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• latin1/unicode conversion problem with ajax request and special characters

  - by mfn

  Server is PHP5 and HTML charset is latin1 (iso-8859-1). With regular form POST requests, there's no problem with "special" characters like the em dash (–) for example. Although I don't know for sure, it works. Probably because there exists a representable character for the browser at char code 150 (which is what I see in PHP on the server for a literal em dash with ord). Now our application also provides some kind of preview mechanism via ajax: the text is sent to the server and a complete HTML for a preview is sent back. However, the ordinary char code 150 em dash character when sent via ajax (tested with GET and POST) mutates into something more: %E2%80%93. I see this already in the apache log. According to various sources I found, e.g. http://www.tachyonsoft.com/uc0020.htm , this is the UTF8 byte representation of em dash and my current knowledge is that JavaScript handles everything in Unicode. However within my app, I need everything in latin1. Simply said: just like a regular POST request would have given me that em dash as char code 150, I would need that for the translated UTF8 representation too. That's were I'm failing, because with PHP on the server when I try to decode it with either utf8_decode(...) or iconv('UTF-8', 'iso-8859-1', ...) but in both cases I get a regular ? representing this character (and iconv also throws me a notice: Detected an illegal character in input string ). My goal is to find an automated solution, but maybe I'm trying to be überclever in this case? I've found other people simply doing manual replacing with a predefined input/output set; but that would always give me the feeling I could loose characters. The observant reader will note that I'm behind on understanding the full impact/complexity with things about Unicode and conversion of chars and I definitely prefer to understand the thing as a whole then a simply manual mapping. thanks

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• A way to specify a different host in an SSH tunnel from the host in use

  - by Tom

  I am trying to setup an SSH tunnel to access Beanstalk (to bypass an annoying proxy server). I can get this to work, but with one caveat: I have to map my Beanstalk host URL (username.svn.beanstalkapp.com) in my hosts file to 127.0.0.1 (and use the ip in place of the domain when setting up the tunnel). The reason (I think) is that I am creating the tunnel using the local SSH instance (on Snow Leopard) and if I use localhost or 127.0.0.1 when talking to Beanstalk, it rejects the authorisation credentials. I believe this is because Beanstalk use the hostname specified in a request to determine which account the username / password combination should be checked against. If localhost is used, I think this information is missing (in some manner which Beanstalk requires) from the requests. At the moment I dig the IP for username.svn.beanstalkapp.com, map username.svn.beanstalkapp.com to 127.0.0.1 in my hosts file, then for the tunnel I use the command: ssh -L 8080:ip:443 -p 22 -l tom -N 127.0.0.1 I can tell Subversion that the repo. is located at: https://username.svn.beanstalkapp.com:8080/repo-name This uses my tunnel and the username and password are accepted. So, my question is if there is an option when setting up the SSH tunnel which would mean I wouldn't have to use my hosts file workaround?

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• Strange constructor

  - by Bilthon

  Well, I'm gonna be pretty straightforward here, I just have a piece of code in c++ which I'm not sure I really understand and need some help with. Ok, to simplify lets just say I have a class that is defined like this: (the real class is a little bit more complicated, but this is what matters) class myClass : public Runnable { Semaphore *m_pMySemaphore; __Queue<Requests> *m_pQueue; Request m_Request; VetorSlotBuffer *m_vetorSlotBuffer; } Up to here nothing is wrong, myClass is just a regular class which has 3 members that actually are pointers to other classes and an object of the class Request, the implementation of those classes not being important for my point here. Then when this person implemented the constructor for myClass he or she did this: myClass::myClass() : m_pMySemaphore(0), m_pQueue(0), m_vetorSlotBuffer(0) { } It's pretty evident that those three variables are treated like that by the constructor because they are pointers, am I right? but what kind of syntax is that? am I setting the pointers to null by doing that? I've seen a little bit of c++ already but never found something like that. And secondly, what's the deal with the ":" after the constructor declaration? that I've seen but never took the time to investigate. Is this like an inner class or something? Thank you very much in advance. Nelson R. Perez

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• Mac CoreLocation Services does not ask for permissions

  - by Ryan Nichols

  I'm writing a Mac App that needs to use CoreLocation services. The code and location works fine, as long as I manually authenticate the service inside the security preference pane. However the framework is not automatically popping up with a permission dialog. The documentation states: Important The user has the option of denying an application’s access to the location service data. During its initial uses by an application, the Core Location framework prompts the user to confirm that using the location service is acceptable. If the user denies the request, the CLLocationManager object reports an appropriate error to its delegate during future requests. I do get an error to my delegate, and the value of +locationServicesEnabled is correct on CLLocationManager. The only part missing is the prompt to the user about permissions. This occurs on my development MPB and a friends MBP. Neither of us can figure out whats wrong. Has anyone run into this? Relevant code: _locationManager = [CLLocationManager new]; [_locationManager setDelegate:self]; [_locationManager setDesiredAccuracy:kCLLocationAccuracyKilometer]; ... [_locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; UPDATE: Answer It seems there is a problem with Sandboxing in which the CoreLocation framework is not allowed to talk to com.apple.CoreLocation.agent. I suspect this agent is responsible for prompting the user for permissions. If you add the Location Services Entitlement (com.apple.security.personal-information.location) it only gives your app the ability to use the CL framework. However you also need access to the CoreLocation agent to ask the user for permissions. You can give your app access by adding the entitlement 'com.apple.security.temporary-exception.mach-lookup.global-name' with a value of 'com.apple.CoreLocation.agent'. Users will be prompted for access automatically like you would expect. I've filed a bug to apple on this already.

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• MEF and ASP.NET MVC

  - by denis_n

  I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

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• Multiple responses from identical calls in asynch QUnit + Mockjax tests

  - by NickL

  I'm trying to test some jQuery ajax code using QUnit and Mockjax and have it return different JSON for different tests, like this: $(document).ready(function() { function functionToTest() { return $.getJSON('/echo/json/', { json: JSON.stringify({ "won't": "run" }) }); } module("first"); test("first test", function() { stop(); $.mockjax({ url: '/echo/json/', responseText: JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HEYO!' }) }); functionToTest().done(function(json) { ok(true, json.hello); start(); }); }); test("second test", function() { stop(); $.mockjax({ url: '/echo/json/', responseText: JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HELL NO!' }) }); functionToTest().done(function(json) { ok(true, json.hello); start(); }); }); }); Unfortunately it returns the same response for each call, and order can't be guaranteed, so was wondering how I could set it up so that it was coupled to the actual request and came up with this: $.mockjax({ url: '/echo/json/', response: function(settings) { if (JSON.parse(settings.data.json).order === 1) { this.responseText = JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HEYO!' }); } else { this.responseText = JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HELL NO!' }); } } }); This relies on parameters being sent to the server, but what about requests without parameters, where I still need to test different responses? Is there a way to use QUnit's setup/teardown to do this?

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• .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

  - by user135498

  Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

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• Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

  - by Alex Czarto

  Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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• Hibernate: Check if object exists/changed

  - by swalkner

  Assuming I have an object Person with long id String firstName String lastName String address Then I'm generating a Person-object somewhere in my application. Now I'd like to check if the person exists in the database (= firstname/lastname-combination is in the database). If not = insert it. If yes, check, if the address is the same. If not = update the address. Of course, I can do some requests (first, try to load object with firstname/lastname), then (if existing), compare the address. But isn't there a simpler, cleaner approach? If got several different classes and do not like to have so many queries. I'd like to use annotations as if to say: firstname/lastname = they're the primary key. Check for them if the object exists. address is the parameter you have to compare if it stayed the same or not. Does Hibernate/JPA (or another framework) support something like that? pseude-code: if (database.containsObject(person)) { //containing according to compound keys if (database.containsChangedObject(person)) { database.updateObject(person); } } else { database.insertObject(person); }

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• Parse numbers in singe textbox for query

  - by Joshua Slocum

  I’ve built a webform in Visual Web Developer Express 2008 to help me with my work. I use a webform to run query requests that are emailed to me. The inputs are in this format 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 I enter the first number in a textbox and the second number in another textbox and click a button that runs a query and returns the results in a gridview(single row). string strConn, strSQL; strConn = AppConfig.Connection strSQL = 'select fields from table where FirstNum=:FirstNum and SecondNum=:SecondNum'; using (OracleConnection cn = new OracleConnection(strConn)) { OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand(strSQL, cn); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(":FirstNum", txtFirstNum.Text); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(":SeconNum", txtSecondNum.Text); cn.Open(); using (OracleDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { dgResults.DataSource = rdr; dgResults.DataBind(); } cn.Close(); } I had an idea to help me speed up my work. I’d like to be able to past both numbers in a single textbox ( like this 12312 12312 ) and have the code parse out the nubmers for the query. Or even better would be to past all of them in a multiline textbox like this 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 And have them all parsed and the query run for each line and the results all output to one gridview. I’m just not sure how to approach this. Any suggestions would be appreciated. Thank you.

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• Comet, responseText and memory usage

  - by ithcy

  Is there a way to clear out the responseText of an XHR object without destroying the XHR object? I need to keep a persistent connection open to a web server to feed live data to a browser. The problem is, there is a relatively large amount of data coming through (several hundred K per second constantly), so memory usage is a big problem, because this connection must remain open for at least several minutes. responseText gets very big very quickly, even though the JSON I send back has been crunched as small as it can get. Due to the way the server-side app works, if I use AJAX-style short polling and just destroy the XHR object when I'm done with it, I miss significant amounts of important data even in the few milliseconds it takes to parse the response, create a new XHR and send it out. I do not have the option to use overlapping requests, as the web server only accepts one connection at a time. (Don't ask.) So Comet is exactly the model I need. What I would like to do is parse each JSON chunk as it comes back from the server, and then clear out responseText so that I can keep using the same connection. However, responseText is read-only. It cannot be directly emptied by any method I have found. Is there a part of the picture I am missing here? Does anyone know any tricks I can use to free up responseText when I'm done reading it? Or is there another place the server responses can go? I am not including code because this is really almost a code-agnostic question. The Javascript routines that spawn the XHRs and handle the returned data are very, very simple.

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• APC values randomly disappear

  - by Michael

  I'm using APC for storing a map of class names to class file paths. I build the map like this in my autoload function: $class_paths = apc_fetch('class_paths'); // If the class path is stored in application cache - search finished. if (isset($class_paths[$class])) { return require_once $class_paths[$class]; // Otherwise search in known places } else { // List of places to look for class $paths = array( '/src/', '/modules/', '/libs/', ); // Search directories and store path in cache if found. foreach ($paths as $path) { $file = DOC_ROOT . $path . $class . '.php'; if (file_exists($file)) { echo 'File was found in => ' . $file . '<br />'; $class_paths[$class] = $file; apc_store('class_paths', $class_paths); return require_once $file; } } } I can see as more and more classes are loaded, they are added to the map, but at some point the apc_fetch returns NULL in the middle of a page request, instead of returning the map. Getting => class_paths Array ( [MCS\CMS\Helper\LayoutHelper] => /Users/mbl/Documents/Projects/mcs_ibob/core/trunk/src/MCS/CMS/Helper/LayoutHelper.php [MCS\CMS\Model\Spot] => /Users/mbl/Documents/Projects/mcs_ibob/core/trunk/src/MCS/CMS/Model/Spot.php ) Getting => class_paths {null} Many times the cached value will also be gone between page requests. What could be the reason for this? I'm using APC as an extension (PECL) running PHP 5.3.

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• Axis webservice calls fail sometimes, access.log shows content!

  - by epischel

  Hi, our app is a webservice client (axis 1) to a third party webservice (also axis 1). We use it for some years now. Since a few weeks, we (as a client) get sometimes HTTP status 400 (bad request) or read timeouts when calling the webservice. Strangely, the access.log of the service shows part of the request or the response instead of the URL. It looks like this (looks like the end of the request string) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 16127 0 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 22511 1 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "il=\"true\"/><nsl:text xsi:type=\"xsd:string\" xsi:nil=\"true\"/></SOAPSomeOperation></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope> Axis/1.4" 400 299 0 or (some string out of the what looks like the request) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] ":string\">some text</sometag><othertag>moretext" 400 299 0 or in some other cases it looks like two requests thrown together (... means xml string left out): x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "...</someop></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\"...</soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>" 400 299 0 Application log does not give any hints. Frequency of such call is 1% of all calls to that service. The only discriminator I know of so far is that it happens since operations informed us that the service url changed because of "server migration". Has anyone experienced such phenomenon yet? Has somebody got an idea whats wrong and how to fix? Thanks,

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• Configuring IHS server to direct traffic to the Netty component bound to a port

  - by rbot

  I have a Server Component ( based on Jboss-Netty, which could maintain & handle persistent connections ) deployed in WAS. This component when deployed & initiated within the WAS environment, binds to a port & listens for incoming HTTP connection. [ Why i had to deploy a Netty HTTP Server within WAS is another story - management requirement !! Netty is deployed in WAS as a spring bean which when initiated runs on a port in the machine, independent of WAS ] Clients (mobile app) were able to establish persistent HTTP connections (to the above URL::Port) with this netty component & send/receive requests. Now, I have to replicate this feature in our Production Environment where a IHS Server (Web Server) which sits before the WAS. What i expected is to get a IHS URL which could redirect the incoming packets to the specific PORT on WAS, so that the Client apps can establish a similar persistent http connection. Our Server Admin tried a few combinations and we are not able to identify how to proceed further on this. Your expert ideas would be highly appreciated.

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• Trouble getting $.ajax() to work in PhoneGap against a locally hosted server

  - by David Gutierrez

  Currently trying to make an ajax post request to an IIS Express hosted MVC 4 Web API end point from an android VM (Bluestacks) on my machine. Here are the snippets of code that I am trying, and cannot get to work: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://10.0.2.2:28434/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); Whenever I run this request I always get back a textStatus of 'error'. After hours of trying different things, I pushed my End Point to an actual server, and was able to actually get responses back in PhoneGap if I built up an XMLHttpRequest by hand, like so: var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("POST", "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", true); request.onreadystatechange = function(){//Call a function when the state changes. console.log("state = " + request.readyState); console.log("status = " + request.status); if (request.readyState == 4) { if (request.status == 200 || request.status == 0) { console.log("*" + request.responseText + "*"); } } } request.send("{EncryptedPassword:1234,UserName:test,DeviceToken:d234}"); Unfortunately, if I try to use $.ajax() against the same end point in the snippet above I still get a status text that says 'error', here is that snippet for reference: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); So really, there are a couple of questions here. 1) Why can't I get any ajax calls (post or get) to successfully hit my End Point when it's hosted via IIS Express on the same machine that the Android VM is running? 2) When my end point is hosted on an actual server, through IIS and served through port 80, why can't I get post requests to be successful when I use jquery's ajax calls? (Even though I can get it to work by manually creating an XMLHttpRequest) Thanks

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• Browser: Continue gif animation after escape is pressed

  - by cottsak

  Firefox (and other browsers i believe) stop gif animation when you click the Stop button or invoke it via the Escape key. I have a text input that on change makes ajax requests to update other elements. As part of this ajaxyness i have an animated gif to show feedback. I also trap the escape key press in this input so as to clear the text field for better UX. My problem is after the escape key is pressed once, none of the ajax gifs animate anymore until the page is refreshed. Does anyone know a workaround? Stuff i've tried: I tried the e.stopPropagation(); and e.cancelBubble = true; in the function handling the e.keyCode == 27 and that didn't seem to work. I suspect that this stops trigging more js events and the browser catches the escape irrespective of js activity. I have the gif showing/hiding via adding/removing a css class so it's difficult to apply the "change gif url to reset" workaround. I dont even know if this works anyway - didn't test it. But it seems difficult. If anyone knows that this works and knows of an easy way to apply the hack with background-image: url(../images/ajax-loader_dotcirclel13x13.gif); css then please let me know.

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• Mixing RewriteRule and ProxyPass in Apache

  - by Taylor L

  I was working on debugging an issue today related to mixing mod_proxy and mod_rewrite together and I ended up having to use balancer://mycluster in the RewriteRule in order to stop receiving a 404 error from Apache. I have two questions: 1) Is there any other way to get the rewritten URL to go through the balancer without adding balancer://mycluster into the RewriteRule? 2) Is there a way to define all the parameters I defined in ProxyPass (stickysession=JSESSIONID|jsessionid scolonpathdelim=On lbmethod=bytraffic nofailover=Off) in either the <Proxy> or RewriteRule? I'm concerned the requests that match the new RewriteRule won't load balance in the same fashion as those that go through ProxyPass (like /app1/something.do)? Below are the relevant sections of the httpd.conf. I am using Apache 2.2. <Proxy balancer://mycluster> Order deny,allow Allow from all BalancerMember ajp://my.domain.com:8009 route=node1 BalancerMember ajp://my.domain.com:8009 route=node2 </Proxy> ProxyPass /app1 balancer://mycluster/app1 stickysession=JSESSIONID|jsessionid scolonpathdelim=On lbmethod=bytraffic nofailover=Off ProxyPassReverse /app1 ajp://my.domain.com:8009/app1 ... RewriteRule ^/static/cms/image/(.*)\.(.*) balancer://mycluster/app1/$1.$2 [P,L]

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• How would the 'Model' in a Rails-type webapp be implemented in a functional programming langauge?

  - by ceptorial

  In MVC web development frameworks such as Ruby on Rails, Django, and CakePHP, HTTP requests are routed to controllers, which fetch objects which are usually persisted to a backend database store. These objects represent things like users, blog posts, etc., and often contain logic within their methods for permissions, fetching and/or mutating other objects, validation, etc. These frameworks are all very much object oriented. I've been reading up recently on functional programming and it seems to tout tremendous benefits such as testability, conciseness, modularity, etc. However most of the examples I've seen for functional programming implement trivial functionality like quicksort or the fibonnacci sequence, not complex webapps. I've looked at a few 'functional' web frameworks, and they all seem to implement the view and controller just fine, but largely skip over the whole 'model' and 'persistence' part. (I'm talking more about frameworks like Compojure which are supposed to be purely functional, versus something Lift which conveniently seems to use the OO part of Scala for the model -- but correct me if I'm wrong here.) I haven't seen a good explanation of how functional programming can be used to provide the metaphor that OO programming provides, i.e. tables map to objects, and objects can have methods which provide powerful, encapsulated logic such as permissioning and validation. Also the whole concept of using SQL queries to persist data seems to violate the whole 'side effects' concept. Could someone provide an explanation of how the 'model' layer would be implemented in a functionally programmed web framework?

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• How do I use HttpWebRequest GET method w/ ContentType="application/json"

  - by Stephen Patten

  Hello, This one is real simple, run this Silverlight4 example with the ContentType property commented out and you'll get back a response from from my service in xml. Now uncomment the property and run it and you'll get an ProtocolViolationException, what should happen is the service returns JSON formatted data. HttpWebRequest wreq = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequestCreator.ClientHttp.Create(new Uri("http://stephenpattenconsulting.com/Services/GetFoodDescriptionsLookup(2100)")); //wreq.ContentType = "application/json"; wreq.BeginGetResponse((cb) => { HttpWebRequest rq = cb.AsyncState as HttpWebRequest; HttpWebResponse resp = rq.EndGetResponse(cb) as HttpWebResponse; // Exception StreamReader rdr = new StreamReader(resp.GetResponseStream()); string result = rdr.ReadToEnd(); rdr.Close(); }, wreq); EDIT: While perusing SO, I noticed similar posts, like this one Why am I getting ProtocolViolationException when trying to use HttpWebRequest? and this one How do I use HttpWebRequest with GET method EDIT: The WCF 4 end point is 'adapted' from this link http://geekswithblogs.net/michelotti/archive/2010/08/21/restful-wcf-services-with-no-svc-file-and-no-config.aspx. I can use Fiddler's request builder to to construct the proper requests and changing the content type does yield the correct results.

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• How to output KML by GAE

  - by Niklas R

  Hi I use KML for a google map where entities have a geopt.db coordinate and soft memory limit was exceeded with 213.465 MB after servicing 1 requests total. The log says /list.kml 200 13130ms 10211cpu_ms 4238api_cpu_ms The file list.kml which outputs about 455,7 KB is a template as follows <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><kml xmlns="http:// www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:gx="http://www.google.com/kml/ext/2.2" xmlns:kml="http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:atom="http:// www.w3.org/2005/Atom"> <Document>{% for a in list %} <Placemark> <name> </name> <description> <![CDATA[<a href="http://{{host}}/{{a.key.id}}"> {{ a.title }} </a> <br/>{{a.text}}]]> </description> <Style> <IconStyle> <Icon> <href> http://www.google.com/intl/en_us/mapfiles/ms/icons/green-dot.png </href> </Icon> </IconStyle> </Style> <Point> <coordinates> {{a.geopt.lon|floatformat:2}},{{a.geopt.lat|floatformat:2}} </coordinates> </Point> </Placemark> {% endfor %} </Document> </kml> Is there a memory leak in the template or the python that passes the list variable? Can I improve using other template engine or other framework than default? Is kmz compression a good idea in this case? Thanks in advance for any suggestion where or how to change the code.

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• Session cookie not being created in Rails, very rarely and frustratingly.

  - by James

  Hi everyone, This is an issue sporadically for very few users, however we haven't been able to replicate it. However I have now got a Chrome instance (Mac) which is reproducing the error (for some unknown reason), and I hope to not restart it until I have this nailed! Rails application, using memcached for session store. While the bug manifests in the _app_session_id cookie not being created, our javascript-generated cookie test and app-generated language cookies are being created successfully. This means that 422 / InvalidAuthToken errors are thrown for every form that is submitted by those afflicted - people can't log into the app. The error occurs across all browsers - had reports for IE7 and Firefox (which most users use). Switching to another browser often fixes the issue (though not always), and standard cache-cookie-clear tactics do not. So now that I have got Chrome open which is having the same issue - in development, staging and live environments (meaning http and https). All other browsers are fine. I've restarted the servers and restarted memcached. I don't really want to restart Chrome - in the risk that the issue does go away with that (having said that, it hasn't worked for users). I've been tcpdumping the requests - and although I'll keep digging, I'd love it if anyone had any suggestions, places to start looking, anything. This is really painful ;) Thanks!

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• calculating offer period for subscription

  - by TheVillageIdiot

  I'm maintaining a web application which deals with some kind of subscriptions. Users can to renew their subscriptions from 2 months before expiry (not earlier than that). Sometimes user does not renew before expiry and get grace period which is of 3 months. Now he can renew in these 3 months of grace period. Now the problem part. In the previous transactions of renew requests I have to show what was the offer period for that particular request (subscription start and subscription end period if renew was granted). Things are pretty simple if user renews before expiry, but I'm not able to get things straight if there is grace period specially when the subscriptions is expiring in last months of the year. Also there sometimes calculations go haywire when subscription is ending in jan or feb. All this is happening because offer period is not saved with the application anywhere (I don't know why). so if subscription is ending in 20 October 2008 and renew application is submitted in 16 January 2009 (because of grace period) the offer period should be 21 October 2008 to 20 October 2009.

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• proper use of volatile keyword

  - by luke

  I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

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• ajaxStart only called once

  - by cmroanirgo

  I'm having trouble with ajaxStart/ajaxStop. In the following code, the ajaxStart/ajaxStop code is only ever called once (the very first time). Any ideas why? var A_func = function() { $.get($(this).attr("href"), function(response) { $("#content_inner").replaceWith($("#content_inner", response)); }); return false; }; $(function() { $("A").live("click", A_func); $(document).ajaxStart(function(){$("#loading").show();alert("loading");}); $(document).ajaxStop(function(){$("#loading").hide();alert("finished");}); }); Note that the ajax requests themselves work correctly, it's just that the 'loading' icon only shows the once and then never again. My html is something like: <body> <img id="loading" width="12" height="12" src="/images/ajax-loader.gif" style="display:none" alt="loading"/> ... <div id="content"><div id="content_inner"...</div></div>... </body> I have also tried using ajaxSend/ajaxComplete and it has the same problem

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• C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

  - by Ben

  Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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