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  • Trouble getting $.ajax() to work in PhoneGap against a locally hosted server

    - by David Gutierrez
    Currently trying to make an ajax post request to an IIS Express hosted MVC 4 Web API end point from an android VM (Bluestacks) on my machine. Here are the snippets of code that I am trying, and cannot get to work: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://10.0.2.2:28434/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); Whenever I run this request I always get back a textStatus of 'error'. After hours of trying different things, I pushed my End Point to an actual server, and was able to actually get responses back in PhoneGap if I built up an XMLHttpRequest by hand, like so: var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("POST", "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", true); request.onreadystatechange = function(){//Call a function when the state changes. console.log("state = " + request.readyState); console.log("status = " + request.status); if (request.readyState == 4) { if (request.status == 200 || request.status == 0) { console.log("*" + request.responseText + "*"); } } } request.send("{EncryptedPassword:1234,UserName:test,DeviceToken:d234}"); Unfortunately, if I try to use $.ajax() against the same end point in the snippet above I still get a status text that says 'error', here is that snippet for reference: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); So really, there are a couple of questions here. 1) Why can't I get any ajax calls (post or get) to successfully hit my End Point when it's hosted via IIS Express on the same machine that the Android VM is running? 2) When my end point is hosted on an actual server, through IIS and served through port 80, why can't I get post requests to be successful when I use jquery's ajax calls? (Even though I can get it to work by manually creating an XMLHttpRequest) Thanks

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  • Configuring IHS server to direct traffic to the Netty component bound to a port

    - by rbot
    I have a Server Component ( based on Jboss-Netty, which could maintain & handle persistent connections ) deployed in WAS. This component when deployed & initiated within the WAS environment, binds to a port & listens for incoming HTTP connection. [ Why i had to deploy a Netty HTTP Server within WAS is another story - management requirement !! Netty is deployed in WAS as a spring bean which when initiated runs on a port in the machine, independent of WAS ] Clients (mobile app) were able to establish persistent HTTP connections (to the above URL::Port) with this netty component & send/receive requests. Now, I have to replicate this feature in our Production Environment where a IHS Server (Web Server) which sits before the WAS. What i expected is to get a IHS URL which could redirect the incoming packets to the specific PORT on WAS, so that the Client apps can establish a similar persistent http connection. Our Server Admin tried a few combinations and we are not able to identify how to proceed further on this. Your expert ideas would be highly appreciated.

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  • SSRS2005 timeout error

    - by jaspernygaard
    Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

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  • latin1/unicode conversion problem with ajax request and special characters

    - by mfn
    Server is PHP5 and HTML charset is latin1 (iso-8859-1). With regular form POST requests, there's no problem with "special" characters like the em dash (–) for example. Although I don't know for sure, it works. Probably because there exists a representable character for the browser at char code 150 (which is what I see in PHP on the server for a literal em dash with ord). Now our application also provides some kind of preview mechanism via ajax: the text is sent to the server and a complete HTML for a preview is sent back. However, the ordinary char code 150 em dash character when sent via ajax (tested with GET and POST) mutates into something more: %E2%80%93. I see this already in the apache log. According to various sources I found, e.g. http://www.tachyonsoft.com/uc0020.htm , this is the UTF8 byte representation of em dash and my current knowledge is that JavaScript handles everything in Unicode. However within my app, I need everything in latin1. Simply said: just like a regular POST request would have given me that em dash as char code 150, I would need that for the translated UTF8 representation too. That's were I'm failing, because with PHP on the server when I try to decode it with either utf8_decode(...) or iconv('UTF-8', 'iso-8859-1', ...) but in both cases I get a regular ? representing this character (and iconv also throws me a notice: Detected an illegal character in input string ). My goal is to find an automated solution, but maybe I'm trying to be überclever in this case? I've found other people simply doing manual replacing with a predefined input/output set; but that would always give me the feeling I could loose characters. The observant reader will note that I'm behind on understanding the full impact/complexity with things about Unicode and conversion of chars and I definitely prefer to understand the thing as a whole then a simply manual mapping. thanks

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  • How do I use HttpWebRequest GET method w/ ContentType="application/json"

    - by Stephen Patten
    Hello, This one is real simple, run this Silverlight4 example with the ContentType property commented out and you'll get back a response from from my service in xml. Now uncomment the property and run it and you'll get an ProtocolViolationException, what should happen is the service returns JSON formatted data. HttpWebRequest wreq = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequestCreator.ClientHttp.Create(new Uri("http://stephenpattenconsulting.com/Services/GetFoodDescriptionsLookup(2100)")); //wreq.ContentType = "application/json"; wreq.BeginGetResponse((cb) => { HttpWebRequest rq = cb.AsyncState as HttpWebRequest; HttpWebResponse resp = rq.EndGetResponse(cb) as HttpWebResponse; // Exception StreamReader rdr = new StreamReader(resp.GetResponseStream()); string result = rdr.ReadToEnd(); rdr.Close(); }, wreq); EDIT: While perusing SO, I noticed similar posts, like this one Why am I getting ProtocolViolationException when trying to use HttpWebRequest? and this one How do I use HttpWebRequest with GET method EDIT: The WCF 4 end point is 'adapted' from this link http://geekswithblogs.net/michelotti/archive/2010/08/21/restful-wcf-services-with-no-svc-file-and-no-config.aspx. I can use Fiddler's request builder to to construct the proper requests and changing the content type does yield the correct results.

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  • A way to specify a different host in an SSH tunnel from the host in use

    - by Tom
    I am trying to setup an SSH tunnel to access Beanstalk (to bypass an annoying proxy server). I can get this to work, but with one caveat: I have to map my Beanstalk host URL (username.svn.beanstalkapp.com) in my hosts file to 127.0.0.1 (and use the ip in place of the domain when setting up the tunnel). The reason (I think) is that I am creating the tunnel using the local SSH instance (on Snow Leopard) and if I use localhost or 127.0.0.1 when talking to Beanstalk, it rejects the authorisation credentials. I believe this is because Beanstalk use the hostname specified in a request to determine which account the username / password combination should be checked against. If localhost is used, I think this information is missing (in some manner which Beanstalk requires) from the requests. At the moment I dig the IP for username.svn.beanstalkapp.com, map username.svn.beanstalkapp.com to 127.0.0.1 in my hosts file, then for the tunnel I use the command: ssh -L 8080:ip:443 -p 22 -l tom -N 127.0.0.1 I can tell Subversion that the repo. is located at: https://username.svn.beanstalkapp.com:8080/repo-name This uses my tunnel and the username and password are accepted. So, my question is if there is an option when setting up the SSH tunnel which would mean I wouldn't have to use my hosts file workaround?

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  • .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

    - by user135498
    Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

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  • Hibernate: Check if object exists/changed

    - by swalkner
    Assuming I have an object Person with long id String firstName String lastName String address Then I'm generating a Person-object somewhere in my application. Now I'd like to check if the person exists in the database (= firstname/lastname-combination is in the database). If not = insert it. If yes, check, if the address is the same. If not = update the address. Of course, I can do some requests (first, try to load object with firstname/lastname), then (if existing), compare the address. But isn't there a simpler, cleaner approach? If got several different classes and do not like to have so many queries. I'd like to use annotations as if to say: firstname/lastname = they're the primary key. Check for them if the object exists. address is the parameter you have to compare if it stayed the same or not. Does Hibernate/JPA (or another framework) support something like that? pseude-code: if (database.containsObject(person)) { //containing according to compound keys if (database.containsChangedObject(person)) { database.updateObject(person); } } else { database.insertObject(person); }

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  • Strange constructor

    - by Bilthon
    Well, I'm gonna be pretty straightforward here, I just have a piece of code in c++ which I'm not sure I really understand and need some help with. Ok, to simplify lets just say I have a class that is defined like this: (the real class is a little bit more complicated, but this is what matters) class myClass : public Runnable { Semaphore *m_pMySemaphore; __Queue<Requests> *m_pQueue; Request m_Request; VetorSlotBuffer *m_vetorSlotBuffer; } Up to here nothing is wrong, myClass is just a regular class which has 3 members that actually are pointers to other classes and an object of the class Request, the implementation of those classes not being important for my point here. Then when this person implemented the constructor for myClass he or she did this: myClass::myClass() : m_pMySemaphore(0), m_pQueue(0), m_vetorSlotBuffer(0) { } It's pretty evident that those three variables are treated like that by the constructor because they are pointers, am I right? but what kind of syntax is that? am I setting the pointers to null by doing that? I've seen a little bit of c++ already but never found something like that. And secondly, what's the deal with the ":" after the constructor declaration? that I've seen but never took the time to investigate. Is this like an inner class or something? Thank you very much in advance. Nelson R. Perez

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  • MEF and ASP.NET MVC

    - by denis_n
    I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

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  • Multiple responses from identical calls in asynch QUnit + Mockjax tests

    - by NickL
    I'm trying to test some jQuery ajax code using QUnit and Mockjax and have it return different JSON for different tests, like this: $(document).ready(function() { function functionToTest() { return $.getJSON('/echo/json/', { json: JSON.stringify({ "won't": "run" }) }); } module("first"); test("first test", function() { stop(); $.mockjax({ url: '/echo/json/', responseText: JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HEYO!' }) }); functionToTest().done(function(json) { ok(true, json.hello); start(); }); }); test("second test", function() { stop(); $.mockjax({ url: '/echo/json/', responseText: JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HELL NO!' }) }); functionToTest().done(function(json) { ok(true, json.hello); start(); }); }); }); Unfortunately it returns the same response for each call, and order can't be guaranteed, so was wondering how I could set it up so that it was coupled to the actual request and came up with this: $.mockjax({ url: '/echo/json/', response: function(settings) { if (JSON.parse(settings.data.json).order === 1) { this.responseText = JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HEYO!' }); } else { this.responseText = JSON.stringify({ hello: 'HELL NO!' }); } } }); This relies on parameters being sent to the server, but what about requests without parameters, where I still need to test different responses? Is there a way to use QUnit's setup/teardown to do this?

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  • Comet, responseText and memory usage

    - by ithcy
    Is there a way to clear out the responseText of an XHR object without destroying the XHR object? I need to keep a persistent connection open to a web server to feed live data to a browser. The problem is, there is a relatively large amount of data coming through (several hundred K per second constantly), so memory usage is a big problem, because this connection must remain open for at least several minutes. responseText gets very big very quickly, even though the JSON I send back has been crunched as small as it can get. Due to the way the server-side app works, if I use AJAX-style short polling and just destroy the XHR object when I'm done with it, I miss significant amounts of important data even in the few milliseconds it takes to parse the response, create a new XHR and send it out. I do not have the option to use overlapping requests, as the web server only accepts one connection at a time. (Don't ask.) So Comet is exactly the model I need. What I would like to do is parse each JSON chunk as it comes back from the server, and then clear out responseText so that I can keep using the same connection. However, responseText is read-only. It cannot be directly emptied by any method I have found. Is there a part of the picture I am missing here? Does anyone know any tricks I can use to free up responseText when I'm done reading it? Or is there another place the server responses can go? I am not including code because this is really almost a code-agnostic question. The Javascript routines that spawn the XHRs and handle the returned data are very, very simple.

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  • calculating offer period for subscription

    - by TheVillageIdiot
    I'm maintaining a web application which deals with some kind of subscriptions. Users can to renew their subscriptions from 2 months before expiry (not earlier than that). Sometimes user does not renew before expiry and get grace period which is of 3 months. Now he can renew in these 3 months of grace period. Now the problem part. In the previous transactions of renew requests I have to show what was the offer period for that particular request (subscription start and subscription end period if renew was granted). Things are pretty simple if user renews before expiry, but I'm not able to get things straight if there is grace period specially when the subscriptions is expiring in last months of the year. Also there sometimes calculations go haywire when subscription is ending in jan or feb. All this is happening because offer period is not saved with the application anywhere (I don't know why). so if subscription is ending in 20 October 2008 and renew application is submitted in 16 January 2009 (because of grace period) the offer period should be 21 October 2008 to 20 October 2009.

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  • How to output KML by GAE

    - by Niklas R
    Hi I use KML for a google map where entities have a geopt.db coordinate and soft memory limit was exceeded with 213.465 MB after servicing 1 requests total. The log says /list.kml 200 13130ms 10211cpu_ms 4238api_cpu_ms The file list.kml which outputs about 455,7 KB is a template as follows <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><kml xmlns="http:// www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:gx="http://www.google.com/kml/ext/2.2" xmlns:kml="http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:atom="http:// www.w3.org/2005/Atom"> <Document>{% for a in list %} <Placemark> <name> </name> <description> <![CDATA[<a href="http://{{host}}/{{a.key.id}}"> {{ a.title }} </a> <br/>{{a.text}}]]> </description> <Style> <IconStyle> <Icon> <href> http://www.google.com/intl/en_us/mapfiles/ms/icons/green-dot.png </href> </Icon> </IconStyle> </Style> <Point> <coordinates> {{a.geopt.lon|floatformat:2}},{{a.geopt.lat|floatformat:2}} </coordinates> </Point> </Placemark> {% endfor %} </Document> </kml> Is there a memory leak in the template or the python that passes the list variable? Can I improve using other template engine or other framework than default? Is kmz compression a good idea in this case? Thanks in advance for any suggestion where or how to change the code.

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  • Parse numbers in singe textbox for query

    - by Joshua Slocum
    I’ve built a webform in Visual Web Developer Express 2008 to help me with my work. I use a webform to run query requests that are emailed to me. The inputs are in this format 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 I enter the first number in a textbox and the second number in another textbox and click a button that runs a query and returns the results in a gridview(single row). string strConn, strSQL; strConn = AppConfig.Connection strSQL = 'select fields from table where FirstNum=:FirstNum and SecondNum=:SecondNum'; using (OracleConnection cn = new OracleConnection(strConn)) { OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand(strSQL, cn); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(":FirstNum", txtFirstNum.Text); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(":SeconNum", txtSecondNum.Text); cn.Open(); using (OracleDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { dgResults.DataSource = rdr; dgResults.DataBind(); } cn.Close(); } I had an idea to help me speed up my work. I’d like to be able to past both numbers in a single textbox ( like this 12312 12312 ) and have the code parse out the nubmers for the query. Or even better would be to past all of them in a multiline textbox like this 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 12312 And have them all parsed and the query run for each line and the results all output to one gridview. I’m just not sure how to approach this. Any suggestions would be appreciated. Thank you.

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  • How Can I Create Reports in a Custom C#.NET Windows Application? - General Question

    - by user311509
    Assume i have a custom Windows application written in C#. This application has only the following functionalists, add, edit, delete and view. For example, a user can add a sale, change sales record, delete a sale record or view the whole sales record. I need to add some reporting functionalists e.g. i want a user to print the sales of a certain customer from 2008 to 2009 into pdf, what all products a certain customer has purchased from us and so on. I will only include the basic common report requests that are usually needed in the office. Any other kind of reports that are requested inconsistently, i would do it manually from my side at the back end and send the results manually to the requester. What i would do is: If a user wants more info of a certain customer, a special window box appears for that customer. This window box will have different controls that allows user to request more info such as, print customer purchases from ..... to ..... (user chooses the dates) and user will view results in pdf or so. Of course, at the back scene i will write an appropriate SQL Query with parameters that meets a certain function. Is this how it should be done? I have heard about SQL Reporting, i don't know anything about it yet. I will check it out. Anyhow, your suggestions won't harm. I'm still a student, so i don't have practical experience yet. I hope my question is clear enough. Thank you.

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  • Axis webservice calls fail sometimes, access.log shows content!

    - by epischel
    Hi, our app is a webservice client (axis 1) to a third party webservice (also axis 1). We use it for some years now. Since a few weeks, we (as a client) get sometimes HTTP status 400 (bad request) or read timeouts when calling the webservice. Strangely, the access.log of the service shows part of the request or the response instead of the URL. It looks like this (looks like the end of the request string) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 16127 0 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 22511 1 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "il=\"true\"/><nsl:text xsi:type=\"xsd:string\" xsi:nil=\"true\"/></SOAPSomeOperation></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope> Axis/1.4" 400 299 0 or (some string out of the what looks like the request) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] ":string\">some text</sometag><othertag>moretext" 400 299 0 or in some other cases it looks like two requests thrown together (... means xml string left out): x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "...</someop></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\"...</soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>" 400 299 0 Application log does not give any hints. Frequency of such call is 1% of all calls to that service. The only discriminator I know of so far is that it happens since operations informed us that the service url changed because of "server migration". Has anyone experienced such phenomenon yet? Has somebody got an idea whats wrong and how to fix? Thanks,

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  • Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

    - by Alex Czarto
    Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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  • APC values randomly disappear

    - by Michael
    I'm using APC for storing a map of class names to class file paths. I build the map like this in my autoload function: $class_paths = apc_fetch('class_paths'); // If the class path is stored in application cache - search finished. if (isset($class_paths[$class])) { return require_once $class_paths[$class]; // Otherwise search in known places } else { // List of places to look for class $paths = array( '/src/', '/modules/', '/libs/', ); // Search directories and store path in cache if found. foreach ($paths as $path) { $file = DOC_ROOT . $path . $class . '.php'; if (file_exists($file)) { echo 'File was found in => ' . $file . '<br />'; $class_paths[$class] = $file; apc_store('class_paths', $class_paths); return require_once $file; } } } I can see as more and more classes are loaded, they are added to the map, but at some point the apc_fetch returns NULL in the middle of a page request, instead of returning the map. Getting => class_paths Array ( [MCS\CMS\Helper\LayoutHelper] => /Users/mbl/Documents/Projects/mcs_ibob/core/trunk/src/MCS/CMS/Helper/LayoutHelper.php [MCS\CMS\Model\Spot] => /Users/mbl/Documents/Projects/mcs_ibob/core/trunk/src/MCS/CMS/Model/Spot.php ) Getting => class_paths {null} Many times the cached value will also be gone between page requests. What could be the reason for this? I'm using APC as an extension (PECL) running PHP 5.3.

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  • Mixing RewriteRule and ProxyPass in Apache

    - by Taylor L
    I was working on debugging an issue today related to mixing mod_proxy and mod_rewrite together and I ended up having to use balancer://mycluster in the RewriteRule in order to stop receiving a 404 error from Apache. I have two questions: 1) Is there any other way to get the rewritten URL to go through the balancer without adding balancer://mycluster into the RewriteRule? 2) Is there a way to define all the parameters I defined in ProxyPass (stickysession=JSESSIONID|jsessionid scolonpathdelim=On lbmethod=bytraffic nofailover=Off) in either the <Proxy> or RewriteRule? I'm concerned the requests that match the new RewriteRule won't load balance in the same fashion as those that go through ProxyPass (like /app1/something.do)? Below are the relevant sections of the httpd.conf. I am using Apache 2.2. <Proxy balancer://mycluster> Order deny,allow Allow from all BalancerMember ajp://my.domain.com:8009 route=node1 BalancerMember ajp://my.domain.com:8009 route=node2 </Proxy> ProxyPass /app1 balancer://mycluster/app1 stickysession=JSESSIONID|jsessionid scolonpathdelim=On lbmethod=bytraffic nofailover=Off ProxyPassReverse /app1 ajp://my.domain.com:8009/app1 ... RewriteRule ^/static/cms/image/(.*)\.(.*) balancer://mycluster/app1/$1.$2 [P,L]

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  • How would the 'Model' in a Rails-type webapp be implemented in a functional programming langauge?

    - by ceptorial
    In MVC web development frameworks such as Ruby on Rails, Django, and CakePHP, HTTP requests are routed to controllers, which fetch objects which are usually persisted to a backend database store. These objects represent things like users, blog posts, etc., and often contain logic within their methods for permissions, fetching and/or mutating other objects, validation, etc. These frameworks are all very much object oriented. I've been reading up recently on functional programming and it seems to tout tremendous benefits such as testability, conciseness, modularity, etc. However most of the examples I've seen for functional programming implement trivial functionality like quicksort or the fibonnacci sequence, not complex webapps. I've looked at a few 'functional' web frameworks, and they all seem to implement the view and controller just fine, but largely skip over the whole 'model' and 'persistence' part. (I'm talking more about frameworks like Compojure which are supposed to be purely functional, versus something Lift which conveniently seems to use the OO part of Scala for the model -- but correct me if I'm wrong here.) I haven't seen a good explanation of how functional programming can be used to provide the metaphor that OO programming provides, i.e. tables map to objects, and objects can have methods which provide powerful, encapsulated logic such as permissioning and validation. Also the whole concept of using SQL queries to persist data seems to violate the whole 'side effects' concept. Could someone provide an explanation of how the 'model' layer would be implemented in a functionally programmed web framework?

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  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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  • Browser: Continue gif animation after escape is pressed

    - by cottsak
    Firefox (and other browsers i believe) stop gif animation when you click the Stop button or invoke it via the Escape key. I have a text input that on change makes ajax requests to update other elements. As part of this ajaxyness i have an animated gif to show feedback. I also trap the escape key press in this input so as to clear the text field for better UX. My problem is after the escape key is pressed once, none of the ajax gifs animate anymore until the page is refreshed. Does anyone know a workaround? Stuff i've tried: I tried the e.stopPropagation(); and e.cancelBubble = true; in the function handling the e.keyCode == 27 and that didn't seem to work. I suspect that this stops trigging more js events and the browser catches the escape irrespective of js activity. I have the gif showing/hiding via adding/removing a css class so it's difficult to apply the "change gif url to reset" workaround. I dont even know if this works anyway - didn't test it. But it seems difficult. If anyone knows that this works and knows of an easy way to apply the hack with background-image: url(../images/ajax-loader_dotcirclel13x13.gif); css then please let me know.

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  • ASP.NET MVC routing issue with Google Chrome client

    - by synergetic
    My Silverlight 4 app is hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 web application. It works fine when I browse with Internet Explorer 8. However Google Chrome (version 5) cannot find ASP.NET controllers. Specifically, the following ASP.NET controller works both with Chrome and IE. //[OutputCache(NoStore = true, Duration = 0, VaryByParam = "None")] public ContentResult TestMe() { ContentResult result = new ContentResult(); XElement response = new XElement("SvrResponse", new XElement("Data", "my data")); result.Content = response.ToString(); return result; } If I uncomment [OutputCache] attribute then it works with IE but not with Chrome. Also, I use custom model binding with controllers, so if I write the following: public ContentResult TestMe(UserContext userContext) { ... } it also works with IE, but again not with Chrome which gives me error message saying that resource was not found. Of course, I configured IIS 6 for handling all requests via aspnet_isapi.dll and I have registered custom model binder in my web app's Global.asax inside Application_Start() method. Can someone explain me what might be the cause? Thank you.

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  • Efficient Method for Preventing Hotlinking via .htaccess

    - by Michael Robinson
    I need to confirm something before I go accuse someone of ... well I'd rather not say. The problem: We allow users to upload images and embed them within text on our site. In the past we allowed users to hotlink to our images as well, but due to server load we unfortunately had to stop this. Current "solution": The method the programmer used to solve our "too many connections" issue was to rename the file that receives and processes image requests (image_request.php) to image_request2.php, and replace the contents of the original with <?php header("HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error") ; ?> Obviously this has caused all images with their src attribute pointing to the original image_request.php to be broken, and is also the wrong code to be sending in this case. Proposed solution: I feel a more elegant solution would be: In .htaccess If the request is for image_request.php Check referrer If referrer is not our site, send the appropriate header If referrer is our site, proceed to image_request.php and process image request What I would like to know is: Compared to simply returning a 500 for each request to image_request.php: How much more load would be incurred if we were to use my proposed alternative solution outlined above? Is there a better way to do this? Our main concern is that the site stays up. I am not willing to agree that breaking all internally linked images is the best / only way to solve this. I refuse to tell our users that because of something WE changed they must now manually change the embed code in all their previously uploaded content.

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