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  • Password-less login into localhost

    - by Brad
    I am trying to setup password-less login into my localhost because it's required for a tutorial. I went through the normal steps of generating an rsa key and appending the public key to authorized_keys but I am still prompted for a password. I've also enabled RSAAuthentication and PubKeyAuthentication in /etc/ssh_config. Following other suggestions I've seen, I tried: chmod go-w ~/ chmod 700 ~/.ssh chmod 600 ~/.ssh/authorized_keys But the problem persists. Here is the output from ssh -v localhost: (tutorial)bnels21-2:tutorial bnels21$ ssh -v localhost OpenSSH_5.9p1, OpenSSL 0.9.8r 8 Feb 2011 debug1: Reading configuration data /etc/ssh_config debug1: /etc/ssh_config line 20: Applying options for * debug1: Connecting to localhost [::1] port 22. debug1: Connection established. debug1: identity file /Users/bnels21/.ssh/id_rsa type 1 debug1: identity file /Users/bnels21/.ssh/id_rsa-cert type -1 debug1: identity file /Users/bnels21/.ssh/id_dsa type -1 debug1: identity file /Users/bnels21/.ssh/id_dsa-cert type -1 debug1: Remote protocol version 2.0, remote software version OpenSSH_5.9 debug1: match: OpenSSH_5.9 pat OpenSSH* debug1: Enabling compatibility mode for protocol 2.0 debug1: Local version string SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.9 debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT received debug1: kex: server->client aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: kex: client->server aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REQUEST(1024<1024<8192) sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_INIT sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REPLY debug1: Server host key: RSA 1c:31:0e:56:93:45:dc:f0:77:6c:bd:90:27:3b:c6:43 debug1: Host 'localhost' is known and matches the RSA host key. debug1: Found key in /Users/bnels21/.ssh/known_hosts:11 debug1: ssh_rsa_verify: signature correct debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: Roaming not allowed by server debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,keyboard-interactive debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Offering RSA public key: /Users/bnels21/.ssh/id_rsa debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,keyboard-interactive debug1: Offering RSA public key: id_rsa3 debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,keyboard-interactive debug1: Trying private key: /Users/bnels21/.ssh/id_dsa debug1: Next authentication method: keyboard-interactive Password: Any suggestions? I'm running OSX 10.8.

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  • postfix test and configuration problem

    - by Woho87
    Hi Guys! I installed postfix using sudo yum install postfix postfix-mysql. I'm newbie to mail systems, but I have one AMAZON EC2 instance with a public DNS. I used the public DNS in most cases, when I configured the file main.cf. The public DNS I have is from amazon and it is a long string(ec2-123-34-234-677.....amazon.com). // I configured this on main.cf. I replaced example.com with ec2-123-.......amazon.com myhostname = mail.example.com mydomain = example.com myorigin = $mydomain mydestination = example.com, $transport_maps local_recipient_maps = $alias_maps $virtual_mailbox_maps unix:passwd.byname home_mailbox = Maildir/ How do I test postfix? I just want it to send emails for my web application. I tried to test it with >telnet localhost 25 after I typed in SSH >sudo postfix start. but I recieve the message that telnet command can not be found. I also use the Amazon linux distribution if you want to know. I use it because it is free. What have I done wrong? Are there anymore configurations required pls help!

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  • How to limit reverse SSH tunelling ports?

    - by funktku
    We have a public server which accepts SSH connections from multiple clients behind firewalls. Each of these clients create a Reverse SSH tunnel by using the ssh -R command from their web servers at port 80 to our public server. The destination port(at the client side) of the Reverse SSH Tunnel is 80 and the source port(at public server side) depends on the user. We are planning on maintaining a map of port addresses for each user. For example, client A would tunnel their web server at port 80 to our port 8000; client B from 80 to 8001; client C from 80 to 8002. Client A: ssh -R 8000:internal.webserver:80 clienta@publicserver Client B: ssh -R 8001:internal.webserver:80 clientb@publicserver Client C: ssh -R 8002:internal.webserver:80 clientc@publicserver Basically, what we are trying to do is bind each user with a port and not allow them to tunnel to any other ports. If we were using the forward tunneling feature of SSH with ssh -L, we could permit which port to be tunneled by using the permitopen=host:port configuration. However, there is no equivalent for reverse SSH tunnel. Is there a way of restricting reverse tunneling ports per user?

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  • Gitolite SSH URL Format

    - by KPthunder
    So I got gitolite set up. Simple. But there is one issue I am having. The SSH urls follow the format of git@host:repo. I'm used to Bitbucket / Github where the urls follow the format of git@host:user/repo. Is there a way to get the latter format using gitolite? Another question. I have my ~/.ssh/config file set up with the following entry: Host <host> User <user> IdentityFile <path/to/public/key> I don't have any configuration specifying git as a user, and yet I am able to clone git@host:repo without problem. Obviously, my ssh client is using my public key to access the server which is why gitolite is letting me clone the repo, but how does my ssh client know to use my public key which is only configured for the <user> user and not the git user?

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  • Relative path incorrect in the view layer when hosting a rails3 app in a subdirectory using passenger and apache

    - by Saifis
    I want to host multiple Rails apps on a multiple server using sub-directories. And have encountered some relative path problems. I have made a symbolic link to the app's public directory and placed it in the /var/www/html directory, var/www/html/ /test_app (symbolic link to the public folder of test_app) and set apache as so LoadModule passenger_module /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/passenger-3.0.12/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so PassengerRoot /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/passenger-3.0.12 PassengerRuby /usr/local/bin/ruby <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName test.com DocumentRoot /var/www/html Options Indexes FollowSymLinks -MultiViews RailsBaseURI /test_app </Location> </VirtualHost> The links in the app itself works just fine, all the links acknowledge the test_app/ directory and work, however, when it comes to showing images in the public directory in the view, the relative path goes wrong. Say I have /system/files/1/aaa.png it goes looking for it in /var/www/html/system/files/1/aaa.png rather than /var/www/html/test_app/system/files/1/aaa.png As far as I understand this is an Apache setting problem than something to be done in Rails, if its possible I would prefer to have it contained in the conf file of apache rather than having to alter the code.

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  • Unexpected behaviour in a Lotus Notes programmable table

    - by Mark B
    I'm designing a workflow database in Lotus Notes 6.0.3 (soon upgrading to 8.5), and my OS is Windows XP. I have recently tried converting a tabbed table into a programmable one. This was so that I could control which tab was displayed to the user when it was opened, so that they were presented with the most appropriate one for that document's progress through the workflow. That part of it works! One of the tabs features a radio button that controls visibility of the next tab, and a pair of cascading dialogue boxes. One contains the static list "Person":"Team", and the other has a formula based on the first: view:=@If(PeerReview = "Team"; "GroupNames"; "GroupMembers"); @Unique(@DbColumn(""; ""; view; 1)) The dialogue boxes have the property "Refresh fields on keyword change" selected. The behaviour that I wasn't expecting is this. If the radio button is set to "Yes" and a value is selected in one of the dialogue boxes, the table opens the next tab. If the radio button is set to "No" and a value is selected in one of the dialogue boxes, the entire table is hidden. I can duplicate the latter by switching off the "Refresh fields on keyword change" property on the dialogue boxes and instead pressing F9 after selecting a value. I have no idea why the former occurs, though. The table is called "RFCInfo", and I have a field on the form called "$RFCInfo" which is editable, hidden from all users who aren't me and initially set by a Postopen script, which I can post if necessary - it's essentially a Select Case statement that looks at a particular item value and returns the name of the table row relating to that value. Can anyone offer any pointers?

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  • Email Proxy Ideas

    - by jtnire
    Hi Everyone, I wish to host some managed email servers for some customers. Each customer will have their own email server which will be an all-in-one virtual machine running postfix, dovecot and some webmail suite. Even though each customer will have their own server, I do not wish to give each email server it's own public facing IP. I wish to avail the use of proxy servers so all customers use the same public IP. As for the "smtp-in" from the public internet, this isn't a problem as I can set up many mx servers (using postfix) which will store-and-forward the mail to the correct server (using transport maps). As for the IMAP access from the customer, I was thinking of using perdition which is an IMAP proxy - I believe that this will suit my needs. I am confused however on what to use for the "smtp-out" proxy. The customers will have to authenticate with their receptive email server, however they will have to go via a proxy of some sort as they won't have direct access to their server instance. It probably can't be a store-and-forward proxy either. Does anyone have any idea on what I could use here? Many Thanks

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  • using nginx with proxy_pass on a subdomain

    - by marcus3006
    a have a rails app that should listen on the subdomain redmine.example.com (using proxy_pass). all other requests for *.example.com should just redirect to a normal index.html. Here is my configuration: server { server_name www.example.com example.com; root /home/deploy/static/example; } upstream redmine { server unix:/tmp/redmine.socket fail_timeout=0; } server { # you could put a list of other domain names this application answers server_name redmine.example.com; root /home/deploy/rails/redmine/public; access_log /var/log/nginx/redmine_access.log; rewrite_log on; location * { proxy_pass http://redmine; } location ~ ^/(assets)/ { root /home/deploy/rails/redmine/public; gzip_static on; # to serve pre-gzipped version expires max; add_header Cache-Control public; } } anyone knows what's going wrong here? requests to example.com and www.example.com are handled correctly. when i try to acces redmine.example.com = "couldn't resolve host"

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  • Possible Hack with FTP - What are the solutions?

    - by iamrohitbanga
    I was reading the FTP rfc and hence had this idea. Suppose there are several public ftp servers that allow anonymous user login. I open a control connection on port 21 to each of these servers. Now suppose there is a web server a.com with ip address x.y.z.w listening on port 80. FTP allows a user to specify the host on which the data connection is to be setup. So a user specifies the host and port number of a.com web server. Now the ftp server starts sending data to a.com for which it is not a valid HTTP request and hence it is rejected. But a.com notes that the invalid http request came from a public ftp server and not my ip address. Can this not lead to a distributed attack by utilizing all public ftp servers. worse still the the data being sent by ftp server could be a valid http request which could trigger a.com to send a file back to the ftp server. Is there a solution for this or is it no problem at all.

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  • Reverse NAT Setup for Hyper-V on Win 2008 R2

    - by sukru
    I'm trying to setup a Linux server behind a Windows Hyper-V host that will help supply some of the services (SSH, HTTPS, etc). However getting RRAS configured for reverse NAT (port forwarding) turned out to be a non trivial task. As a staring point, I tried forwarding port 22 (SSH) to the virtual machine. The virtual machine is on a public interface (i.e.: it also has a visible IP on the same network as the host). On RRAS management console I tried to add a rule, by adding "Local Area Connection" to NAT pool (Public Interface - Enable Nat), and an incoming rule for port 22 - :22. I also tried with the same port enabled on Windows Firewall (and not). The NAT management page tells there are "1 mappings" and "30+ Outbound packets transleted". However all other counters (Inbound packets translated, and respective rejected ones) are always zero. (I'm trying to access the server from an external machine). I can directly access the service if I give the VM's public IP, but not the host's one. Is there a way to enable this on RRAS?

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  • iptables, forward traffic for ip not active on the host itself

    - by gucki
    I have kvm guest which's netword card is conntected to the host using a tap device. The tap device is part of a bridge on the host together with eth0 so it can access the public network. So far everything works, the guest can access the public network and it can be accessed from the public network. Now the kvm process on the host provides a vnc server for the guest which listens on 127.0.0.1:5901 on the host. Is there any way to make this vnc server accessible by the ip address which the guest is using (ex. 192.168.0.249), without interrupting the guest from using the same ip (port 5901 is not used by the guest)? It should also work when the guest is not using any ip address at all. So basically I just want to fake IP xx is on the host and only answer/ forward traffic to port 5901 to the host itself. I tried using this NAT rule on the host, but it doesn't work. Ip forwarding is enabled at the host. iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dst 192.168.0.249 --dport 5901 -j DNAT --to-destination 127.0.0.1:5901 I assume this is because the IP 192.168.0.249 is not not bound to any interfaces and so no ARP requests for it get answered and so no packets for this IP arrive at the host. How can make it work? :)

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  • Join multiple consecutive SQLite database dump files into 1 common database? Purpose: Search through ENTIRE Chrome Browsing History

    - by porg
    Google Chrome 's default web browsing history search engine only lets you access the records of the recent 100 days. Nevertheless in your application data, Chrome keeps your entire browsing history in SQLite database files, with the file naming scheme of "History Index YYYY-MM". I am looking for a way to search… …through my entire browsing history, …with sophisticated filters (limit search terms to certain fields such as URL, domain, title, body text; wildcard or regex terms, date ranges). … in … …either some ready-made software. eHistory came close, as it can limit terms to fields, but it lacks wildcards/regexes, and has the same limited time horizon as the default search. Beyond that, I could not find any suited Chrome extension or standalone (Mac) app. …or a command line to join multiple SQLite database files into one database, which I can then query (with the full syntax power). In the spirit of the pseudo code below: Preferred this way: sqlite --targetDatabase ChromeHistoryAll --importFiles /path/to/ChromeAppData/History\ Index* --importOnlyYetUnknownFiles Or if my desired feature --importOnlyYetUnknownFiles is not possible (feature could also be called "avoid duplicate imports by checking UIDs"), then by explicitly only importing files, of which I know, that they have yet not been imported into the ChromeHistoryAll database: cd ChromeAppData; sqlite --databaseTarget ChromeHistoryAll --importFiles YetNotImported1 YetNotImported2 YetNotImported3 All my queries I would then perform in the database "ChromeHistoryAll" P.S.: Additional question of general interest: Is there a way to perform a database query in a temporary database which was created on-the-fly from multiple files? Like: sqlite --query="SQL query" --targetDatabase DbAll --DBtemporaryInRAM --importFiles db1 db2 db3 This is surely not applicable for my Chrome question, as these History Index files have a combined file size of 500MB together, thus such a query would be of bad performance. But it could come handy in other situations.

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  • NginxHttpAuthBasicModule with Sinatra & Passenger

    - by scainey
    Hi, I'm serving static pages from a Sinatra application using Nginx. I've implemented Basic Authentication for one page on the site using NginxHttpAuthBasicModule, the authentication succeeds but Nginx doesn't resolve the link. Error log gives - 2010/03/22 12:15:19 [error] 7143#0: *2902 open() "/home/me/live/mysite_home/public /mypage" failed (2: No such file or directory), client: 82.71.18.122, server: mysite.com, request: "GET /mypage HTTP/1.1", host: "mysite.com" The actual file is found at: /home/me/live/mysite_home/live/mypage.erb The configuration file is: server { listen 80; server_name mysite.com; root /home/me/live/mysite_home/public; passenger_enabled on; location /mypage { auth_basic "Restricted"; auth_basic_user_file htpasswd; } } server { listen 443; server_name mysite.com; root /home/me/live/mysite_home/public; passenger_enabled on; ssl on; ssl_certificate /etc/nginx/conf/certs/server.crt; ssl_certificate_key /etc/nginx/conf/certs/server.key; keepalive_timeout 70; location /mypage { auth_basic "Restricted"; auth_basic_user_file htpasswd; } } Not sure if this is a Sinatra, Passenger or Nginx thing, or if I'm just missing something.

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  • apache front-end rewriting URL to different https ports?

    - by khedron
    Hi all, One of my users is having some trouble with forwarding to an internal web app from a public address. Everything worked fine for him when the situation was like this: front page: http://www.myexample.com/ public ref to internal app: http://www.example.com/app-8903/app.html secretly goes to: http://secret.example.com:8903/app-8903/app.html This is to say, my user is providing the very last URL, with the port information duplicated in the URL base, and they were using that to give a public face that hid both the port and the internal machine name. You could still read the port in the URL base if you looked, but the obvious reference and machine name were hidden. Doing it this way, he could have several different instances of the application running on secret.example.com with different ports, and on the front end it just looked like it was changing the URL directory/base. Now the user wants to do the same thing over https:, and the people helping him with apache config say it can't be done. Is that so? Without being there to tinker with the configuration myself, I'm not sure what his IT people have tried, but reading through the apache2 SSL FAQ and other docs, it seems like it should be possible to rewrite URLs to different ports and still use https:.

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  • Apache forwarding without redirecting (application won't follow redirects)

    - by DrewVS
    Recently we had to move /task to /public/task, and I'd like to configure Apache to redirect accordingly. However, using mod_rewrite, though it works in the browser, seems to break applications making api calls to the above location. What happens is the application returns a page with the message saying the page was moved, but the app doesn't follow the redirect. So, is there a way to simply forward any traffic to /task to /public/task without 'redirecting', i.e, returning a redirect status code? EDIT: Here's a little more information. I've found a simple test to clarify what I'm trying to fix. Here is the URL path that needs forwarding: https://mydomain.com/task Needs to go to: https://mydomain.com/public/task If I use curl against the original domain, it just returns a redirect page notice. If I add the -L flag, which tells curl to follow redirects, it then follows the redirect successfully. I assume something very similar is happening in the application (which I don't have access to) that makes calls to the /task URL path. Since I cannot modify the application to make it follow redirects properly, I'm looking for a solution I can implement in Apache.

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  • NginxHttpAuthBasicModule with Sinatra & Passenger

    - by scainey
    I'm serving static pages from a Sinatra application using Nginx. I've implemented Basic Authentication for one page on the site using NginxHttpAuthBasicModule, the authentication succeeds but Nginx doesn't resolve the link. Error log gives - 2010/03/22 12:15:19 [error] 7143#0: *2902 open() "/home/me/live/mysite_home/public /mypage" failed (2: No such file or directory), client: 82.71.18.122, server: mysite.com, request: "GET /mypage HTTP/1.1", host: "mysite.com" The actual file is found at: /home/me/live/mysite_home/live/mypage.erb The configuration file is: server { listen 80; server_name mysite.com; root /home/me/live/mysite_home/public; passenger_enabled on; location /mypage { auth_basic "Restricted"; auth_basic_user_file htpasswd; } } server { listen 443; server_name mysite.com; root /home/me/live/mysite_home/public; passenger_enabled on; ssl on; ssl_certificate /etc/nginx/conf/certs/server.crt; ssl_certificate_key /etc/nginx/conf/certs/server.key; keepalive_timeout 70; location /mypage { auth_basic "Restricted"; auth_basic_user_file htpasswd; } } Not sure if this is a Sinatra, Passenger or Nginx thing, or if I'm just missing something.

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  • VLAN across a router to give wireless access to remote sites?

    - by Don
    I've been looking online for this answer, but getting conflicting information. I was under the impression that you couldn't use a VLAN across a router, but maybe it's possible (according to some documentation I see online)? I was hoping someone could clear it up for me. Here's what I'm working with: We have a remote site with a handful of users. We recently gave them an access point (Cisco 1142n) for internal wireless. It's plugged into a switch and working fine (getting IPs from the same DHCP scope as the wired users are getting). Private wireless is set on VL50. At the home office we have private wireless for our internal network working and on VL50, with a test VLAN setup for VL60, which points to our DSL line for the time being. Both private and public wireless works fine internally (not crossing a router). VL50 is named the same at both sites for consistency in naming. If we wanted to give the remote site access to the public wireless (VL60), would that be possible across the routers? For more information, currently the site is connected to the home office via a T1 connection, Cisco routers on both ends. I didn't think it was possible due to the nature of VLANS being layer 2. But, I am from from an expert on this and would appreciate any instruction as to the actual truth of the matter. The end result I'm going for is, how to get our remote sites access to a public (outside) connection along with their private connection, without actually having a DSL (or similar type line) dropped at their location? Thanks in advance for your thoughts.

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  • Sensible Way to Pass Web Data in XML to a SQL Server Database

    - by Emtucifor
    After exploring several different ways to pass web data to a database for update purposes, I'm wondering if XML might be a good strategy. The database is currently SQL 2000. In a few months it will move to SQL 2005 and I will be able to change things if needed, but I need a SQL 2000 solution now. First of all, the database in question uses the EAV model. I know that this kind of database is generally highly frowned on, so for the purposes of this question, please just accept that this is not going to change. The current update method has the web server inserting values (that have all been converted first to their correct underlying types, then to sql_variant) to a temp table. A stored procedure is then run which expects the temp table to exist and it takes care of updating, inserting, or deleting things as needed. So far, only a single element has needed to be updated at a time. But now, there is a requirement to be able to edit multiple elements at once, and also to support hierarchical elements, each of which can have its own list of attributes. Here's some example XML I hand-typed to demonstrate what I'm thinking of. Note that in this database the Entity is Element and an ID of 0 signifies "create" aka an insert of a new item. <Elements> <Element ID="1234"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">287</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="99825"> <Attr ID="7">Value1</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value2</Attr> <Attr ID="9" Action="delete" /> </Element> <Element ID="99826" Action="delete" /> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value4</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value5</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value6</Attr> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value7</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value8</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value9</Attr> </Element> </Attr> <Rel ID="3827" Action="delete" /> <Rel ID="2284" Role="parent"> <Element ID="3827" /> <Element ID="3829" /> <Attr ID="665">1</Attr> </Rel> <Rel ID="0" Type="23" Role="child"> <Element ID="3830" /> <Attr ID="67" </Rel> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="87"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">569</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value10</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value11</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value12</Attr> </Element> </Attr> </Element> <Element ID="1235" Action="delete" /> </Elements> Some Attributes are straight value types, such as AttrID 221. But AttrID 234 is a special "multi-value" type that can have a list of elements underneath it, and each one can have one or more values. Types only need to be presented when a new item is created, since the ElementID fully implies the type if it already exists. I'll probably support only passing in changed items (as detected by javascript). And there may be an Action="Delete" on Attr elements as well, since NULLs are treated as "unselected"--sometimes it's very important to know if a Yes/No question has intentionally been answered No or if no one's bothered to say Yes yet. There is also a different kind of data, a Relationship. At this time, those are updated through individual AJAX calls as things are edited in the UI, but I'd like to include those so that changes to relationships can be canceled (right now, once you change it, it's done). So those are really elements, too, but they are called Rel instead of Element. Relationships are implemented as ElementID1 and ElementID2, so the RelID 2284 in the XML above is in the database as: ElementID 2284 ElementID1 1234 ElementID2 3827 Having multiple children in one relationship isn't currently supported, but it would be nice later. Does this strategy and the example XML make sense? Is there a more sensible way? I'm just looking for some broad critique to help save me from going down a bad path. Any aspect that you'd like to comment on would be helpful. The web language happens to be Classic ASP, but that could change to ASP.Net at some point. A persistence engine like Linq or nHibernate is probably not acceptable right now--I just want to get this already working application enhanced without a huge amount of development time. I'll choose the answer that shows experience and has a balance of good warnings about what not to do, confirmations of what I'm planning to do, and recommendations about something else to do. I'll make it as objective as possible. P.S. I'd like to handle unicode characters as well as very long strings (10k +). UPDATE I have had this working for some time and I used the ADO Recordset Save-To-Stream trick to make creating the XML really easy. The result seems to be fairly fast, though if speed ever becomes a problem I may revisit this. In the meantime, my code works to handle any number of elements and attributes on the page at once, including updating, deleting, and creating new items all in one go. I settled on a scheme like so for all my elements: Existing data elements Example: input name e12345_a678 (element 12345, attribute 678), the input value is the value of the attribute. New elements Javascript copies a hidden template of the set of HTML elements needed for the type into the correct location on the page, increments a counter to get a new ID for this item, and prepends the number to the names of the form items. var newid = 0; function metadataAdd(reference, nameid, value) { var t = document.createElement('input'); t.setAttribute('name', nameid); t.setAttribute('id', nameid); t.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); t.setAttribute('value', value); reference.appendChild(t); } function multiAdd(target, parentelementid, attrid, elementtypeid) { var proto = document.getElementById('a' + attrid + '_proto'); var instance = document.createElement('p'); target.parentNode.parentNode.insertBefore(instance, target.parentNode); var thisid = ++newid; instance.innerHTML = proto.innerHTML.replace(/{prefix}/g, 'n' + thisid + '_'); instance.id = 'n' + thisid; instance.className += ' new'; metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_p', parentelementid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_c', attrid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_t', elementtypeid); return false; } Example: Template input name _a678 becomes n1_a678 (a new element, the first one on the page, attribute 678). all attributes of this new element are tagged with the same prefix of n1. The next new item will be n2, and so on. Some hidden form inputs are created: n1_t, value is the elementtype of the element to be created n1_p, value is the parent id of the element (if it is a relationship) n1_c, value is the child id of the element (if it is a relationship) Deleting elements A hidden input is created in the form e12345_t with value set to 0. The existing controls displaying that attribute's values are disabled so they are not included in the form post. So "set type to 0" is treated as delete. With this scheme, every item on the page has a unique name and can be distinguished properly, and every action can be represented properly. When the form is posted, here's a sample of building one of the two recordsets used (classic ASP code): Set Data = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Data.Fields.Append "ElementID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "AttrID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "Value", adLongVarWChar, 2147483647, adFldIsNullable Or adFldMayBeNull Data.CursorLocation = adUseClient Data.CursorType = adOpenDynamic Data.Open This is the recordset for values, the other is for the elements themselves. I step through the posted form and for the element recordset use a Scripting.Dictionary populated with instances of a custom Class that has the properties I need, so that I can add the values piecemeal, since they don't always come in order. New elements are added as negative to distinguish them from regular elements (rather than requiring a separate column to indicate if it is new or addresses an existing element). I use regular expression to tear apart the form keys: "^(e|n)([0-9]{1,10})_(a|p|t|c)([0-9]{0,10})$" Then, adding an attribute looks like this. Data.AddNew ElementID.Value = DataID AttrID.Value = Integerize(Matches(0).SubMatches(3)) AttrValue.Value = Request.Form(Key) Data.Update ElementID, AttrID, and AttrValue are references to the fields of the recordset. This method is hugely faster than using Data.Fields("ElementID").Value each time. I loop through the Dictionary of element updates and ignore any that don't have all the proper information, adding the good ones to the recordset. Then I call my data-updating stored procedure like so: Set Cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With Cmd Set .ActiveConnection = MyDBConn .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "DataPost" .Prepared = False .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementMetadata", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Element)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementData", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Data)) End With Result.Open Cmd ' previously created recordset object with options set Here's the function that does the xml conversion: Private Function XMLFromRecordset(Recordset) Dim Stream Set Stream = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Stream") Stream.Open Recordset.Save Stream, adPersistXML Stream.Position = 0 XMLFromRecordset = Stream.ReadText End Function Just in case the web page needs to know, the SP returns a recordset of any new elements, showing their page value and their created value (so I can see that n1 is now e12346 for example). Here are some key snippets from the stored procedure. Note this is SQL 2000 for now, though I'll be able to switch to 2005 soon: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[DataPost] @ElementMetaData ntext, @ElementData ntext AS DECLARE @hdoc int --- snip --- EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @hdoc OUTPUT, @ElementMetaData, '<xml xmlns:s="uuid:BDC6E3F0-6DA3-11d1-A2A3-00AA00C14882" xmlns:dt="uuid:C2F41010-65B3-11d1-A29F-00AA00C14882" xmlns:rs="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:rowset" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" />' INSERT #ElementMetadata (ElementID, ElementTypeID, ElementID1, ElementID2) SELECT * FROM OPENXML(@hdoc, '/xml/rs:data/rs:insert/z:row', 0) WITH ( ElementID int, ElementTypeID int, ElementID1 int, ElementID2 int ) ORDER BY ElementID -- orders negative items (new elements) first so they begin counting at 1 for later ID calculation EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @hdoc --- snip --- UPDATE E SET E.ElementTypeID = M.ElementTypeID FROM Element E INNER JOIN #ElementMetadata M ON E.ElementID = M.ElementID WHERE E.ElementID >= 1 AND M.ElementTypeID >= 1 The following query does the correlation of the negative new element ids to the newly inserted ones: UPDATE #ElementMetadata -- Correlate the new ElementIDs with the input rows SET NewElementID = Scope_Identity() - @@RowCount + DataID WHERE ElementID < 0 Other set-based queries do all the other work of validating that the attributes are allowed, are the correct data type, and inserting, updating, and deleting elements and attributes. I hope this brief run-down is useful to others some day! Converting ADO Recordsets to an XML stream was a huge winner for me as it saved all sorts of time and had a namespace and schema already defined that made the results come out correctly. Using a flatter XML format with 2 inputs was also much easier than sticking to some ideal about having everything in a single XML stream.

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  • Sensible Way to Pass Web Data to Sql Server Database

    - by Emtucifor
    After exploring several different ways to pass web data to a database for update purposes, I'm wondering if XML might be a good strategy. The database is currently SQL 2000. In a few months it will move to SQL 2005 and I will be able to change things if needed, but I need a SQL 2000 solution now. First of all, the database in question uses the EAV model. I know that this kind of database is generally highly frowned on, so for the purposes of this question, please just accept that this is not going to change. The current update method has the web server inserting values (that have all been converted first to their correct underlying types, then to sql_variant) to a temp table. A stored procedure is then run which expects the temp table to exist and it takes care of updating, inserting, or deleting things as needed. So far, only a single element has needed to be updated at a time. But now, there is a requirement to be able to edit multiple elements at once, and also to support hierarchical elements, each of which can have its own list of attributes. Here's some example XML I hand-typed to demonstrate what I'm thinking of. Note that in this database the Entity is Element and an ID of 0 signifies "create" aka an insert of a new item. <Elements> <Element ID="1234"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">287</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="99825"> <Attr ID="7">Value1</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value2</Attr> <Attr ID="9" Action="delete" /> </Element> <Element ID="99826" Action="delete" /> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value4</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value5</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value6</Attr> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value7</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value8</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value9</Attr> </Element> </Attr> <Rel ID="3827" Action="delete" /> <Rel ID="2284" Role="parent"> <Element ID="3827" /> <Element ID="3829" /> <Attr ID="665">1</Attr> </Rel> <Rel ID="0" Type="23" Role="child"> <Element ID="3830" /> <Attr ID="67" </Rel> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="87"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">569</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value10</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value11</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value12</Attr> </Element> </Attr> </Element> <Element ID="1235" Action="delete" /> </Elements> Some Attributes are straight value types, such as AttrID 221. But AttrID 234 is a special "multi-value" type that can have a list of elements underneath it, and each one can have one or more values. Types only need to be presented when a new item is created, since the ElementID fully implies the type if it already exists. I'll probably support only passing in changed items (as detected by javascript). And there may be an Action="Delete" on Attr elements as well, since NULLs are treated as "unselected"--sometimes it's very important to know if a Yes/No question has intentionally been answered No or if no one's bothered to say Yes yet. There is also a different kind of data, a Relationship. At this time, those are updated through individual AJAX calls as things are edited in the UI, but I'd like to include those so that changes to relationships can be canceled (right now, once you change it, it's done). So those are really elements, too, but they are called Rel instead of Element. Relationships are implemented as ElementID1 and ElementID2, so the RelID 2284 in the XML above is in the database as: ElementID 2284 ElementID1 1234 ElementID2 3827 Having multiple children in one relationship isn't currently supported, but it would be nice later. Does this strategy and the example XML make sense? Is there a more sensible way? I'm just looking for some broad critique to help save me from going down a bad path. Any aspect that you'd like to comment on would be helpful. The web language happens to be Classic ASP, but that could change to ASP.Net at some point. A persistence engine like Linq or nHibernate is probably not acceptable right now--I just want to get this already working application enhanced without a huge amount of development time. I'll choose the answer that shows experience and has a balance of good warnings about what not to do, confirmations of what I'm planning to do, and recommendations about something else to do. I'll make it as objective as possible. P.S. I'd like to handle unicode characters as well as very long strings (10k +). UPDATE I have had this working for some time and I used the ADO Recordset Save-To-Stream trick to make creating the XML really easy. The result seems to be fairly fast, though if speed ever becomes a problem I may revisit this. In the meantime, my code works to handle any number of elements and attributes on the page at once, including updating, deleting, and creating new items all in one go. I settled on a scheme like so for all my elements: Existing data elements Example: input name e12345_a678 (element 12345, attribute 678), the input value is the value of the attribute. New elements Javascript copies a hidden template of the set of HTML elements needed for the type into the correct location on the page, increments a counter to get a new ID for this item, and prepends the number to the names of the form items. var newid = 0; function metadataAdd(reference, nameid, value) { var t = document.createElement('input'); t.setAttribute('name', nameid); t.setAttribute('id', nameid); t.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); t.setAttribute('value', value); reference.appendChild(t); } function multiAdd(target, parentelementid, attrid, elementtypeid) { var proto = document.getElementById('a' + attrid + '_proto'); var instance = document.createElement('p'); target.parentNode.parentNode.insertBefore(instance, target.parentNode); var thisid = ++newid; instance.innerHTML = proto.innerHTML.replace(/{prefix}/g, 'n' + thisid + '_'); instance.id = 'n' + thisid; instance.className += ' new'; metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_p', parentelementid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_c', attrid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_t', elementtypeid); return false; } Example: Template input name _a678 becomes n1_a678 (a new element, the first one on the page, attribute 678). all attributes of this new element are tagged with the same prefix of n1. The next new item will be n2, and so on. Some hidden form inputs are created: n1_t, value is the elementtype of the element to be created n1_p, value is the parent id of the element (if it is a relationship) n1_c, value is the child id of the element (if it is a relationship) Deleting elements A hidden input is created in the form e12345_t with value set to 0. The existing controls displaying that attribute's values are disabled so they are not included in the form post. So "set type to 0" is treated as delete. With this scheme, every item on the page has a unique name and can be distinguished properly, and every action can be represented properly. When the form is posted, here's a sample of building one of the two recordsets used (classic ASP code): Set Data = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Data.Fields.Append "ElementID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "AttrID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "Value", adLongVarWChar, 2147483647, adFldIsNullable Or adFldMayBeNull Data.CursorLocation = adUseClient Data.CursorType = adOpenDynamic Data.Open This is the recordset for values, the other is for the elements themselves. I step through the posted form and for the element recordset use a Scripting.Dictionary populated with instances of a custom Class that has the properties I need, so that I can add the values piecemeal, since they don't always come in order. New elements are added as negative to distinguish them from regular elements (rather than requiring a separate column to indicate if it is new or addresses an existing element). I use regular expression to tear apart the form keys: "^(e|n)([0-9]{1,10})_(a|p|t|c)([0-9]{0,10})$" Then, adding an attribute looks like this. Data.AddNew ElementID.Value = DataID AttrID.Value = Integerize(Matches(0).SubMatches(3)) AttrValue.Value = Request.Form(Key) Data.Update ElementID, AttrID, and AttrValue are references to the fields of the recordset. This method is hugely faster than using Data.Fields("ElementID").Value each time. I loop through the Dictionary of element updates and ignore any that don't have all the proper information, adding the good ones to the recordset. Then I call my data-updating stored procedure like so: Set Cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With Cmd Set .ActiveConnection = MyDBConn .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "DataPost" .Prepared = False .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementMetadata", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Element)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementData", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Data)) End With Result.Open Cmd ' previously created recordset object with options set Here's the function that does the xml conversion: Private Function XMLFromRecordset(Recordset) Dim Stream Set Stream = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Stream") Stream.Open Recordset.Save Stream, adPersistXML Stream.Position = 0 XMLFromRecordset = Stream.ReadText End Function Just in case the web page needs to know, the SP returns a recordset of any new elements, showing their page value and their created value (so I can see that n1 is now e12346 for example). Here are some key snippets from the stored procedure. Note this is SQL 2000 for now, though I'll be able to switch to 2005 soon: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[DataPost] @ElementMetaData ntext, @ElementData ntext AS DECLARE @hdoc int --- snip --- EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @hdoc OUTPUT, @ElementMetaData, '<xml xmlns:s="uuid:BDC6E3F0-6DA3-11d1-A2A3-00AA00C14882" xmlns:dt="uuid:C2F41010-65B3-11d1-A29F-00AA00C14882" xmlns:rs="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:rowset" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" />' INSERT #ElementMetadata (ElementID, ElementTypeID, ElementID1, ElementID2) SELECT * FROM OPENXML(@hdoc, '/xml/rs:data/rs:insert/z:row', 0) WITH ( ElementID int, ElementTypeID int, ElementID1 int, ElementID2 int ) ORDER BY ElementID -- orders negative items (new elements) first so they begin counting at 1 for later ID calculation EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @hdoc --- snip --- UPDATE E SET E.ElementTypeID = M.ElementTypeID FROM Element E INNER JOIN #ElementMetadata M ON E.ElementID = M.ElementID WHERE E.ElementID >= 1 AND M.ElementTypeID >= 1 The following query does the correlation of the negative new element ids to the newly inserted ones: UPDATE #ElementMetadata -- Correlate the new ElementIDs with the input rows SET NewElementID = Scope_Identity() - @@RowCount + DataID WHERE ElementID < 0 Other set-based queries do all the other work of validating that the attributes are allowed, are the correct data type, and inserting, updating, and deleting elements and attributes. I hope this brief run-down is useful to others some day! Converting ADO Recordsets to an XML stream was a huge winner for me as it saved all sorts of time and had a namespace and schema already defined that made the results come out correctly. Using a flatter XML format with 2 inputs was also much easier than sticking to some ideal about having everything in a single XML stream.

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  • what does square bracket syntax mean above a method in C#, ASP.NET

    - by Alexander
    I am just looking a bunch of codes that I am trying to learn from an open source project and sometimes I see a square brackets above a function such as: [EdmFunction("NerdDinnerModel.Store", "DistanceBetween")] public static double DistanceBetween(double lat1, double long1, double lat2, double long2) or [Bind(Include = "Title,Description,EventDate,Address,Country,ContactPhone,Latitude,Longitude")] [MetadataType(typeof(Dinner_Validation))] public partial class Dinner

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  • HTTP client - HTTP 405 error "Method not allowed". I send a HTTP Post but for some reason HTTP Get i

    - by Shino88
    Hey I am using apache library. I have created a class which sends a post request to a servlet. I have set up the parameters for the client and i have created a HTTP post object to be sent but for some reason when i excute the request i get a reposnse that says the get method is not supported(which is true cause i have only made a dopost method in my servlet). It seems that a get request is being sent but i dont know why. The post method worked before but i started gettng http error 417 "Expectation Failed" which i fixed by adding paramenters. below is my class with the post method. P.s i am developing for android. public class HTTPrequestHelper { private final ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler; private static final String CLASSTAG = HTTPrequestHelper.class.getSimpleName(); private static final DefaultHttpClient client; static{ HttpParams params = new BasicHttpParams(); params.setParameter(CoreProtocolPNames.PROTOCOL_VERSION, HttpVersion.HTTP_1_1); params.setParameter(CoreProtocolPNames.HTTP_CONTENT_CHARSET, HTTP.UTF_8); ///params.setParameter(CoreProtocolPNames.USER_AGENT, "Android-x"); params.setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT, 15000); params.setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.STALE_CONNECTION_CHECK, false); SchemeRegistry schemeRegistry = new SchemeRegistry(); schemeRegistry.register( new Scheme("http", PlainSocketFactory.getSocketFactory(), 80)); schemeRegistry.register( new Scheme("https", SSLSocketFactory.getSocketFactory(), 443)); ThreadSafeClientConnManager cm = new ThreadSafeClientConnManager(params, schemeRegistry); client = new DefaultHttpClient(cm,params); } public HTTPrequestHelper(ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler) { this.responseHandler = responseHandler; } public void performrequest(String url, String para) { HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); StringEntity parameters; try { parameters = new StringEntity(para); post.setEntity(parameters); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } BasicHttpResponse errorResponse = new BasicHttpResponse( new ProtocolVersion("HTTP_ERROR", 1, 1), 500, "ERROR"); try { client.execute(post, this.responseHandler); } catch (Exception e) { errorResponse.setReasonPhrase(e.getMessage()); try { this.responseHandler.handleResponse(errorResponse); } catch (Exception ex) { Log.e( "ouch", "!!! IOException " + ex.getMessage() ); } } } I tried added the allow header to the request but that did not work as well but im not sure if i was doing right. below is the code. client.addRequestInterceptor(new HttpRequestInterceptor() { @Override public void process(HttpRequest request, HttpContext context) throws HttpException, IOException { //request.addHeader("Allow", "POST"); } });

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  • PowerShell - Parameter Value Tab Expansion for Enum types

    - by Adam Driscoll
    Is it possible to implement parameter value tab expansion for enum parameter types? Creating a binary cmdlet with parameter definition: [Parameter] public SomeEnum Type {get;set;} Is there some way to type: Add-MyThing -Type S<tab> To get: Add-MyThing -Type SomeEnumValue Where: public enum SomeEnum { SomeEnumValue, SomeEnumValue2 } I know it may be possible with overriding the TabExpansion function but I was wondering if there was something I could do within my cmdlet to expose this type of functionality.

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  • Problem with redirecting *.domain.com & domain.com to www.domain.com for HTTPS

    - by Mat E.
    We have a site I'll call acme.com. Most of the time you see http://www.acme.com and sometimes we redirect you to https://www.acme.com. We want to redirect anyone going to http://acme.com or http://*.acme.com to http://www.acme.com, and the same for https. (It's mainly to avoid the alert you get if you go to https://acme.com instead of https://www.acme.com) Our vhost file is at the end of the post. It works nicely except for one strange behavior: http://acme.com - successfully redirects to http://www.acme.com http://www.acme.com - successfully does not redirect http://foo.acme.com - successfully redirects to http://www.acme.com https://acme.com - successfully redirects to https://www.acme.com https://www.acme.com - successfully does not direct https://foo.acme.com - ERROR - redirects to http://www.acme.com It's this last result I can't fathom. I've tried a lot of trial and error solutions from Google & Stack Overflow but nothing seems to change it. Even if we swap the order of the configurations (so that 443 is before 80) it still redirects https://foo.acme.com to http://www.acme.com We are running Apache/2.2.12 on Ubuntu. Here's the configuration file: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.acme.com ServerAlias acme.com *.acme.com ServerSignature On DocumentRoot /var/www/acme.com/public RailsEnv 'production' PassengerHighPerformance on <Directory /var/www/acme.com/public> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews </Directory> SSLEngine Off CustomLog /var/log/apache2/acme.log combined ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/acme-error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, alert, emerg. LogLevel warn RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^[^\./]+\.[^\./]+$ RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ http://www.%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName www.acme.com ServerAlias acme.com *.acome.com DocumentRoot /var/www/acme.com/public RailsEnv 'production' PassengerHighPerformance on <Directory /var/www/acme.com/public> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews </Directory> SSLCertificateFile /etc/ssl/certs/www.acme.com.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/ssl/private/acme.com.private.key SSLCACertificateFile /etc/ssl/certs/EV_intermediate.crt SSLEngine On CustomLog /var/log/apache2/ssl-acme.log "%t %h %{SSL_PROTOCOL}x %{SSL_CIPHER}x \"%r\" %b" ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/ssl-acme-error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, alert, emerg. LogLevel warn RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^[^\./]+\.[^\./]+$ RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ https://www.%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] </VirtualHost>

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  • Java Process "The pipe has been ended" problem

    - by Amit Kumar
    I am using Java Process API to write a class that receives binary input from the network (say via TCP port A), processes it and writes binary output to the network (say via TCP port B). I am using Windows XP. The code looks like this. There are two functions called run() and receive(): run is called once at the start, while receive is called whenever there is a new input received via the network. Run and receive are called from different threads. The run process starts an exe and receives the input and output stream of the exe. Run also starts a new thread to write output from the exe on to the port B. public void run() { try { Process prc = // some exe is `start`ed using ProcessBuilder OutputStream procStdIn = new BufferedOutputStream(prc.getOutputStream()); InputStream procStdOut = new BufferedInputStream(prc.getInputStream()); Thread t = new Thread(new ProcStdOutputToPort(procStdOut)); t.start(); prc.waitFor(); t.join(); procStdIn.close(); procStdOut.close(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); printError("Error : " + e.getMessage()); } } The receive forwards the received input from the port A to the exe. public void receive(byte[] b) throws Exception { procStdIn.write(b); } class ProcStdOutputToPort implements Runnable { private BufferedInputStream bis; public ProcStdOutputToPort(BufferedInputStream bis) { this.bis = bis; } public void run() { try { int bytesRead; int bufLen = 1024; byte[] buffer = new byte[bufLen]; while ((bytesRead = bis.read(buffer)) != -1) { // write output to the network } } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger().log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } } The problem is that I am getting the following stack inside receive() and the prc.waitfor() returns immediately afterwards. The line number shows that the stack is while writing to the exe. The pipe has been ended java.io.IOException: The pipe has been ended at java.io.FileOutputStream.writeBytes(Native Method) at java.io.FileOutputStream.write(FileOutputStream.java:260) at java.io.BufferedOutputStream.write(BufferedOutputStream.java:105) at java.io.BufferedOutputStream.flushBuffer(BufferedOutputStream.java:65) at java.io.BufferedOutputStream.write(BufferedOutputStream.java:109) at java.io.FilterOutputStream.write(FilterOutputStream.java:80) at xxx.receive(xxx.java:86) Any advice about this will be appreciated.

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  • Drawing a TextBox in an extended Glass Frame (C# w/o WPF)

    - by Lazlo
    I am trying to draw a TextBox on the extended glass frame of my form. I won't describe this technique, it's well-known. Here's an example for those who haven't heard of it: http://www.danielmoth.com/Blog/Vista-Glass-In-C.aspx The thing is, it is complex to draw over this glass frame. Since black is considered to be the 0-alpha color, anything black disappears. There are apparently ways of countering this problem: drawing complex GDI+ shapes are not affected by this alpha-ness. For example, this code can be used to draw a Label on glass (note: GraphicsPath is used instead of DrawString in order to get around the horrible ClearType problem): public class GlassLabel : Control { public GlassLabel() { this.BackColor = Color.Black; } protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { GraphicsPath font = new GraphicsPath(); font.AddString( this.Text, this.Font.FontFamily, (int)this.Font.Style, this.Font.Size, Point.Empty, StringFormat.GenericDefault); e.Graphics.SmoothingMode = SmoothingMode.HighQuality; e.Graphics.FillPath(new SolidBrush(this.ForeColor), font); } } Similarly, such an approach can be used to create a container on the glass area. Note the use of the polygons instead of the rectangle - when using the rectangle, its black parts are considered as alpha. public class GlassPanel : Panel { public GlassPanel() { this.BackColor = Color.Black; } protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { Point[] area = new Point[] { new Point(0, 1), new Point(1, 0), new Point(this.Width - 2, 0), new Point(this.Width - 1, 1), new Point(this.Width -1, this.Height - 2), new Point(this.Width -2, this.Height-1), new Point(1, this.Height -1), new Point(0, this.Height - 2) }; Point[] inArea = new Point[] { new Point(1, 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, this.Height - 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, this.Height - 1), new Point(1, this.Height - 1) }; e.Graphics.FillPolygon(new SolidBrush(Color.FromArgb(240, 240, 240)), inArea); e.Graphics.DrawPolygon(new Pen(Color.FromArgb(55, 0, 0, 0)), area); base.OnPaint(e); } } Now my problem is: How can I draw a TextBox? After lots of Googling, I came up with the following solutions: Subclassing the TextBox's OnPaint method. This is possible, although I could not get it to work properly. It should involve painting some magic things I don't know how to do yet. Making my own custom TextBox, perhaps on a TextBoxBase. If anyone has good, valid and working examples, and thinks this could be a good overall solution, please tell me. Using BufferedPaintSetAlpha. (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms649805.aspx). The downsides of this method may be that the corners of the textbox might look odd, but I can live with that. If anyone knows how to implement that method properly from a Graphics object, please tell me. I personally don't, but this seems the best solution so far. Thanks!

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