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• Problem with cruise control and visual svn

  - by Andrew

  Hi Wonder if anyone can help, I am experiencing a strange issue with my configuration of cruisecontrol.net and visual svn. I am setting the current ccnet.config <sourcecontrol type="svn"> <trunkUrl>https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk</trunkUrl> <executable>C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe</executable> <username>test</username> <password>test</password> <workingDirectory>D:\Development\Build\application\</workingDirectory> </sourcecontrol> <publishers> <xmllogger/> </publishers> <modificationDelaySeconds>10</modificationDelaySeconds> </project> When I run this I expect it to go to https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk, however i get the following ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.CruiseControlException: Source control operation failed: svn: OPTIONS of 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk': could not connect to server (http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080) . Process command: C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe update D:\Development\build\application\ --username test --password ** --no-auth-cache --non-interactive at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.ProcessSourceControl.Execute(ProcessInfo processInfo) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.Svn.UpdateSource(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Build(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Integrate(IntegrationRequest request) So for some reason it goes to 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk' If I remove the username and password elements in the ccnet.config. It goes to the correct url. I dont understand this behaviour. I have configured visual svn with a certificate using Active directory Certificate Services, if this was the problem I would expect it to show an error regarding the certificate instead of changing the url. I have cleared our state etc Any Ideas

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• How to use the Request URL/URL Rewriting For Localization in ASP.NET - Using an HTTP Module or Globa

  - by LocalizedUrlDMan

  I wanted to see if there is a way to use the request URL/URL rewriting to set the language a page is rendered in by examining a portion of the URL in ASP.NET. We have a site that already works with ASP.NET’s resource localization and user’s can change the language that they see pages/resources on the site in, however the current mechanism in not very search engine friendly since the language variations for each language all appear as one page. It would be much better if we could have pages like www.site.com/en-mx/realfolder/realpage.aspx that allow linking to culture specific versions of a page. I know lots of people have likely done localization through URL structures before and I wanted to know if one of your could share how to do this in the Global.asax file or with an HTTP Module (pointing to links to blog postings would be great too). We have a restriction that the site is based on ASP.NET 2.0 (so we can't used the 3.5+ features yet). Here is the example scenario: A real page exits at: www.site.com/realfolder/realpage.aspx The page has a mechanism for the user to change the language it is displayed in via a dropdown. There are search engine optimization and user links sharing benefits to doing this since people can link directly to a page that has content that is applicable to a certain language (this could also include right-to-left layouts for languages like Japanese). I would like to use an HTTP module to see if the first part of the URL after www.site.com, site.com, subdomain.site.com, etc. contains a valid culture code (e.g. en-us, es-mx) then use that value to set the localization culture of the page/resources based on that URL. So if the user accesses the URL www.site.com/en-MX/realfolder/realpage.aspx Then the page will render in Mexico’s variant of Spanish. If the user goes to www.site.com/realfolder/realpage.aspx directly the page would just use their browser’s language settings.

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• jQuery show based on checkbox value at page load.

  - by Jacob Huggart

  I have an ASP MVC web app and on one of the pages there is a set of Main checkboxes with sub-checkboxes underneath them. The sub-checkboxes should only show up when the corresponding main checkbox is checked. I have the following code that works just fine as long as none of the checkboxes are checked when the page loads. $("input[id$=Suffix]").change(function() { prefix = this.id; if (!$(this).hasClass("checked")) { $("tr[id^=" + prefix + "]").show(); $(this).addClass("checked"); } else { $("tr[id^=" + prefix + "]").hide(); $(this).removeClass("checked"); } }); Now I need to check a database for the values of the main checkboxes. I get the values, and can check the boxes on page load. But when the page comes up, the sub-checkboxes are not displayed when the main checkbox is checked. Also, if the main checkbox is checked when the page loads, the sub-checkboxes are only displayed when the main chcekbox is unchecked (obviously because the above function only acts on .change()). What do you all suggest I try? If you need further explanation feel free to ask. edit: btw, all of this is in $(document).ready()

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• Google map API v3 event click raise when clickingMarkerClusterer?

  - by lucian.jp

  I have a Google Map API v3 map object on a page that uses MarkerClusterer. I have a function that need to run when we click on the map to it is registered as: google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function (event) { CallMe(event.latLng); }); So my problem is as follows: When I click on a cluster of MarkerClusterer instead of behaving like a marker and not raise the click event on the map but only the one from the marker it calls the click from the map. To test this I have generated an alert from the markerclusterer click: google.maps.event.addListener(markerClusterer, "clusterclick", function (cluster) { alert('MarkerClusterer click event'); }); So the clusterclick rises after the click event of map object. I then can't remove the listener of map object as a solution. Is there any way to test if there was a clusterer click in the click event of the map? Or a way to replicate the marker behaviour and do not raise the click event of map when clustererclick is called? Google and documentation didn’t help me. Thx

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• My jquery cookies are not resetting, even though am using the correct code.

  - by Adam Libonatti-Roche

  My problem is that I am trying to reset some form cookies so when someone has completed their form, they are reset so it is possible for someone else to complete the form. Simple and obvious. But However many different lines of code I put in, the cookies just do not seem to be disappearing. I am using the remember function from the site below: Komodo Media So the details stay when they move away from the page: the code i have for the page starting is as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> function remember( selector ){ $(selector).each( function(){ //if this item has been cookied, restore it var name = $(this).attr('name'); if( $.cookie( name ) ){ if( $(this).is(':checkbox') ){ $(this).attr('checked',$.cookie( name )); }else{ $(this).val( $.cookie(name) ); } } //assign a change function to the item to cookie it $(this).change( function(){ if( $(this).is(':checkbox') ){ $.cookie(name, $(this).attr('checked'), { path: '/', expires: 1 }); }else{ $.cookie(''+name+'', $(this).val(), { path: '/', expires: 1 }); } }); }); } // JQUERY FOR THIS PAGE $(document).ready( function(){ remember("[name=username]"); remember("[name=firstname]"); remember("[name=lastname]"); remember("[name=email]"); remember("[name=password]"); remember("[name=address1]"); remember("[name=address2]"); remember("[name=postcode]"); remember("[name=country]"); } ); </script> And the code for resetting them is simple enough, as it takes the cookie name and sets it to null. However, this does not work as on returning to the form, all fields from before are still there. Any help with this would be brilliant.

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• Inheritance of list-style-type property in Firefox (bug in Firebug?)

  - by Marcel Korpel

  Let's have a look at some comments on a page generated by Wordpress (it's not a site I maintain, I'm just wondering what's going on here). As these pages might disappear in the near future, I've put some screenshots online. Here's what I saw: Obviously, the list-item markers shouldn't be there. So I decided to look at the source using Firebug. As you can see, Firebug claims that the list-style property (containing none) is inherited from ol.commentlist. But if that's the case, why are the circle and the square visible? When checking the computed style, Firebug shows the list-style-types correctly. What's the correct behaviour? I just did a quick check in Chromium, whose Web Inspector gave a better view of reality (the list item markers were also displayed in this browser): According to WebKit, list-style of ol.commentlist isn't inherited, only the default value of list-style-type from the rendering engine. So, we may conclude that the output of both browsers is correct and that Firefox (Firebug) shows an incorrect representation of inherited styles. What does the CSS specification say? Inheritance will transfer the list-style values from OL and UL elements to LI elements. This is the recommended way to specify list style information. Not much about the inheritance of ol properties to uls. Is Firebug wrong in this respect? BTW, I managed to let the markers disappear by just changing line 312 of style.css to ol.commentlist, li.commentlist, ul.children { When also explicitly defining the list-style of ul.children to none, the markers are not painted. You can have a look at screenshots of Firebug and WebKit's Web Inspector in this case, if you like.

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• Jquery Date Picker: Append Start Date to End Date and display dates in the future only.

  - by Tim

  Hello, I am using Jquery Date pickers to get Start and End Dates for an application I am building. I have two datepickers, one for a start date and one for an end date. When someone clicks a date in the start date picker I need that date to be appended automatically to the end date picker. I also need the end date picker to select future dates only from the date that has been appended to it. There are two demos on the jquery datepicker site that do what I want, but I am unsure how to combine them to both do what I want. Example One: This example shows how you can tie two date pickers together so that the date selected in one influences the dates that can be selected in the other $(function() { $('.date-pick').datePicker() $('#start-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#end-date').dpSetStartDate(d.addDays(1).asString()); } } ); $('#end-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#start-date').dpSetEndDate(d.addDays(-1).asString()); } } ); }); Example Two: An example showing inline date pickers which are linked together and trigger behaviour in each other... $(function() { $('#date-view1') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date1').val(selectedDate.asString()); $('#date-view2, #date-view3').dpSetSelected(selectedDate.addDays(3).asString()); } ); $('#date-view2') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date2').val(selectedDate.asString()); } ); $('#date-view3').datePicker(); $('#form-check') .bind( 'click', function() { alert('date1=' + $('#date1').val() + '\n' + 'date2=' + $('#date2').val()); } ); }); I have tried many combinations of the codes listed above, but I have not been able to get the desired results. Thanks for all your help, Tim

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• How do you replicate changes from one excel sheet to another in two separate excel apps?

  - by incognick

  This is all in C# .NET Excel Interop Automation for Office 2007. Say you create two excel apps and open the same workbook for each application: app = new Excel.ApplicationClass(); app2 = new Excel.ApplicationClass(); string fileLocation = "myBook.xslx"; workbook = app.Workbooks.Open(fileLocation, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); workbook2 = app2.Workbooks.Open(fileLocation, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); Now, I want to replicate any changes that occur in workbook2, into workbook. I figured out I can hook up the SheetChanged event to capture cell changes: app.SheetChange += new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.AppEvents_SheetChangeEventHandler(app_SheetChange); void app_SheetChange(object Sh, Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Range Target) { Excel.Worksheet sheetReadOnly = (Excel.Worksheet)Sh; string changedRange = Target.get_Address(missing, missing, Excel.XlReferenceStyle.xlA1, missing, missing); Console.WriteLine("The value of " + sheetReadOnly.Name + ":" + changedRange + " was changed to = " + Target.Value2); Excel.Worksheet sheet = workbook.Worksheets[sheetReadOnly.Index] as Excel.Worksheet; Excel.Range range = sheet.get_Range(changedRange, missing); range.Value2 = Target.Value2; } How do you capture calculate changes? I can hook onto the calculate event but the only thing that is passed is the sheet, not the cells that were updated. I tried forcing an app.Calculate() or app.CalculateFullRebuild() but nothing updates in the other application. The change event does not get fired when formulas change (i.e. a slider control causes a SheetCalculate event and not a SheetChange event) Is there a way to see what formulas were updated? Or is there an easier way to sync two workbooks programmatically in real time?

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• Using FluentNHibernate with .Net4

  - by stiank81

  I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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• How can I sync files in two different git repositories (not clones) and maintain history?

  - by brian d foy

  I maintain two different git repos that need to share some files, and I'd like the commits in one repo to show up in the other. What's a good way to do that for ongoing maintenance? I've been one of the maintainers of the perlfaq (Github), and recently I fell into the role of maintaining the Perl core documentation, which is also in git. Long before I started maintaining the perlfaq, it lived in a separate source control repository. I recently converted that to git. Periodically, one of the perl5-porters would sync the shared files in the perlfaq repo and the perl repo. Since we've switched to git, we'e been a bit lazy converting the tools, and I'm now the one who does that. For the time being, the two repos are going to stay separate. Currently, to sync the FAQ for a new (monthly) release of perl, I'm almost ashamed to say that I merely copy the perlfaq*.pod files in the perlfaq repo and overlay them in the perl repo. That loses history, etc. Additionally, sometimes someone makes a change to those files in the perl repo and I end up overwriting it (yes, check git diff you idiot!). The files do not have the same paths in the repo, but that's something that I could change, I think. What I'd like to do, in the magical universe of rainbows and ponies, is pull the objects from the perlfaq repo and apply them in the perl repo, and vice-versa, so the history and commit ids correspond in each. Creating patches works, but it's also a lot work to manage it Git submodules seem to only work to pull in the entire external repo I haven't found something like svn's file externals, but that would work in both directions anyway I'd love to just fetch objects from one and cherry-pick them in the other What's a good way to manage this?

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• MFC Combo-Box Control is not showing the full list of items when I click the drop-down menu...

  - by shan23

  I'm coding an app in MSVS 2008, which has a ComboBox control which I initialize thru the code as below: static char* OptionString[4] = {"Opt1", "Opt2", "Opt3", "Opt4"}; BOOL CMyAppDlg::OnInitDialog() { CDialog::OnInitDialog(); // Set the icon for this dialog. The framework does this automatically // when the application's main window is not a dialog SetIcon(m_hIcon, TRUE); // Set big icon SetIcon(m_hIcon, FALSE); // Set small icon // TODO: Add extra initialization here m_Option.AddString(OptionString[0]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[1]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[2]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[3]); m_Option.SetCurSel(0); return TRUE; // return TRUE unless you set the focus to a control } Now, when I build the app and click the down-arrow, the drop-down box shows the first option ONLY(since I've selected that thru my code). But, if i press down-arrow key on keyboard, it cycles thru the options in the order I've inserted, but never does it show more than 1 option in the box. So, In case an user wants to select option3, he has to cycle through options 1 and 2 !! Though once I select any option using the keyboard, the appropriate event handlers are fired, I'm miffed by this behaviour , as is understandable. I'm listing the properties of the combo-box control as well - only the properties that are true(rest are set to false): Type - Dropdown Vertical Scrollbar Visible Tabstop This has bugged me for weeks now. Can anyone pls enlighten me ?

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• How can I set drawable to a ListView in android

  - by sxingfeng

  I am writing a app for android 1.5. I want to use a complex listview to display my data. I want to show a ImageView of a drawable object in my List item. I learned from a demo: ------> listData.put("Img", listData.put("Img", R.drawable.XXX)); listData.put("Time", "100"); listItems.add(listData); It can display correctly, however, I want to change Img at runtime, The image maybe generated at run-time, so I change the code as follow, but it falls. Can anyone help me ? many thanks! protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.item_list); itemListView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.listview); ArrayList<HashMap<String, Object>> listItems = new ArrayList<HashMap<String, Object>>(); for(int i = 0;i <XXX.size(); ++i) { HashMap<String, Object> listData = new HashMap<String, Object>(); ---------> 1) listData.put("Img", new Drawable(XXX)); 2) listData.put("Time", "100"); 3) listItems.add(listData); } SimpleAdapter listItemAdapter = new SimpleAdapter(this, listItems, R.layout.listitem, new String[] { "Img", "Time"}, new int[] { R.id.listitem_img, R.id.listitem_time }); itemListView.setAdapter(listItemAdapter); listitem.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout android:layout_width="fill_parent" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:paddingBottom="4dip" android:paddingLeft="12dip" android:paddingRight="12dip"> <ImageView android:paddingTop="12dip" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/listitem_img" /> <TextView android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:textSize="20dip" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/listitem_time" /> </LinearLayout>

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• How can I stop SQL Server Management Studio replacing 'SELECT *' with the column list ?

  - by Ben McIntyre

  SQL Server Mgmt Studio is driving me crazy. If I create a view and SELECT '*' from a table, it's all OK and I can save the view. Looking at the SQL for the view (eg.by scripting a CREATE) reveals that the 'SELECT *' really is saved to the view's SQL. But as soon as I reopen the view using the GUI (right click modify), SELECT * is replaced with a column list of all the columns in the table. How can I stop Management Studio from doing this ? I want my 'SELECT *' to remain just that. Perhaps it's just the difficulty of googling 'SELECT *' that prevented me from finding anything remotely relevant to this (i did put it in double quotes). Please, I am highly experienced in Transact-SQL, so please DON'T give me a lecture on why I shouldn't be using SELECT *. I know all the pros and cons and I do use it at times. It's a language feature, and like all language features can be used for good or evil (I emphatically do NOT agree that it is never appropriate to use it). Edit: I'm giving Marc the answer, since it seems it is not possible to turn this behaviour off. Problem is considered closed. I note that Enterprise Manager did no similar thing. The workaround is to either edit SQL as text, or go to a product other than Managment Studio. Or constantly edit out the column list and replace the * every time you edit a view. Sigh.

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• DQL delete from multiple tables (doctrine)

  - by singer

  Need to perform DQL delete from multple related tables. In SQL it is something like this: DELETE r1,r2 FROM ComRealty_objects r1, com_realty_objects_phones r2 WHERE r1.id IN (10,20) AND r2.id_object IN (10,20) I need to perform this statement using DQL, but I'm stuck on this :( <?php $dql = Doctrine_Query::create() ->delete('phones, comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjects comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjectsPhones phones') ->whereIn("comrealtyobjects.id", $ids) ->whereIn("phones.id_object", $ids); echo($dql->getSqlQuery()); ?> But DQL parser gives me this result: DELETE FROM `com_realty_objects_phones`, `ComRealty_objects` WHERE (`id` IN (?) AND `id_object` IN (?)) Searching google and stack overflow I found this(useful) topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2247905/what-is-the-syntax-for-a-multi-table-delete-on-a-mysql-database-using-doctrine But this is not exactly my case - there was delete from single table. If there is a way to override dql parser behaviour? Or maybe some other way to delete records from multiple tables using doctrine. Note: If you are using doctrine behaviours(Doctrine_Record_Generator) you need first to initialize those tables using Doctrine_Core::initializeModels() to perform DQL operations on them.

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• How to setup a Zend_Application with an application.ini and a user.ini

  - by Peter Smit

  I am using Zend_Application and it does not feel right that I am mixing in my application.ini both application and user configuration. What I mean with this is the following. For example, my application needs some library classes in the namespace MyApp_ . So in application.ini I put autoloaderNamespaces[] = "MyApp_". This is pure application configuration, no-one except a programmer would change these. On the other hand I put there a database configuration, something that a SysAdmin would change. My idea is that I would split options between an application.ini and an user.ini, where the options in user.ini take preference (so I can define standard values in application.ini). Is this a good idea? How can I best implement this? The idea's I have are Extending Zend_Application to take multiple config files Making an init function in my Bootstrap loading the user.ini Parsing the config files in my index.php and pass these to Zend_Application (sounds ugly) What shall I do? I would like to have the 'cleanest' solution, which is prepared for the future (newer ZF versions, and other developers working on the same app)

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• How to make a custom NSFormatter work correctly on Snow Leopard?

  - by Nathan

  I have a custom NSFormatter attached to several NSTextFields who's only purpose is to uppercase the characters as they are typed into field. The entire code for my formatter is included below. The stringForObjectValue() and getObjectValue() implementations are no-ops and taken pretty much directly out of Apple's documentation. I'm using the isPartialStringValid() method to return an uppercase version of the string. This code works correctly in 10.4 and 10.5. When I run it on 10.6, I get "strange" behaviour where text fields aren't always render the characters that are typed and sometimes are just displaying garbage. I've tried enabling NSZombie detection and running under Instruments but nothing was reported. I see errors like the following in "Console": HIToolbox: ignoring exception '*** -[NSCFString replaceCharactersInRange:withString:]: Range or index out of bounds' that raised inside Carbon event dispatch ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x917ca58a __raiseError + 410 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x94581f49 objc_exception_throw + 56 2 CoreFoundation 0x917ca2b8 +[NSException raise:format:arguments:] + 136 3 CoreFoundation 0x917ca22a +[NSException raise:format:] + 58 4 Foundation 0x9140f528 mutateError + 218 5 AppKit 0x9563803a -[NSCell textView:shouldChangeTextInRange:replacementString:] + 852 6 AppKit 0x95636cf1 -[NSTextView(NSSharing) shouldChangeTextInRanges:replacementStrings:] + 1276 7 AppKit 0x95635704 -[NSTextView insertText:replacementRange:] + 667 8 AppKit 0x956333bb -[NSTextInputContext handleTSMEvent:] + 2657 9 AppKit 0x95632949 _NSTSMEventHandler + 209 10 HIToolbox 0x93379129 _ZL23DispatchEventToHandlersP14EventTargetRecP14OpaqueEventRefP14HandlerCallRec + 1567 11 HIToolbox 0x933783f0 _ZL30SendEventToEventTargetInternalP14OpaqueEventRefP20OpaqueEventTargetRefP14HandlerCallRec + 411 12 HIToolbox 0x9339aa81 SendEventToEventTarget + 52 13 HIToolbox 0x933fc952 SendTSMEvent + 82 14 HIToolbox 0x933fc2cf SendUnicodeTextAEToUnicodeDoc + 700 15 HIToolbox 0x933fbed9 TSMKeyEvent + 998 16 HIToolbox 0x933ecede TSMProcessRawKeyEvent + 2515 17 AppKit 0x95632228 -[NSTextInputContext handleEvent:] + 1453 18 AppKit 0x9562e088 -[NSView interpretKeyEvents:] + 209 19 AppKit 0x95631b45 -[NSTextView keyDown:] + 751 20 AppKit 0x95563194 -[NSWindow sendEvent:] + 5757 21 AppKit 0x9547bceb -[NSApplication sendEvent:] + 6431 22 AppKit 0x9540f6fb -[NSApplication run] + 917 23 AppKit 0x95407735 NSApplicationMain + 574 24 macsetup 0x00001f9f main + 24 25 macsetup 0x00001b75 start + 53 ) Can anybody shed some light on what is happening? Am I just using NSFormatter incorrectly? -(NSString*) stringForObjectValue:(id)object { if( ![object isKindOfClass: [ NSString class ] ] ) { return nil; } return [ NSString stringWithString: object ]; } -(BOOL)getObjectValue: (id*)object forString: string errorDescription:(NSString**)error { if( object ) { *object = [ NSString stringWithString: string ]; return YES; } return NO; } -(BOOL) isPartialStringValid: (NSString*) cStr newEditingString: (NSString**) nStr errorDescription: (NSString**) error { *nStr = [NSString stringWithString: [cStr uppercaseString]]; return NO; }

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• Splitting MS Access Database - Front End Part Location

  - by kristof

  One of the best practices as specified by Microsoft for Access Development is splitting Access application into 2 parts; Front End that hold all the object except tables and the Back End that holds the tables. The msdn page links there to the article Splitting Microsoft Access Databases to Improve Performance and Simplify Maintainability that describes the process in details. It is recommended that in multi user environment the Back End is stored on the server/shared folder while the Front End is distributed to each user. That implies that each time there are any changes made to the front end they need to be deployed to every user machine. My question is: Assuming that the users themselves do not have rights to modify the Front End part of the application what would be the drawbacks/dangers of leaving this on the server as well next to the Back End copy? I can see the performance issues here, but are there any dangers here like possible corruptions etc? Thank you EDIT Just to clarify, the scenario specified in question assumes one Front End stored on the server and shared by users. I understand that the recommendation is to have FE deployed to each user machine, but my question is more about what are the dangers if that is not done. E.g. when you are given an existing solution that uses the approach of both FE and BE on the server. Assuming the the performance is acceptable and the customer is reluctant to change the approach would you still push the change? And why exactly? For example the danger of possible data corruption would definitely be the strong enough argument, but is that the case? It is a part of follow up of my previous question From SQL Server to MS Access 2007

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• Avoid the collapsing effect on TreeView after updating data

  - by Manolete

  I have a TreeView used to display events. It works great, however every time new events are coming in and populating the tree collapse the tree again to the original position. That is very annoying when the refresh time is less than 1 second and it does not allow the user to interact with the items of the tree. Is there any way to avoid this behaviour? <TreeView Margin="1" BorderThickness="0" Name="eventsTree" ItemsSource="{Binding EventAlertContainers}" Background="#00000000" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" FontSize="14" VirtualizingStackPanel.IsVirtualizing="True"> <TreeView.Resources> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type C:EventAlertContainer}" ItemsSource="{Binding EventAlerts}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Width="20" Height="20" Margin="3,0" Source="Resources\Process_info_32.png" /> <TextBlock FontWeight="Bold" FontSize="16" Text="{Binding Description}" /> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type C:EventAlert}" ItemsSource="{Binding Events}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Width="20" Height="20" Margin="0,0" Source="Resources\clock2_32.jpg" /> <TextBlock FontWeight="DemiBold" FontSize="14" Text="{Binding Name}" /> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type C:Event}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Width="20" Height="20" Margin="0,0" Source="Resources\Task_32.png" /> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock FontSize="12" Text="{Binding Name}" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> </TreeView.Resources> </TreeView>

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• How do I use text in one cell to trigger row to be copied on another sheet in Excel?

  - by Brian Eby

  I provide all of the cut lists for our cabinet manufacturing in Excel. I tally all parts for the entire job on the first worksheet in an Excel file, and then filter the rows based on the "Material" column, and manually copy/paste each row in to its own material-specific worksheet (example: I filter "Materials" column for "Maple Ply", and then copy all "Maple Ply" rows to the "Maple Ply" worksheet). Then the material specific worksheets are sent to the shop floor for cutting. This is time consuming, and if I need to change any data in the first page, I have to go and manually update the copied row in its material-specific page. Is there any way to make each material page "look" for its material, and automatically populate itself with any row that has the appropriate material in the material column (example: any time I enter "Maple Ply" in the material column of sheet one, that row is automatically copied to the "Maple Ply" worksheet)? If so, could this link be dynamic, rather than just a copy, so that if I change a cell in a particular row on sheet one, that data is also updated on the material-specific worksheet copy? Thank you, Brian

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• using style in WPF

  - by Polaris

  In my application I use ShinyBlue.xaml resourse Dictionary which has this code for GroupBox control: <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupBox}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupBox}"> <Grid SnapsToDevicePixels="true"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="6" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="6" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="6" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Border Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.RowSpan="4" Background="{DynamicResource LightBrush}" CornerRadius="4,4,4,4" BorderThickness="1,1,1,1" /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> These style common for all app. But in one of the forms I want to change background to Transparent. I want override only Background Property but it's not work <Style TargetType="GroupBox" BasedOn="{StaticResource {x:Type GroupBox}}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Transparent"/> </Style> code above not works properly How can I change GroupBox Background in specific form ?.

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• How can I find out why a website looks different when I upload it to IIS ?

  - by UXdesigner

  Good day... I've been working on a website project, that requires to be on a Microsoft IIS Web Server. It is HTML, pure HTML, with really nice CSS, web-standards, etc. I open this website using in my computer, using Firefox, IE 8.0, Safari, Google Chrome and it looks fine everywhere. But as I upload it to the Microsoft IIS server, it changes a few things. for example: the main menu, which is a navigation bar that has dropdowns, seems to change it's line-height for some reason, and it is bigger. Some <h3> or <h2> Alignment seems wrong as well... And the lines that are supposed to surround the photographs in the website (like a frame - dotted line) won't appear. But all the rest of the CSS is loading perfectly fine. I don't think it's a path problem as everything is loading fine. But this is making me look bad and it is very important to have this done as soon as possible. Can someone give me good suggestions on what to look at ? The IIS permissions seem fine. I'm not a big Microsoft fan...but I have to develop the website there. Also, I uploaded the site to my apache server and it worked wonders. I wish I could change the policies in this corporation, but I can't. Thank you so much for your kind help.

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• Adding changes from one Mercurial repository to another

  - by Patrik Hägne

  When changing the VCS for my project FakeItEasy from SVN to Mercurial on Google Code I was a bit too eager (I'm funny like that). What I did was just checking the latest version out of SVN and then commiting that checkout as the first revision of the new Mercurial repo. This obviously has the effect that all history is lost. Later when getting a bit better acustomed to Mercurial I realized that there is such a thing as a "convert extension" that allows you to convert a SVN repo into a Mercurial repo. Now what I want to do is to convert the old SVN repo and then have all change sets from the currently existing Mercurial repo imported into this converted repo except the very first commit to Mercurial. I've converted the SVN repo to a local Mercurial repo but now is when I'm stuck. I thought I'd be able to use the convert extension to bring the current Mercurial repository into the converted one and having a splice map remove the first commit but I can not seem to get this to work. I've also tried to just use convert without splice map to get all change sets from the current Mercurial repo into the converted one and the rebase the second version in the current to the last commit from the old SVN repository but I can't get that to work either. To make this clearer lets say I have these two repositories: A: revA1-revA2 B: revB1-revB2-revB3 (Where revB1 is actually a copy of revA2) Now I want to combine these two into the new repository containing this: C: revA1-revA2-revB2-revB3

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• Binding event handlers to specific elements, using bubbling (JavaScript/jQuery)

  - by Bungle

  I'm working on a project that approximates the functionality of Firebug's inspector tool. That is, when mousing over elements on the page, I'd like to highlight them (by changing their background color), and when they're clicked, I'd like to execute a function that builds a CSS selector that can be used to identify them. However, I've been running into problems related to event bubbling, and have thoroughly confused myself. Rather than walk you down that path, it might make sense just to explain what I'm trying to do and ask for some help getting started. Here are some specs: I'm only interested in elements that contain a text node (or any descendant elements with text nodes). When the mouse enters such an element, change its background color. When the mouse leaves that element, change its background color back to what it was originally. When an element is clicked, execute a function that builds a CSS selector for that element. I don't want a mouseover on an element's margin area to count as a mouseover for that element, but for the element beneath (I think that's default browser behavior anyway?). I can handle the code that highlights/unhighlights, and builds the CSS selector. What I'm primarily having trouble with is efficiently binding event handlers to the elements that I want to be highlightable/clickable, and avoiding/stopping bubbling so that mousing over a (<p>) element doesn't also execute the handler function on the <body>, for example. I think the right way to do this is to bind event handlers to the document element, then somehow use bubbling to only execute the bound function on the topmost element, but I don't have any idea what that code looks like, and that's really where I could use help. I'm using jQuery, and would like to rely on that as much as possible. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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• Any HTTP proxies with explicit, configurable support for request/response buffering and delayed conn

  - by Carlos Carrasco

  When dealing with mobile clients it is very common to have multisecond delays during the transmission of HTTP requests. If you are serving pages or services out of a prefork Apache the child processes will be tied up for seconds serving a single mobile client, even if your app server logic is done in 5ms. I am looking for a HTTP server, balancer or proxy server that supports the following: A request arrives to the proxy. The proxy starts buffering in RAM or in disk the request, including headers and POST/PUT bodies. The proxy DOES NOT open a connection to the backend server. This is probably the most important part. The proxy server stops buffering the request when: A size limit has been reached (say, 4KB), or The request has been received completely, headers and body Only now, with (part of) the request in memory, a connection is opened to the backend and the request is relayed. The backend sends back the response. Again the proxy server starts buffering it immediately (up to a more generous size, say 64KB.) Since the proxy has a big enough buffer the backend response is stored completely in the proxy server in a matter of miliseconds, and the backend process/thread is free to process more requests. The backend connection is immediately closed. The proxy sends back the response to the mobile client, as fast or as slow as it is capable of, without having a connection to the backend tying up resources. I am fairly sure you can do 4-6 with Squid, and nginx appears to support 1-3 (and looks like fairly unique in this respect). My question is: is there any proxy server that empathizes these buffering and not-opening-connections-until-ready capabilities? Maybe there is just a bit of Apache config-fu that makes this buffering behaviour trivial? Any of them that it is not a dinosaur like Squid and that supports a lean single-process, asynchronous, event-based execution model? (Siderant: I would be using nginx but it doesn't support chunked POST bodies, making it useless for serving stuff to mobile clients. Yes cheap 50$ handsets love chunked POSTs... sigh)

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• SFINAE failing with enum template parameter

  - by zeroes00

  Can someone explain the following behaviour (I'm using Visual Studio 2010). header: #pragma once #include <boost\utility\enable_if.hpp> using boost::enable_if_c; enum WeekDay {MONDAY, TUESDAY, WEDNESDAY, THURSDAY, FRIDAY, SATURDAY, SUNDAY}; template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} source: bool b = goToWork<MONDAY>(); compiler this gives error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY!=6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' and error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY==6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' But if I change the function template parameter from the enum type WeekDay to int, it compiles fine: template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} Also the normal function template specialization works fine, no surprises there: template<WeekDay DAY> bool goToWork() {return true;} template<> bool goToWork<SUNDAY>() {return false;} To make things even weirder, if I change the source file to use any other WeekDay than MONDAY or TUESDAY, i.e. bool b = goToWork<THURSDAY>(); the error changes to this: error C2440: 'specialization' : cannot convert from 'int' to 'const WeekDay' Conversion to enumeration type requires an explicit cast (static_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast)

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