos 5.1.0, EJB3.0 I have system, which sending requests via UDP'S to remote modems, and suppose to wait for an answer from the target modem. the remote modems support only UDP calls, therefor I o design asynchronous mechanism. (also coz I want to request X modems parallel) this is what I try to do: all calls are retrieved from Data Base, then each call will be added as a message to JMS QUE. let's say i will set X MDB'S on that que, so I can work asynchronous. now each MDB will send UDP request to the IP-address(remote modem) which will be parsed from the que message. so basicly each MDB, which takes a message is sending a udp request to the remote modem and [b]waiting [/b]for an answer from that modem. [u]now here is the BUG:[/u] could happen a scenario where MDB will get an answer, but not from the right modem( which it requested in first place). that bad scenario cause two wrong things: a. the sender which sent the message will wait forever since the message never returned to him(it got accepted by another MDB). b. the MDB which received the message is not the right one, and probablly if it was on a "listener" mode, then it supposed to wait for an answer from diffrent sender.(else it wouldnt get any messages) so ofcourse I can handle everything with a RETRY mechanisem. so both mdb's(the one who got message from the wrong sender, and the one who never got the answer) will try again, to do thire operation with a hope that next time it will success. This is the mechanism, mybe you could tell me if there is any design pattren, or any other effective solution for this problem? Thanks, ray.

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  • NOT A DUPLICATE! VS2010 - How to automatically stop compile on first compile error

    - by Ben Robbins
    {rant}First I'd like to say that this IS NOT A DUPLICATE. I've asked this question previously but it got closed as a duplicate when it isn't. This question is SPECIFIC to VS 2010 and the answers to the so-called duplicate work in VS 2008 but not in VS 2010 (at least not for me or anyone I know). So before you go closing something as a duplicate how about you read the question carefully and try the answer for yourself and see if it actually works. Apologies for the rant but there is no obvious way to contact the SO police that closed the issue or get it reopened. {/rant} At work we have a C# solution with over 80 projects. In VS 2008 we use a macro to stop the compile as soon as a project in the solution fails to build (see this question for several options for VS 2005 & VS 2008: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134796/how-to-automatically-stop-visual-c-build-at-first-compile-error). Is it possible to do the same in VS 2010? What we have found is that in VS 2010 the macros don't work (at least I couldn't get them to work) as it appears that the environment events don't fire in VS 2010. The default behaviour is to continue as far as possible and display a list of errors in the error window. I'm happy for it to stop either as soon as an error is encountered (file-level) or as soon as a project fails to build (project-level). Answers for VS 2010 only please. If the macros do work then a detailed explanation of how to configure them for VS 2010 would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • WPF : Access Application Resources when not referencing Shell from App.xaml

    - by CF_Maintainer
    I am beginner in WPF. My App.xaml looks like below app.xaml <Application x:Class="ContactManager.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Application.Resources> <Color x:Key="lightBlueColor">#FF145E9D</Color> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="lightBlueBrush" Color="{StaticResource lightBlueColor}" /> </Application.Resources> I do not set the startupuri since I want to a presenter first approach. I do the following in app.xaml.cs protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); var appPresenter = new ApplicationPresenter( new Shell(), new ContactRepository()); appPresenter.LaunchView(); } I have a usercontrol called "SearchBar.xaml" which references "lightBlueBrush" as a staticResource. When I try to open "Shell.xaml" in the designer it tells me : The "shell.xaml" cannot be loaded at design time because it says it could not create an instance of type "SearchBar.xaml". When I debugged the devenv.exe using another visual studio instance it tells me that it does not have access to the Brush I created in app.resources. If one is doing a Presenter first approach, how does one access resources? I had this working when the startupURI was "Shell.xaml" and the startup event was not present. Any clues/ideas/suggestions. I am just trying to understand. Everything works as expected when I run the application just not @ design time.

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  • Seperate html pages for each screen in Jquery mobile

    - by vrs
    I am newbie to Jquery Mobile, so far what ever examples i searched contains only one html page for whole application, with multipe div tags where each page/screen is defined as div tag with data-role as page with some header and footers optionally. Based on user actions, we are hiding some div's(pages) and showing only expected page. Also, this multi-page template seems to be standard design, as written by some blogs. Are there any other designing ways? what I would like to have is multipe html pages, for ex one for login, one for home, one for contact etc. Other wise it is difficult to understand/code/debug issues, especially people from Java background like me.So, what I want is some kind of MVC design with JQueryMobile, like each view/screen as sepearate html associated with one js (Controller). Can we have multiple html pages in JqueryMobile app? If possible how to pass data/ maintain session between them? Any samples are most welcome. Thanks In Advance. Note: Also I don't want server side includes, may app contains 10 to 15 screens, each page will make a webservice call and fetch some data and map it to UI.

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  • ViewController has wrong orientation after Landscape-only has been popped

    - by noroom
    In a navigation-based app, LandscapeViewController only supports landscape mode (all others support both modes). I also have a "loading screen" that advises the user to rotate the phone before continuing. This way I can make sure that when my landscape view loads, that it's in landscape mode. The problem comes when i rotate the phone to portrait mode while still showing LandscapeVC. I press the Back nagivation button to navigate up one level (to a VC that supports both landscape and portrait modes), but the upper level shows in landscape mode even though the phone is in portrait mode. I guess this is because when I left this view I was in portrait mode, I then rotated the phone while in another view, so this view has not received the notification. If I then proceed to rotate the phone to the other landscape mode (say the LandscapeVC was loaded on its right side, so I'd rotate the upper VC from portrait to the left landscape mode), it will update. My question is: how can I notify this upper view that the phone was rotated, so when the user goes up after putting the phone in portrait mode, the upper view shows correctly?

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  • [JAX-B] How can I ignore a superclass?

    - by MrSpandex
    I'm trying to write a web service for the java.util.logging api. So I wrote a class MyLogRecord that inherits from LogRecord. I annotated this class with JAX-B annotations, including @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.NONE) so it would ignore non-annotated fields and properties. When I start up tomcat, I get errors that java.util.logging.Level and other java.util.logging classes do not have a default constructor, but none of my annotated methods make any reference to the Level class or any of the other java.util.logging classes. These are referenced by the parent class. My sub-class has everything it needs defined. How can I get JAX-B to ignore the parent class completely? Update: I found another post on this, which suggests modifying the parent class. This is obviously not possible because I am extending a java.util class. IS there any way to do this without modifying the superclass? Update2: I found a thread on java.net for a similar problem. That thread resulted in an enhancement request, which was marked as a duplicate of another issue, which resulted in the @XmlTransient annotation. The comments on these bug reports lead me to believe this is impossible in the current spec.

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  • Android Html.fromHtml

    - by user3688154
    hi take from database a String like this: "Frog Revolution <\strong<\span<\p\r\nUn mix perfetto di design e praticità, che stimola il piacere dello sguardo.<\span<\p\r\nLa Frog è una macchina da caffè espresso a cialde destinata sia al mercato domestico che quello aziendale. <\span<\p\r\nIl suo design innovativo, la sua semplicità e la qualità delle sue componenti, la rendono un bene strumentale affidabile a cui puntare in tutta tranquillità. <\span<\p\r\nDIMENSIONI:<\strong<\span<\p\r\n\r\nLarghezza: 22 cm <\span<\li\r\nAltezza: 40 cm<\span<\li\r\nProfondità: 32 cm<\span<\li\r\nPeso: 6.5 Kg<\span<\li\r\n<\ul\r\nCARATTERISTICHE TECNICHE<\strong<\span<\p\r\n\r\nPotenza normale 650 W <\span<\li\r\nVoltaggio 230 V<\span<\li\r\nSistema di decalcificazione rapido <\span<\li\r\nAlloggio bottiglia d'acqua <\span<\li\r\n<\ul\r\nACCESSORI<\strong<\span<\p\r\n\r\nVano porta cialde e bicchieri<\span<\li\r\n<\ul" now i try to put it in a TextView with Html.fromHtml() method…but without success..Can you help me?

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  • Python: circular imports needed for type checking

    - by phild
    First of all: I do know that there are already many questions and answers to the topic of the circular imports. The answer is more or less: "Design your Module/Class structure properly and you will not need circular imports". That is true. I tried very hard to make a proper design for my current project, I in my opinion I was successful with this. But my specific problem is the following: I need a type check in a module that is already imported by the module containing the class to check against. But this throws an import error. Like so: foo.py: from bar import Bar class Foo(object): def __init__(self): self.__bar = Bar(self) bar.py: from foo import Foo class Bar(object): def __init__(self, arg_instance_of_foo): if not isinstance(arg_instance_of_foo, Foo): raise TypeError() Solution 1: If I modified it to check the type by a string comparison, it will work. But I dont really like this solution (string comparsion is rather expensive for a simple type check, and could get a problem when it comes to refactoring). bar_modified.py: from foo import Foo class Bar(object): def __init__(self, arg_instance_of_foo): if not arg_instance_of_foo.__class__.__name__ == "Foo": raise TypeError() Solution 2: I could also pack the two classes into one module. But my project has lots of different classes like the "Bar" example, and I want to seperate them into different module files. After my own 2 solutions are no option for me: Has anyone a nicer solution for this problem?

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  • After interruption, delayed audio route change notifications when recording

    - by Frank Shearar
    My iPhone application requires that I know when a user has/has not plugged in her headphones. That's easy. AudioSessionAddPropertyListener with a callback listening to kAudioSessionProperty_AudioRouteChange. I write logs with NSLog as things happen. User plugs the headphones in? Get a notification, and a line in the gdb console. User unplugs the headphones? Ditto. At the same time I'm sensing the noise level of the environment by starting a recording audio queue. This, too, works great: I can get the mic noise level and listen for audio route changes just fine. What I find is that after an interruption, and I've reactivated the audio session and restored the audio category to kAudioSessionCategory_RecordAudio, the audio route notifications go a bit haywire. When I plug in the headphones, I see no notification. When I unplug the headphones I see BOTH the "plugged in" notification AND the "unplugged" notification, in rapid succession. It's like the "plugged in" notification's delayed and, when the "unplugged" notification arrives, the queue of pending notifications is flushed. What am I doing wrong? How do I correctly restore the audio session to get timeous notifications? EDIT: iPhone OS 3.1.2, running on an iPhone 3G. I'm running a program compiled with the 3.0 SDK (from within XCode 3.1.2).

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  • activemessaging with stomp and activemq.prefetchSize=1

    - by Clint Miller
    I have a situation where I have a single activemq broker with 2 queues, Q1 and Q2. I have two ruby-based consumers using activemessaging. Let's call them C1 and C2. Both consumers subscribe to each queue. I'm setting activemq.prefetchSize=1 when subscribing to each queue. I'm also setting ack=client. Consider the following sequence of events: 1) A message that triggers a long-running job is published to queue Q1. Call this M1. 2) M1 is dispatched to consumer C1, kicking off a long operation. 3) Two messages that trigger short jobs are published to queue Q2. Call these M2 and M3. 4) M2 is dispatched to C2 which quickly runs the short job. 5) M3 is dispatched to C1, even though C1 is still running M1. It's able to dispatch to C1 because prefetchSize=1 is set on the queue subscription, not on the connection. So the fact that a Q1 message has already been dispatched doesn't stop one Q2 message from being dispatched. Since activemessaging consumers are single-threaded, the net result is that M3 sits and waits on C1 for a long time until C1 finishes processing M1. So, M3 is not processed for a long time, despite the fact that consumer C2 is sitting idle (since it quickly finishes with message M2). Essentially, whenever a long Q1 job is run and then a whole bunch of short Q2 jobs are created, exactly one of the short Q2 jobs gets stuck on a consumer waiting for the long Q1 job to finish. Is there a way to set prefetchSize at the connection level rather than at the subscription level? I really don't want any messages dispatched to C1 while it is processing M1. The other alternative is that I could create a consumer dedicated to processing Q1 and then have other consumers dedicated to processing Q2. But, I'd rather not do that since Q1 messages are infrequent--Q1's dedicated consumers would sit idle most of the day tying up memory.

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  • Is my objective possible using WCF (and is it the right way to do things?)

    - by David
    I'm writing some software that modifies a Windows Server's configuration (things like MS-DNS, IIS, parts of the filesystem). My design has a server process that builds an in-memory object graph of the server configuration state and a client which requests this object graph. The server would then serialize the graph, send it to the client (presumably using WCF), the server then makes changes to this graph and sends it back to the server. The server receives the graph and proceeds to make modifications to the server. However I've learned that object-graph serialisation in WCF isn't as simple as I first thought. My objects have a hierarchy and many have parametrised-constructors and immutable properties/fields. There are also numerous collections, arrays, and dictionaries. My understanding of WCF serialisation is that it requires use of either the XmlSerializer or DataContractSerializer, but DCS places restrictions on the design of my object-graph (immutable data seems right-out, it also requires parameter-less constructors). I understand XmlSerializer lets me use my own classes provided they implement ISerializable and have the de-serializer constructor. That is fine by me. I spoke to a friend of mine about this, and he advocates going for a Data Transport Object-only route, where I'd have to maintain a separate DataContract object-graph for the transport of data and re-implement my server objects on the client. Another friend of mine said that because my service only has two operations ("GetServerConfiguration" and "PutServerConfiguration") it might be worthwhile just skipping WCF entirely and implementing my own server that uses Sockets. So my questions are: Has anyone faced a similar problem before and if so, are there better approaches? Is it wise to send an entire object graph to the client for processing? Should I instead break it down so that the client requests a part of the object graph as it needs it and sends only bits that have changed (thus reducing concurrency-related risks?)? If sending the object-graph down is the right way, is WCF the right tool? And if WCF is right, what's the best way to get WCF to serialise my object graph?

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  • Variable reference problem when loading an object from a file in Java

    - by Snail
    I have a problem with the reference of a variable when loading a saved serialized object from a data file. All the variables referencing to the same object doesn't seem to update on the change. I've made a code snipped below that illustrates the problem. Tournament test1 = new Tournament(); Tournament test2 = test1; try { FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream("test.out"); ObjectInputStream in = new ObjectInputStream(fis); test1 = (Tournament) in.readObject(); in.close(); } catch (IOException ex){ Logger.getLogger(Frame.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (ClassNotFoundException ex){ Logger.getLogger(Frame.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } System.out.println("test1: " + test1); System.out.println("test2: " + test2); After this code is ran test1 and test2 doesn't reference to the same object anymore. To my knowledge they should do that since in the declaration of test2 makes it a reference to test1. When test1 is updated test2 should reflect the change and return the new object when called in the code. Am I missing something essential here or have I been misstaught about how the variable references in Java works?

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  • 'Bank Switching' Sprites on old NES applications

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    I'm currently writing in C# what could basically be called my own interpretation of the NES hardware for an old-school looking game that I'm developing. I've fired up FCE and have been observing how the NES displayed and rendered graphics. In a nutshell, the NES could hold two bitmaps worth of graphical information, each with the dimensions of 128x128. These are called the PPU tables. One was for BG tiles and the other was for sprites. The data had to be in this memory for it to be drawn on-screen. Now, if a game had more graphical data then these two banks, it could write portions of this new information to these banks -overwriting what was there - at the end of each frame, and use it from the next frame onward. So, in old games how did the programmers 'bank switch'? I mean, within the level design, how did they know which graphic set to load? I've noticed that Mega Man 2 bankswitches when the screen programatically scrolls from one portion of the stage to the next. But how did they store this information in the level - what sprites to copy over into the PPU tables, and where to write them at? Another example would be hitting pause in MM2. BG tiles get over-written during pause, and then get restored when the player unpauses. How did they remember which tiles they replaced and how to restore them? If I was lazy, I could just make one huge static bitmap and just grab values that way. But I'm forcing myself to limit these values to create a more authentic experience. I've read the amazing guide on how M.C. Kids was made, and I'm trying to be barebones about how I program this game. It still just boggles my mind how these programmers accomplisehd what they did with what they had. EDIT: The only solution I can think of would be to hold separate tables that state what tiles should be in the PPU at what time, but I think that would be a huge memory resource that the NES wouldn't be able to handle.

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  • Ruby on rails form variables as array items

    - by Francois
    I have a simple form with text input and text area, but when I submit it the variables seems to be array items instead of just string values? the form <%= form_tag(home_kontak_path, :remote => true) do %> <label>Jou epos adres</label> <%= text_field(:epos, "", :placeholder => "Jou epos adres", :id => "epos", :class => "input-block-level") %> <label>Boodskap hier</label> <%= text_area(:boodskap, "", :rows => "5", :placeholder => "Boodskap hier...", :id => "boodskap", :class => "input-block-level") %> <%= submit_tag "submit" %> <% end %> console output Started POST "/home/kontak" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-11-23 11:53:03 +0200 Processing by HomeController#kontak as JS Parameters: {"utf8"=>"?", "authenticity_token"=>"i+5UWaQeBu7LYGPFBNAbum+67VzyyC82JN2wMlLc/UU=", "epos"=>["text box value"], "boodskap"=>["text area value"], "commit"=>""} what i would like it to be instead of "epos"=["text box value"] i want it to return "epos"="text box value"

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  • getting number from console!

    - by Johanna
    Hi this is my method that will be called if I want to get a number from user. but if the user also enter a right number just the "else" part will be run ,why? please help me tahnsk. public static int chooseTheTypeOfSorting() { System.out.println("Enter 0 for merge sorting OR enter 1 for bubble sorting"); int numberFromConsole = 0; try { InputStreamReader isr = new InputStreamReader(System.in); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(isr); String s = br.readLine(); DecimalFormat df = new DecimalFormat(); Number n = df.parse(s); numberFromConsole = n.intValue(); } catch (ParseException ex) { Logger.getLogger(DoublyLinkedList.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(DoublyLinkedList.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } return numberFromConsole; } and in my main method: public static void main(String[] args) { int i = 0; i = getRandomNumber(10, 10000); int p = chooseTheTypeOfSorting(); DoublyLinkedList list = new DoublyLinkedList(); for (int j = 0; j < i; j++) { list.add(j, getRandomNumber(10, 10000)); if (p == 0) { //do something.... } if (p == 1) { //do something..... } else { System.out.println("write the correct number "); chooseTheTypeOfSorting(); }

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  • NHibernate. DTO -> Domain

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello guys. I've got SOA which processing data for diff clients(asp,sl). The base of this design is domains of my business model. For transporting,showing it to clients I use DTO. For mapping domain to DTO I use AutoMapper. Now I should persist new entities from clients. I want use my DTO's at this scenario too. So i've got some questions as I'm not much familiar with this design 1) Is it a good practice build DTO on client and send it to web-service on the wire? MayBe i should pass my domains? 2) Is it possible have several DTO's to one domain (one show at grid, and one to save). For saving I need set all nonprimitive props at client. 3) DTO - to Domain. If I've got int can I use AutoMapper to generate NHibernate Proxy for this ID, or I should do i manually. Your expierence and practice are very interesting. Thanks for answer!!!

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  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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  • Old dll.config problem !

    - by user313421
    Since 2005 as I googled it's a problem for who needs to read the configuration of an assembly from it's config file "*.dll.config" and Microsoft didn't do anything yet. Story: If you try to read a setting from a class library (plug-in) you fail. Instead the main application domain (EXE which is using the plug-in) config is read and because probably there's not such a config your plug-in will use default setting which is hard-coded when you create it's settings for first time. Any change to .dll.config wouldn't see by your plug-in and you wonder why it's there! If you want to replace it and start searching you may find something like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/594298/c-dll-config-file But just some ideas and one line code. A good replacement for built-in config shouldn't read from file system each time we need a config value, so we can store them in memory; Then what if user changes config file ? we need a FileSystemWatcher and we need some design like singleton ... and finally we are at the same point configuration of .NET is except our one's working. It seems MS did everything but forgot why they built the ".dll.config". Since no DLL is gonna execute by itself, they are referenced from other apps (even if used in web) and so why there's such a "*.dll.config" file ? I'm not gonna argue if it's good to have multiple config files or not. It's my design (plug-able components). Finally { After these years, is there any good practice such as a custom setting class to add in each assemly and read from it's own config file ? }

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  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

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  • log4net 1.2 RollingFileAppender not working

    - by Rishi Poptani
    Hi Guys, I'm using log4net v1.2 with a Windows Service App. My RollingFileAppender seems not to work. I'm pasting the logging sections of my service.exe.config below. Can anyone advise where m going wrong? <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net"/> .....(lots of other config stuff) <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender,log4net" > <param name="File" value="D:\\Trinity\\Booking\\OneDay_PostTrade\\logs\\Trinity.log" /> <param name="MaximumFileSize" value="20MB" /> <param name="MaxSizeRollBackups" value="10" /> <param name="StaticLogFileName" value="true" /> <param name="Threshold" value="ALL" /> <param name="RollingStyle" value="Composite" /> <param name="appendToFile" value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout,log4net"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%d [%t] %-5p %c - %m%n" /> </layout> </appender> ...(stuff in between) <root> <level value="ALL" /> <appender-ref ref="ConsoleAppender" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> </root> .....(stuff in between) <logger name="CSFB.PostTradeRulesEngine"> <level value="ALL"/> </logger>

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  • UIImageView is resizing

    - by dawatson833
    I have an issue with uiimageviews resizing at run time. On one view I have more than a dozen uiimageviews contained within a uiscrollview. The images are assigned at design time. The uiimageview's are all the same size. The mode is set to Aspect Fill for all uiimageviews. At run time the images appear correctly in the view. On a second view I have only 9 uiimageviews. These uiimageviews will display up to nine of the images selected from the first view. There are three images across and three images down. The uiimageview at design time is the same size as on the first view. The uiimageview image is assigned an image that is loaded into an array. All the uiimageviews are sized the same and they also have the mode set to Aspect Fill. The images are assigned at run time using image1.image = xxx. Where xxx is an image stored in an array. However, on this second view, the images are not all the same size. The height of the image changes dynamically. The same image displayed in a different uiimageview on the view will be different sizes. It is the height of the uiimageview that changes. In some cases the image will fill the uiimageview differently. It is like the mode changes dynamically. I've tried using different modes and nothing changes. Any ideas on what is happening?

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