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  • Understanding F# Asynchronous Programming

    - by Yin Zhu
    I kind of know the syntax of asynchronous programming in F#. E.g. let downloadUrl(url:string) = async { let req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) // Run operation asynchronously let! resp = req.AsyncGetResponse() let stream = resp.GetResponseStream() // Dispose 'StreamReader' when completed use reader = new StreamReader(stream) // Run asynchronously and then return the result return! reader.AsyncReadToEnd() } In F# expert book (and many other sources), they say like let! var = expr simply means "perform the asynchronous operation expr and bind the result to var when the operation completes. Then continue by executing the rest of the computation body" I also know that a new thread is created when performing async operation. My original understanding was that there are two parallel threads after the async operation, one doing I/O and one continuing to execute the async body at the same time. But in this example, I am confused at let! resp = req.AsyncGetResponse() let stream = resp.GetResponseStream() What happens if resp has not started yet and the thread in the async body wants to GetResponseStream? Is this a possible error? So maybe my original understanding was wrong. The quoted sentences in the F# expert book actually means that "creating a new thread, hang the current thread up, when the new thread finishes, wake up the body thread and continue", but in this case I don't see we could save any time. In the original understanding, the time is saved when there are several independent IO operations in one async block so that they could be done at the same time without intervention with each other. But here, if I don't get the response, I cannot create the stream; only I have stream, I can start reading the stream. Where's the time gained?

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  • How to identify ideas and concepts in a given text

    - by Nick
    I'm working on a project at the moment where it would be really useful to be able to detect when a certain topic/idea is mentioned in a body of text. For instance, if the text contained: Maybe if you tell me a little more about who Mr Balzac is, that would help. It would also be useful if I could have a description of his appearance, or even better a photograph? It'd be great to be able to detect that the person has asked for a photograph of Mr Balzac. I could take a really naïve approach and just look for the word "photo" or "photograph", but this would obviously be no good if they wrote something like: Please, never send me a photo of Mr Balzac. Does anyone know where to start with this? Is it even possible? I've looked into things like nltk, but I've yet to find an example of someone doing something similar and am still not entirely sure what this kind of analysis is called. Any help that can get me off the ground would be great. Thanks!

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  • Web application date time localization best practice at 201x

    - by Hieu Lam
    Hi all, I have worked for various web projects but correct date time localization have not been done and considered throroughly so I want to ask this very typical problem here and I want to hear comments from expert in this problem What is the correct strategy for storing a date/time value from client from server As I understand, because of locale and timezone so we have to do the conversion, I have heard about GMT or UTC time and after do some search it seems that UTC is more accurate ? so we will convert from client time - UTC+0 when saving and when we read the value from server to client, we convert from server time back to client time again ? However, I see in some website, at the bottom have the sentence "All times are in UTC", "All times are in GMT" and also "All times are in your local time". So maybe not all the sites do the convertion back and forth ? And in that case the user has to manually do the date/time conversion ? How to display the date/time convenient to user based on his locale and region How to provide personalization on date/time value ? I had one time depends on vbscript to do the display and the format is read from windows regional and format settings automatically. But without vbscript how can we determine a date/time pattern for a user of a specific locale. Do we have to store a mapping between a locale and pattern somewhere and do the conversion at the server side ? Although date/time conversion is needed in most case, there's situation where only date matter for example if my birthday is 2 Feb 1980, it should be the same for all locale and no conversion should be done. How can we address this issue.

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  • How to find the first declaring method for a reference method

    - by Oliver Gierke
    Suppose you have a generic interface and an implementation: public interface MyInterface<T> { void foo(T param); } public class MyImplementation<T> implements MyInterface<T> { void foo(T param) { } } These two types are frework types. In the next step I want allow users to extend that interface as well as redeclare foo(T param) to maybe equip it with further annotations. public interface MyExtendedInterface extends MyInterface<Bar> { @Override void foo(Bar param); // Further declared methods } I create an AOP proxy for the extended interface and intercept especially the calls to furtherly declared methods. As foo(…) is no redeclared in MyExtendedInterface I cannot execute it by simply invoking MethodInvocation.proceed() as the instance of MyImplementation only implements MyInterface.foo(…) and not MyExtendedInterface.foo(…). So is there a way to get access to the method that declared a method initially? Regarding this example is there a way to find out that foo(Bar param) was declared in MyInterface originally and get access to the accoriding Method instance? I already tried to scan base class methods to match by name and parameter types but that doesn't work out as generics pop in and MyImplementation.getMethod("foo", Bar.class) obviously throws a NoSuchMethodException. I already know that MyExtendedInterface types MyInterface to Bar. So If I could create some kind of "typed view" on MyImplementation my math algorithm could work out actually.

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  • Convert a nested array into a flat array with PHP

    - by Ben Fransen
    Hello all, I'm trying to create a generic database mapping class with PHP. Collecting the data through my functions is going well, but as expected I'm retrieving a nested set. A print_r of my received array looks like: Array ( [table] => Session [columns] => Array ( [0] => `Session`.`ID` AS `Session_ID` [1] => `Session`.`User` AS `Session_User` [2] => `Session`.`SessionID` AS `Session_SessionID` [3] => `Session`.`ExpiresAt` AS `Session_ExpiresAt` [4] => `Session`.`CreatedAt` AS `Session_CreatedAt` [5] => `Session`.`LastActivity` AS `Session_LastActivity` [6] => `Session`.`ClientIP` AS `Session_ClientIP` ) [0] => Array ( [table] => User [columns] => Array ( [0] => `User`.`ID` AS `User_ID` [1] => `User`.`UserName` AS `User_UserName` [2] => `User`.`Password` AS `User_Password` [3] => `User`.`FullName` AS `User_FullName` [4] => `User`.`Address` AS `User_Address` ) [0] => Array ( [table] => Address [columns] => Array ( [0] => `Address`.`ID` AS `Address_ID` [1] => `Address`.`UserID` AS `Address_UserID` [2] => `Address`.`Street` AS `Address_Street` [3] => `Address`.`City` AS `Address_City` ) ) ) ) To simplify things I want to recreate this nested array to a flat array so I can easily loop through it and use the 'columns' key to create my SELECT query. I'm kinda struggling with this for a while now and figures, maybe some users at SO can help me out here. I've tried multiple things with recursion, all without luck so far... Any help is much appriciated! Thanks in advance, Ben Fransen

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  • Anonymous union definition/declaration in a macro GNU vs VS2008

    - by Alan_m
    I am attempting to alter an IAR specific header file for a lpc2138 so it can compile with Visual Studio 2008 (to enable compatible unit testing). My problem involves converting register definitions to be hardware independent (not at a memory address) The "IAR-safe macro" is: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, ADDRESS, ATTRIBUTE, BIT_STRUCT) \ volatile __no_init ATTRIBUTE union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME ## _bit; \ } @ ADDRESS //declaration //(where __gpio0_bits is a structure that names //each of the 32 bits as P0_0, P0_1, etc) __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,0xE0028000,__READ_WRITE,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN = 0x0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 0; This is my comparable "hardware independent" code: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, BIT_STRUCT)\ volatile union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME##_bit; \ } NAME; //declaration __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN.IO0PIN = 0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN.IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 1; This compiles and works but quite obviously my "hardware independent" usage does not match the "IAR-safe" usage. How do I alter my macro so I can use IO0PIN the same way I do in IAR? I feel this is a simple anonymous union matter but multiple attempts and variants have proven unsuccessful. Maybe the IAR GNU compiler supports anonymous unions and vs2008 does not. Thank you.

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  • TabControl winform c#

    - by Steve
    Hi, Does anyone know why my tabcontrol will not display on this form? Have a feeling it maybe something simple but at the moment i just get a blank form. Thanks using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace test_project_3 { public partial class TabTest : Form { public TabTest() { InitializeComponent(); WebBrowser WB = new WebBrowser(); WB.Navigate("www.google.com"); TabControl tc = new TabControl(); tc.Dock = DockStyle.Fill; tc.Show(); TabPage tp = new TabPage(); tp.Text = "test"; tp.Show(); tp.Controls.Add(WB); tc.TabPages.Add(tp); } } }

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  • Parameter based bindings in ninject 2.0

    - by Przemaas
    I want to use conditional binding in ninject, based on passed parameters. I have something like below: public class Subject { } public interface ITarget { } public class Target1 : ITarget { } public class Target2 : ITarget { } And now I need to instantiate ITarget interface: public void MethodName(IKernel kernel) { ITarget target1 = kernel.Get<ITarget>(new Parameter("name", new Subject(), true)); // Should be instance of Target1 ITarget target2 = kernel.Get<ITarget>(); // Should be instance of Target2 } I have problems to define proper bindings. I tried the following: kernel.Bind<ITarget>().To<Target1>().When(Predicate); kernel.Bind<ITarget>().To<Target2>(); private bool Predicate(IRequest request) { IParameter parameter = request.Parameters.Count == 0 ? null : request.Parameters[0]; if (parameter == null) { return false; } object parameterValue = parameter.GetValue( /*what to put here?*/); return parameterValue != null && parameterValue.GetType().IsAssignableFrom(typeof(Subject)); } but I don't know how to get value of passed parameter. I need to pass IContext instance to GetValue method, but don't know how to get valid instance of IContext. Or maybe there is better way to accomplish my task? Regards

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  • Hibernate overriding database modifications with detached object state

    - by EugeneP
    I'm gonna go with this design: create an object and keep it alive during all web-app session. And I need to synchronize its state with database state. What I want to achieve is that : IF between my db operations, that is, modifications that I persist to a db someone intentionally spoils table rows, then on next saving to a database all those changes WOULD BE OVERWRITTEN with the object state, that always contains valid data. What Hibernate methods do you recommend me to use to persist the modifications in a database? saveOrUpdate() is a possible solution, but maybe there's anything better? Again, I repeat how it looks. First I create an object without collections. Persist it (save()). Then user provides us with additional data. In a serviceLayer, again, we modify our object in memory (say, populate it with collections) and then, persist it again. So every serviceLayer operation of the next step must simply guarantee that database contains the exact persistent copy of this object that we have in memory. If data in a database differ, it MUST BE OVERRIDDEN with the object (kept in memory) state. What Session operations do you recommend?

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  • How to bind "rest" variables to list of values in macro in Scheme

    - by Slartibartfast
    I want to make a helper macro for writing match-extensions. I have something like this: (define-match-expander my-expander (? (stx) (let* ([dat (cdr (syntax-e stx))] [var1 (car dat))] [var2 (cadr dat)]) ;transformer goes here ))) So I wanted a macro that will do this let binding. I've started with something like this: (define-syntax-rule (define-my-expander (id vars ...) body) (define-match-expander id (? (stx) (match-let ([(vars ...) (cdr (syntax-e stx))]) body)))) but match-let isn't defined in transformation time. First question would be is there any other way of doing this (making this expanders, I mean)? Maybe there is already something similar in plt-scheme that I'm not aware of, or I'm doing it wrong in some way. Regardless of answer on the first question, if I ever want to bound list of variables to list of values inside of a macro, how should I do it? EDIT: In combination with Eli's answer macro now looks like this: (define-syntax-rule (define-my-expander (id vars ...) body) (define-match-expander id (? (stx) (syntax-case stx () [(_ vars ...) body]))))

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  • NHibernate CreateSqlQuery and object graph

    - by magellings
    Hello I'm a newbie to NHibernate. I'd like to make one sql query to the database using joins to my three tables. I have an Application with many Roles with many Users. I'm trying to get NHibernate to properly form the object graph starting with the Application object. For example, if I have 10 application records, I want 10 application objects and then those objects have their roles which have their users. What I'm getting however resembles a Cartesian product in which I have as many Application objects as total User records. I've looked into this quite a bit and am not sure if it is possible to form the application hierarchy correctly. I can only get the flattened objects to come back. It seems "maybe" possible as in my research I've read about "grouped joins" and "hierarchical output" with an upcoming LINQ to NHibernate release. Again though I'm a newbie. [Update Based on Frans comment in Ayende's post here I'm guessing what I want to do is not possible http://ayende.com/Blog/archive/2008/12/01/solving-the-select-n1-problem.aspx ] Thanks for you time in advance. Session.CreateSQLQuery(@"SELECT a.ID, a.InternalName, r.ID, r.ApplicationID, r.Name, u.UserID, u.RoleID FROM dbo.[Application] a JOIN dbo.[Roles] r ON a.ID = r.ApplicationID JOIN dbo.[UserRoleXRef] u ON u.RoleID = r.ID") .AddEntity("app", typeof(RightsBasedSecurityApplication)) .AddJoin("role", "app.Roles") .AddJoin("user", "role.RightsUsers") .List<RightsBasedSecurityApplication>().AsQueryable();

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  • UIWebView selection

    - by Infinity
    Hello guys! I subclassed the UIWindow to get the clicks from UIWebView. I used a tutorial for this. Here is the link: Tutorial It is working, but after I've got and other tutorial from the writer where he shows how to highlight the text in UIWebView. Here's the second link. But I can't use this second one. I tried to run this code in the - (void)userDidTapWebView:(id)tapPoint; delegate method. This delegate method is called when I tap in the UIWebView. Maybe somebody can help me to correct the script? I would like to get the tapped anchor's link. I tried many different java script, but until now I couldn't get the tapped anchor's link. One of the tries is when I tried to add a function to document.onClick. But I tap an anchor then it needs a second tap to get the anchor and I can't get the link neither with this method.

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  • PHP (CodeIgniter) Pass Object Through Session

    - by FranticPedantic
    I am using PHP5 and CodeIgniter and I am trying to implement a single-sign on feature with facebook (although I don't think that facebook is relevant to the question). I am somewhat of a novice with PHP and definitely one with CodeIgniter, so if you think my approach is just completely off telling me that would be helpful too. So here is in short what I am doing: //Controller 1 $this->load->plugin("facebook"); $facebook = new Facebook(array ( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, ) ); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); //works fine $this->session->set_userdata('facebook', serialize($facebook); Now I would like to grab that facebook object in a different controller. //Controller 2 $facebook = unserialize($this->session->userdata('facebook')); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); Produces the error: Call to undefined method getSession. So I look up more about serialization and think that maybe it just doesn't know what the facebook object's attributes are. So I add in a $this->load->plugin('facebook'); To controller 2 as well and I get a "Cannot redeclare class facebook." I am strongly suspecting that I am misunderstanding sessions here. Do I have to somehow tell PHP what kind of object it is? Thanks for the help.

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  • Optimizing C# code in MVC controller

    - by cc0
    I am making a number of distinct controllers, one relating to each stored procedure in a database. These are only used to read data and making them available in JSON format for javascripts. My code so far looks like this, and I'm wondering if I have missed any opportunities to re-use code, maybe make some help classes. I have way too little experience doing OOP, so any help and suggestions here would be really appreciated. Here is my generalized code so far (tested and works); using System; using System.Configuration; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Data; using System.Text; using System.Data.SqlClient; using Prototype.Models; namespace Prototype.Controllers { public class NameOfStoredProcedureController : Controller { char[] lastComma = { ',' }; String oldChar = "\""; String newChar = "&quot;"; StringBuilder json = new StringBuilder(); private String strCon = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SomeConnectionString"].ConnectionString; private SqlConnection con; public StoredProcedureController() { con = new SqlConnection(strCon); } public string do_NameOfStoredProcedure(int parameter) { con.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("NameOfStoredProcedure", con)) { cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@parameter", parameter); using (SqlDataReader reader = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (reader.Read()) { json.AppendFormat("[{0},\"{1}\"],", reader["column1"], reader["column2"]); } } con.Close(); } if (json.Length.ToString().Equals("0")) { return "[]"; } else { return "[" + json.ToString().TrimEnd(lastComma) + "]"; } } //http://host.com/NameOfStoredProcedure?parameter=value public ActionResult Index(int parameter) { return new ContentResult { ContentType = "application/json", Content = do_NameOfStoredProcedure(parameter) }; } } }

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  • Deserializing JSON in WCF throws xml errors in .Net 4.0

    - by Syg
    Hi there. I'm going slidely mad over here, maybe someone else can figure out what's going on here. I have a WCF service exposing a function using webinvoke, like so: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Wrapped, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "registertokenpost" )] void RegisterDeviceTokenForYoumiePost(test token); The datacontract for the test class looks like this: [DataContract(Namespace="Zooma.Test", Name="test", IsReference=true)] public class test { string waarde; [DataMember(Name="waarde", Order=0)] public string Waarde { get { return waarde; } set { waarde = value; } } } When sending the following json message to the service, { "test": { "waarde": "bla" } } the trace log gives me errors (below). I have tried this with just a string instead of the datatype (void RegisterDeviceTokenForYoumiePost(string token); ) but i get the same error. All help is appreciated, can't figure it out. It looks like it's creating invalid xml from the json message, but i'm not doing any custom serialization here. The formatter threw an exception while trying to deserialize the message: Error in deserializing body of request message for operation 'RegisterDeviceTokenForYoumiePost'. Unexpected end of file. **Following elements are not closed**: waarde, test, root.</Message><StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.DeserializeRequest(Message message, Object[] parameters)

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  • CSS Design question, I've got myself completely turned around.

    - by Matt Dawdy
    Okay, I have a couple of other questions out there, but I think I'd better just ask from the beginning how you CSS experts would do this. Client's page is split into 2 rows -- header has some info, some aligned to left of page, some to right, some in the middle. This is currently done using a table. I'm fine with leaving this alone or changing it. My real question is that I need a page layout to handle the following: 2 columns - column on left is 200px, but can be "close" down to to 10px (not a slider, it's either 200 or 10 px). The column on the right needs to be as big as it needs to be -- which might be larger than the width of the page. When left column is "closed" then the right column slides over of course. Again, this right column might be 300px or it might be 4000 pixels (it's a reporting interface). Now, to add another wrinkle, SOME pages have 3 columns. The first 2 columns are each exactly 200px, and both can be "closed" down to 10 px each. But, the user may not close both columns, maybe just 1. Or none. Or both. The third column needs to act just like I described above, being able to be larger than the page width, and sliding over to take advantage of any of the "closed" left columns. Whew! I'm pretty confused as to how to go about this, as either I get it right but I can't scroll over to the right at all (overflow: hidden) and information is lost, or the right column jumps down below the left 2 columns and just looks plain stupid. My minimum browser requirements are IE8, FF3.5, Chrome and Safari (latest versions of all). Any and all pointers are gladly accepted.

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  • Recommendations of a high volume log event viewer in a Java enviroment

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I am in a situation where I would like to accept a LOT of log events controlled by me - notably the logging agent I am preparing for slf4j - and then analyze them interactively. I am not as such interested in a facility that presents formatted log files, but one that can accept log events as objects and allow me to sort and display on e.g. threads and timelines etc. Chainsaw could maybe be an option but is currently not compatible with logback which I use for technical reasons. Is there any project with stand alone viewers or embedded in an IDE which would be suitable for this kind of log handling. I am aware that I am approaching what might be suitable for a profiler, so if there is a profiler projekt suitable for this kind of data acquisition and display where I can feed the event pipe, I would like to hear about it). Thanks for all feedback Update 2009-03-19: I have found that there is not a log viewer which allows me to see what I would like (a visual display of events with coordinates determined by day and time, etc), so I have decided to create a very terse XML format derived from the log4j XMLLayout adapted to be as readable as possible while still being valid XML-snippets, and then use the Microsoft LogParser to extract the information I need for postprocessing in other tools.

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  • How to get user input before saving a file in Sublime Text

    - by EddieJessup
    I'm making a plugin in Sublime Text that prompts the user for a password to encrypt a file before it's saved. There's a hook in the API that's executed before a save is executed, so my naïve implementation is: class TranscryptEventListener(sublime_plugin.EventListener): def on_pre_save(self, view): # If document is set to encode on save if view.settings().get('ON_SAVE'): self.view = view # Prompt user for password message = "Create a Password:" view.window().show_input_panel(message, "", self.on_done, None, None) def on_done(self, password): self.view.run_command("encode", {password": password}) The problem with this is, by the time the input panel appears for the user to enter their password, the document has already been saved (despite the trigger being 'on_pre_save'). Then once the user hits enter, the document is encrypted fine, but the situation is that there's a saved plaintext file, and a modified buffer filled with the encrypted text. So I need to make Sublime Text wait until the user's input the password before carrying out the save. Is there a way to do this? At the moment I'm just manually re-saving once the encryption has been done: def on_pre_save(self, view, encode=False): if view.settings().get('ON_SAVE') and not view.settings().get('ENCODED'): self.view = view message = "Create a Password:" view.window().show_input_panel(message, "", self.on_done, None, None) def on_done(self, password): self.view.run_command("encode", {password": password}) self.view.settings().set('ENCODED', True) self.view.run_command('save') self.view.settings().set('ENCODED', False) but this is messy and if the user cancels the encryption then the plaintext file gets saved, which isn't ideal. Any thoughts? Edit: I think I could do it cleanly by overriding the default save command. I hoped to do this by using the on_text_command or on_window_command triggers, but it seems that the save command doesn't trigger either of these (maybe it's an application command? But there's no on_application_command). Is there just no way to override the save function?

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  • C# Uploading files to file server

    - by JustFoo
    Hello All, Currently I have an application that receives an uploaded file from my web application. I now need to transfer that file to a file server which happens to be located on the same network (however this might not always be the case). I was attempting to use the webclient class in C# .NET. string filePath = "C:\\test\\564.flv"; try { WebClient client = new WebClient(); NetworkCredential nc = new NetworkCredential(uName, password); Uri addy = new Uri("\\\\192.168.1.28\\Files\\test.flv"); client.Credentials = nc; byte[] arrReturn = client.UploadFile(addy, filePath); Console.WriteLine(arrReturn.ToString()); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } The machine located at 192.168.1.28 is a file server and has a share c:\Files. As of right now I am receiving an error of Login failed bad user name or password, but I can open explorer and type in that path login successfully. I can also login using remote desktop, so I know the user account works. Any ideas on this error? Is it possible to transfer a file directly like that? With the webclient class or maybe some other class? Thanks

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  • Gradle fails injecting dependencies into subprojects using fileTree

    - by Matthias
    Maybe I'm missing something about the way Gradle works. What I have here is a parent project, which only contains configuration, i.e. there won't be any artifact being built when building it, it merely manages and builds all its subprojects. Now the subprojects share some dependency configuration, so I figured what I would do in the root project's build.gradle is: subprojects { dependencies { compile fileTree(dir: 'lib', includes: ['*.jar']) } } that, however, does not work, it fails with a rather obscure error message: A problem occurred evaluating root project 'qype-android' Cause: No signature of method: org.gradle.api.internal.artifacts.dsl.dependencies.DefaultDependencyHandler.compile() is applicable for argument types: (org.gradle.api.internal.file.DefaultConfigurableFileTree) values: [file set 'lib'] Possible solutions: module(java.lang.Object) after some trial and error, I could "fix" this issue by applying the 'java' plugin to the parent project. How come? I don't see anywhere from the Gradle docs that a fileTree dependency requires the Java plugin. Even so, why would I need it on the project that is injecting the configuration, as opposed to on the project that is being configured (note that the subprojects all apply the Java plugin themselves)? Does this mean that if I have N different subprojects that are all of varying natures, and apply different plugins, that the parent projects must always apply the set of all plugins beings used somewhere to itself, too?

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  • Oracle why does creating trigger fail when there is a field called timestamp?

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I've just wasted the past two hours of my life trying to create a table with an auto incrementing primary key bases on this tutorial, The tutorial is great the issue I've been encountering is that the Create Target fails if I have a column which is a timestamp and a table that is called timestamp in the same table... Why doesn't oracle flag this as being an issue when I create the table? Here is the Sequence of commands I enter: Creating the Table: CREATE TABLE myTable (id NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, field1 TIMESTAMP(6), timeStamp NUMBER, ); Creating the Sequence: CREATE SEQUENCE test_sequence START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; Creating the trigger: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER test_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON myTable REFERENCING NEW AS NEW FOR EACH ROW BEGIN SELECT test_sequence.nextval INTO :NEW.ID FROM dual; END; / Here is the error message I get: ORA-06552: PL/SQL: Compilation unit analysis terminated ORA-06553: PLS-320: the declaration of the type of this expression is incomplete or malformed Any combination that does not have the two lines with a the word "timestamp" in them works fine. I would have thought the syntax would be enough to differentiate between the keyword and a column name. As I've said I don't understand why the table is created fine but oracle falls over when I try to create the trigger... CLARIFICATION I know that the issue is that there is a column called timestamp which may or may not be a keyword. MY issue is why it barfed when I tried to create a trigger and not when I created the table, I would have at least expected a warning. That said having used Oracle for a few hours, it seems a lot less verbose in it's error reporting, Maybe just because I'm using the express version though. If this is a bug in Oracle how would one who doesn't have a support contract go about reporting it? I'm just playing around with the express version because I have to migrate some code from MySQL to Oracle.

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  • How to configure database connection securely

    - by chiccodoro
    Similar but not the same: How to securely store database connection details Securely connecting to database within a application Hi all, I have a C# WinForms application connecting to a database server. The database connection string, including a generic user/pass, is placed in a NHibernate configuration file, which lies in the same directory as the exe file. Now I have this issue: The user that runs the application should not get to know the username/password of the general database user because I don't want him to rummage around in the database directly. Alternatively I could hardcode the connection string, which is bad because the administrator must be able to change it if the database is moved or if he wants to switch between dev/test/prod environments. So long I've found three possibilities: The first referenced question was generally answered by making the file only readable for the user that runs the application. But that's not not enough in my case (the user running the application is a person. The database user/pass are general and shouldn't even be accessible by the person.) The first answer additionally proposed to encrypt the connection data before writing it to the file. With this approach, the administrator is not able anymore to configure the connection string because he cannot encrypt it by hand. The second referenced question provides an approach for this very scenario but it seems very complicated. My questions to you: This is a very general issue, so isn't there any general "how-to-do-it" way, somehow a "design pattern"? Is there some support in .NET's config infrastructure? (optional, maybe out of scope) Can I combine that easily with the NHibernate configuration mechanism?

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  • HighCharts : Can I customize the colors of individual series?

    - by user1091114
    I am using HighCharts for a line graph and i am attemping to change the line color for each series. I did find this example here but the data is hard coded. My data is pulled from an Sql database and passed to the HTML page using some VB code. var chart; $(document).ready(function () { chart = new Highcharts.Chart({ chart: { renderTo: 'container', defaultSeriesType: 'column' }, title: { text: 'Chart Title' }, subtitle: { text: 'Chart subtitle' }, xAxis: { categories: [<%= GraphDate %>] , labels: { rotation: -45, align: 'right', style: { } } }, yAxis: { min: 160, title: { text: 'Temp' } }, legend: { layout: 'vertical', backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', align: 'left', verticalAlign: 'top', x: 400, y: 0, floating: true, shadow: true }, tooltip: { formatter: function () { return '' + this.x + ': ' + this.y + ' ºC'; } }, plotOptions: { column: { pointPadding: 0.2, borderWidth: 0 } }, series: [<%= GraphSeries %>], }); I tried to style it using the other post however it failed to generate a chart. The main problem is though, the line graph has two series, so the below method would set the color for both series i assume? So, would i maybe need to format the series in my vb code somehow? series: [{ color: 'yellow', data: [ [<%= GraphSeries %>] ]},

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  • Is it possible to use 2 versions of jQuery on the same page?

    - by Ben McCormack
    NOTE: I know similar questions have already been asked here and here, but I'm looking for additional clarification as to how to make this work. I'm adding functionality to an existing web site that is already using an older version of the jQuery library (1.1.3.1). I've been writing my added functionality against the newest version of the jQuery library (1.4.2). I've tested the website using only the newer version of jQuery and it breaks functionality, so now I'm looking at using both versions on the same page. How is this possible? What do I need to do in my code to specify that I'm using one version of jQuery instead of another? For example, I'll put <script> tags for both versions of jQuery in the header of my page, but what do I need to do so that I know for sure in my calling code that I'm calling one version of the library or another? Maybe something like this: //Put some code here to specify a variable that will be using the newer //version of jquery: var $NEW = jQuery.theNewestVersion(); //Now when I use $NEW, I'll know it's the newest version and won't //conflict with the older version. $NEW('#personName').text('Ben'); //And when I use the original $ in code, or simply 'jquery', I'll know //it's the older version. $('#personName').doSomethingWithTheOlderVersion();

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  • Find items with belongs_to associations in Rails?

    - by dannymcc
    Hi Everyone, I have a model called Kase each "Case" is assigned to a contact person via the following code: class Kase < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :jobno has_many :notes, :order => "created_at DESC" belongs_to :company # foreign key: company_id belongs_to :person # foreign key in join table belongs_to :surveyor, :class_name => "Company", :foreign_key => "appointedsurveyor_id" belongs_to :surveyorperson, :class_name => "Person", :foreign_key => "surveyorperson_id" I was wondering if it is possible to list on the contacts page all of the kases that that person is associated with. I assume I need to use the find command within the Person model? Maybe something like the following? def index @kases = Person.Kase.find(:person_id) or am I completely misunderstanding everything again? Thanks, Danny EDIT: If I use: @kases= @person.kases I can successfully do the following: <% if @person.kases.empty? %> No Cases Found <% end %> <% if @person.kases %> This person has a case assigned to them <% end %> but how do I output the "jobref" field from the kase table for each record found?

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