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  • MSCRM 4 Convert Standard enitity to Custom entity using InitializeFromRequest

    - by user363727
    Hi there, I'm trying to convert an order and orderdetail lines to a custom entity and its child lines using InitializeFromRequest using the code below: public void Convert(Guid FromEntityId, string FromEntityName, string ToEntityName) { try { // Set up the CRM Service. CrmService _service = GetCrmService(); InitializeFromRequest req = new InitializeFromRequest(); req.EntityMoniker = new Moniker(); // this is the very thing that does the job. req.EntityMoniker.Id = FromEntityId; req.EntityMoniker.Name = FromEntityName; req.TargetEntityName = ToEntityName; //contact for our example req. req.TargetFieldType = TargetFieldType.ValidForCreate; InitializeFromResponse rps = (InitializeFromResponse)_service.Execute(req); //now the lead is converted to a contact, and you can see it in contacts. Guid entityId = _service.Create(rps.Entity); lblMsg.Text = "Done ID:" + entityId.ToString(); } catch (System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException se) { lblMsg.Text = "soap:" + se.Detail.InnerText; } catch (Exception ex) { lblMsg.Text = ex.Message; } } Now i am able to get a custom entity created but all the attributes are empty despite me setting the mapping fields in the realtionship. Any ideas on what i am missing or doing wrong? Thanks in advance Andrew

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  • CSRF Protection in AJAX Requests using MVC2

    - by mnemosyn
    The page I'm building depends heavily on AJAX. Basically, there is just one "page" and every data transfer is handled via AJAX. Since overoptimistic caching on the browser side leads to strange problems (data not reloaded), I have to perform all requests (also reads) using POST - that forces a reload. Now I want to prevent the page against CSRF. With form submission, using Html.AntiForgeryToken() works neatly, but in AJAX-request, I guess I will have to append the token manually? Is there anything out-of-the box available? My current attempt looks like this: I'd love to reuse the existing magic. However, HtmlHelper.GetAntiForgeryTokenAndSetCookie is private and I don't want to hack around in MVC. The other option is to write an extension like public static string PlainAntiForgeryToken(this HtmlHelper helper) { // extract the actual field value from the hidden input return helper.AntiForgeryToken().DoSomeHackyStringActions(); } which is somewhat hacky and leaves the bigger problem unsolved: How to verify that token? The default verification implementation is internal and hard-coded against using form fields. I tried to write a slightly modified ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute, but it uses an AntiForgeryDataSerializer which is private and I really didn't want to copy that, too. At this point it seems to be easier to come up with a homegrown solution, but that is really duplicate code. Any suggestions how to do this the smart way? Am I missing something completely obvious?

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  • Sharepoint BDC Error: The title property of entity tblStaff is set to an invalid value

    - by Christopher Rathermel
    I am just starting to create our Business Data Catalog(s) for our practice management system and I am running into an issue w/ our staff table. Background: I am using Business Data Catalog Definition Editor to create my ADF. I am using the RevertToSelf Authentication Mode. I have tried a few other tables and they seem to work just fine thus far.. only issue is w/ the staff table. If I removed all the columns for the staff entity except the ID and a few columns for the name it actually works. So it has a problem w/ one of my columns in tblStaff. I receive this error even when I set up an ADF w/ just this one entity. So w/ no associations.. When attempting to view the record: http://servername/ssp/admin/Content/tblstaff.aspx?StaffID={0} w/ {0} replaced w/ an actual staff ID I get the following error: The title property of entity tblStaff is set to an invalid value. Things I have tried: I noticed that I do have a column in my staff table called "Title" and removed it from ADF w/ no luck... Same error.. I tried to use bdc meta man to create my ADF and I got the same error... Any ideas? Chris

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  • Putting CAPTCHAs on their own page?

    - by mnemosyn
    We need to put a captcha image on our ASP.NET MVC 2 based website. We chose reCaptcha and built it in using the way described by Derik Whittaker. The idea there is baiscally to build some abstractions and all you need to do is decorate your Controller with a [ValidateCaptcha] attribute. This works all fine. However, we have a lot of form-widgets in different pages and I don't want to have the captcha floating around everywhere. So I'd like to implement it the way StackOverflow does: Submit a Form -> Challenge Captcha -> Submit Captcha -> Perform Action on original form data. Now, how do I redirect the user to the captcha page while keeping the originally submitted information? I thought of some very ugly hacks (hidden fields w/ base64 encoded form data, etc.) but I think I'm missing something obvious. On the other hand, this sounds as if I wanted to do something in a stateful manner, and I shouldn't?

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  • click event launched only once problem

    - by user281180
    I have a form in which I have many checkboxes. I need to post the data to the controller upon any checkbox checked or unchecked, i.e a click on a checbox must post to the controller, and there is no submit button. What will be the bet method in this case? I have though of Ajax.BeginForm and have the codes below. The problem im having is that the checkbox click event is being detected only once and after that the click event isnt being launched. Why is that so? How can I correct that? <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Edit", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "tests"})) {%> <div id="tests"> <%Html.RenderPartial("Details", Model); %> </div> <input type="submit" value="Save" style="Viibility:hidden" id="myForm"/> <%} %> $(function() { $('input:checkbox').click(function() { $('#myForm').click(); }); });

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  • Not possible to load DropDownList on FormView from code behind??

    - by tbone
    I have a UserControl, containing a FormView, containing a DropDownList. The FormView is bound to a data control. Like so: <asp:FormView ID="frmEdit" DataKeyNames="MetricCode" runat="server" DefaultMode="Edit" DataSourceID="llbDataSource" Cellpadding="0" > <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="ParentMetricCode" runat="server" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("ParentMetricCode") %>' /> etc, etc I am trying to populate the DropDownList from the codebehind. If this was not contained in a FormView, I would normally just do it in the Page_Load event. However, that does not work within a FormView, as as soon as I try to do it, accessing the dropdownlist in code, ie: theListcontrol = CType(formView.FindControl(listControlName), System.Web.UI.WebControls.ListControl) ...the data binding mechansim of the FormView is invoked, which, of course, tries to bind the DropDownList to the underlying datasource, causing a *'ParentMetricCode' has a SelectedValue which is invalid because it does not exist in the list of items. Parameter name: value * error, since the DropDownList has not yet been populated. I tried performing the load in the DataBinding() event of the FormView, but then: theListcontrol = CType(formView.FindControl(listControlName), System.Web.UI.WebControls.ListControl) ...fails, as the FormView.Controls.Count = 0 at that point. Is this impossible? (I do not want to have to use a secondary ObjectDataSource to bind the dropdownlist to)

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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • Copy an entity in Google App Engine datastore in Python without knowing property names at 'compile'

    - by Gordon Worley
    In a Python Google App Engine app I'm writing, I have an entity stored in the datastore that I need to retrieve, make an exact copy of it (with the exception of the key), and then put this entity back in. How should I do this? In particular, are there any caveats or tricks I need to be aware of when doing this so that I get a copy of the sort I expect and not something else. ETA: Well, I tried it out and I did run into problems. I would like to make my copy in such a way that I don't have to know the names of the properties when I write the code. My thinking was to do this: #theThing = a particular entity we pull from the datastore with model Thing copyThing = Thing(user = user) for thingProperty in theThing.properties(): copyThing.__setattr__(thingProperty[0], thingProperty[1]) This executes without any errors... until I try to pull copyThing from the datastore, at which point I discover that all of the properties are set to None (with the exception of the user and key, obviously). So clearly this code is doing something, since it's replacing the defaults with None (all of the properties have a default value set), but not at all what I want. Suggestions?

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  • How to html encode the output of an NHaml view (or any MVC view)?

    - by jessegavin
    I have several views written in NHaml that I would like to render as encoded html. Here's one. %table.data %thead %tr %th Country Name %th ISO 2 %th ISO 3 %th ISO # %tbody - foreach(var c in ViewData.Model.Countries) %tr %td =c.Name %td =c.Alpha2 %td =c.Alpha3 %td =c.Number I know that NHaml provides syntax to Html encode the output for given lines using &=. However, in order to encode the entire view, I would essentially lose the benefit of writing my view in NHaml since it would have to look like this.... &= "<table class='data'> &= " <thead> So I was wondering if there was any cool way to be able to capture the rendered view as a string, then to html encode that string. Maybe something like the following??? public ContentResult HtmlTable(string format) { var m = new CountryViewModel(); m.Countries = _countryService.GetAll(); // Somehow render the view and store it as a string? // Not sure how to achieve this. var viewHtml = View("HtmlTable", m); // ??? return Content(viewHtml); } This question may actually have no particular relevance to the View engine that I am using I guess. Any help or thoughts would be appreciated.

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  • Deploy ASP.Net MVC 2 Applicatiopn to Windows 2008 R2

    - by user325320
    Hi, I have a ASP.Net MVC 2 web site, which can be visited by http://localhost/Admin/ContentMgr/ in ASP.Net Development Server from Visual Studio 2010(RTM Retail). When I try to deploy the site to Windows 2008 R2 , IIS 7.5 , the url always return 404. First, my application pool is running on .Net 4.0, and Integration mode. Second, my IIS do have "HTTP ERROR" and "HTTP Redirection" features on And this is my web.config. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" defaultLanguage="c#" targetFramework="4.0"> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Web.Abstractions, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add assembly="System.Web.Routing, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </assemblies> </compilation> <!-- <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" timeout="2880" /> </authentication> --> <pages> <namespaces> <add namespace="System.Web.Mvc" /> <add namespace="System.Web.Mvc.Ajax" /> <add namespace="System.Web.Mvc.Html" /> <add namespace="System.Web.Routing" /> </namespaces> </pages> </system.web> <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" > <remove name="UrlRoutingModule"/> <add name="UrlRoutingModule" type="System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule, System.Web.Routing, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </modules> <handlers> <remove name="MvcHttpHandler" /> <add name="MvcHttpHandler" preCondition="integratedMode" verb="*" path="*.mvc" type="System.Web.Mvc.MvcHttpHandler" /> <add name="UrlRoutingHandler" preCondition="integratedMode" verb="*" path="UrlRouting.axd" type="System.Web.HttpForbiddenHandler, System.Web, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> </handlers> <httpErrors errorMode="Detailed" /> </system.webServer> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity name="System.Web.Mvc" publicKeyToken="31bf3856ad364e35" /> <bindingRedirect oldVersion="1.0.0.0" newVersion="2.0.0.0" /> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration>

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  • 2 different routes on one page?

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi I'm pretty new with MVC2 or MVC in general. If it's one thing I get caught up with it's routes. Like now I got this scenario. Im going from the regular site to Admin. My navigation is the same partialview on both I just do a check which data to render something like this. <% if (!Request.RawUrl.Contains("Admin")){%> <% foreach (var site in Model) { %> <%= Html.MenuItem(site.BelongSite, "Sida", "Site", site.BelongSite) %> | <%} %> <%} else {%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Konfig", "Konfigurera", "Admin") %> <% } %> My route looks like this routes.MapRoute( "Admin", // Route name "Admin/{action}/{name}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Admin", action = "konfigurera", name = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); On my View called Konfigurera I got Edit sites and they use the route above and it works great. The navigation tho dont get no action assigned to it. It's just <a href='Admin/'> The navigation is in the shared folder, and it is a strongly typed. Any Ideas? I been struggling with this for about a hour now Thanks for any input

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  • How to identify a particular entity's Session Factory with Fluent NHibernate and Multiple Databases

    - by Trevor
    I've already asked this question as part of an answer to another question ( see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2655861/fluent-nhibernate-multiple-databases ) but thought it better to ask again here. My problem is this: I'm using Fluent NHibernate. My application uses multiple databases. Each database has its own entities registered (mapped) against it. The result is that have multiple Session Factories, each one relating to a single DB, and each 'containing' its own set of mapped entities. For loading entities I've created a generic Factory class that provides some standard load methods usable for any registered entity (in any DB). The problem is: The load methods need to use the correct session factory for the entity class I'm busy dealing with. How would I determine which session factory I need to use? I have all the Session Factories 'on hand' (and indexed by database name), I just need a way, knowing just the type of Entity I'm about to load, of choosing the right Session Factory to use. For example: public IBaseBusinessObject CreatePopulatedInstance(Type boType, Guid instanceKey) { IBaseBusinessObject result = null; ISessionFactory sessionFactory = GetSessionFactory(boType); using (ISession session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) { using (session.BeginTransaction()) { result = (IBaseBusinessObject)session.Get(boType, instanceKey); } } return result; } What needs to go on in GetSessionFactory(boType) ? Thanks for reading!

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  • what are the possibilities of displaying items in a listbox.

    - by Selase
    Ive been trying to figure out for a long time now how to create an interface that can allows users to input several rows of data and passed those entries into an sql server database all at one shot. i could not get any better ideas so i came up with this.(see picture below.) so what i envisioned is that the user enters values in the textboxes and hits "add to list" button. the values are then populated in the list box below with the heading "exhibits lists" and when add exhibit button is pressed, all values from the list box are passed into the database. Well am left wondering again if it would be possible to tie this values from the texboxes to the list box and if id be able to pass them into the database. if it were possible then id please love to know how to go about it otherwise id be glad if you can recommend a better way for me to handle the situation otherwise id have to resolve to data entry one at a time.:(... Counting on you sublime advise. thanks. I believe there is some useful information from this website that can help solve my problem but i just cant make head and tail out of the article...it seems like am almost there and it skids off...can everyone please read and help me adapt it to my situation..thanks..post below http://www.codeproject.com/KB/aspnet/ExtendedGridView.aspx

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  • @PrePersist with entity inheritance

    - by gerry
    I'm having some problems with inheritance and the @PrePersist annotation. My source code looks like the following: _the 'base' class with the annotated updateDates() method: @javax.persistence.Entity @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS) public class Base implements Serializable{ ... @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; ... @Column(nullable=false) @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date creationDate; @Column(nullable=false) @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date lastModificationDate; ... public Date getCreationDate() { return creationDate; } public void setCreationDate(Date creationDate) { this.creationDate = creationDate; } public Date getLastModificationDate() { return lastModificationDate; } public void setLastModificationDate(Date lastModificationDate) { this.lastModificationDate = lastModificationDate; } ... @PrePersist protected void updateDates() { if (creationDate == null) { creationDate = new Date(); } lastModificationDate = new Date(); } } _ now the 'Child' class that should inherit all methods "and annotations" from the base class: @javax.persistence.Entity @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name=Sensor.QUERY_FIND_ALL, query="SELECT s FROM Sensor s") }) public class Sensor extends Entity { ... // additional attributes @Column(nullable=false) protected String value; ... // additional getters, setters ... } If I store/persist instances of the Base class to the database, everything works fine. The dates are getting updated. But now, if I want to persist a child instance, the database throws the following exception: MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException: Column 'CREATIONDATE' cannot be null So, in my opinion, this is caused because in Child the method "@PrePersist protected void updateDates()" is not called/invoked before persisting the instances to the database. What is wrong with my code?

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  • DroDownlist in DataGrid produces Error

    - by S Nash
    I have a DataGrid and everytime I change value of it's embeded dropdwonlist I get: "System.Web.HttpException: The IListSource does not contain any data sources." I have a data grid which loads fine: Name column is editable. I have a dropdownlist these : DataDataGrid gets its value from a table. (Select Name, Address From Persons) Dropdown list also gets list of names from the same table. So DataGrid and dropdownlist are bound to 2 different datasets. Here is my code for dataGrid" <Columns> <ASP:ButtonColumn Text="Delete" CommandName="Delete"></ASP:ButtonColumn> <asp:EditCommandColumn ButtonType="LinkButton" UpdateText="Update" CancelText="Cancel" EditText="Edit"></asp:EditCommandColumn> <ASP:TemplateColumn HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="FY" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="center" HeaderStyle-Wrap="True"> <ItemStyle Wrap="false" HorizontalAlign="left" /> <ItemTemplate> <ASP:Label ID="Name" Text='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Name") %>' runat="server"/> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <ASP:DropDownList id="ddlName" cssClass="DropDownList" runat="server" datasource="<%#allNames%>" DataTextField= "Name" DataValueField="ID" Defaultvalue='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "ID") %>' OnPreRender="SetDefaultListItem" accessKey="I" AutoPostBack="true" /> </EditItemTemplate> </ASP:TemplateColumn> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="Address" ReadOnly="True" HeaderText="Address"></asp:BoundColumn> </Columns> Error happens here : dg.DataSource = ds dg.DataBind() Any ideas how to solve this issues? All I want is a DataGrid with a editable column ,which can be edited by choosing one of the value of in a dropdownlist.

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  • Django: How to dynamically add tag field to third party apps without touching app's source code

    - by Chris Lawlor
    Scenario: large project with many third party apps. Want to add tagging to those apps without having to modify the apps' source. My first thought was to first specify a list of models in settings.py (like ['appname.modelname',], and call django-tagging's register function on each of them. The register function adds a TagField and a custom manager to the specified model. The problem with that approach is that the function needs to run BEFORE the DB schema is generated. I tried running the register function directly in settings.py, but I need django.db.models.get_model to get the actual model reference from only a string, and I can't seem to import that from settings.py - no matter what I try I get an ImportError. The tagging.register function imports OK however. So I changed tactics and wrote a custom management command in an otherwise empty app. The problem there is that the only signal which hooks into syncdb is post_syncdb which is useless to me since it fires after the DB schema has been generated. The only other approach I can think of at the moment is to generate and run a 'south' like database schema migration. This seems more like a hack than a solution. This seems like it should be a pretty common need, but I haven't been able to find a clean solution. So my question is: Is it possible to dynamically add fields to a model BEFORE the schema is generated, but more specifically, is it possible to add tagging to a third party model without editing it's source. To clarify, I know it is possible to create and store Tags without having a TagField on the model, but there is a major flaw in that approach in that it is difficult to simultaneously create and tag a new model.

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  • Using the same code in different (partial) views

    - by Danny Chen
    Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

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  • Some languages don't work when using Word 2007 Spellcheck from Interop

    - by Tridus
    I'm using the Word 2007 spellchecker via Interop in a VB.net desktop app. When using the default language (English), it works fine. If I set the language to French via LanguageId, it also works. But if I set it to French (Canadian) (Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian), it doesn't work. There's no error message, it simply runs and says the document contains no errors. I know it does, if I paste the exact same text into Word itself and run it with the French (Canadian) dictionary, it finds errors. Just why that dictionary doesn't work is kind of a mystery to me. Full code below: Public Shared Function SpellCheck(ByVal text As String, ByVal checkGrammar As Boolean) As String ' If there is no data to spell check, then exit sub here. If text.Length = 0 Then Return text End If Dim objWord As Word.Application Dim objTempDoc As Word.Document ' Declare an IDataObject to hold the data returned from the ' clipboard. Dim iData As IDataObject objWord = New Word.Application() objTempDoc = objWord.Documents.Add objWord.Visible = False ' Position Word off the screen...this keeps Word invisible ' throughout. objWord.WindowState = 0 objWord.Top = -3000 ' Copy the contents of the textbox to the clipboard Clipboard.SetDataObject(text) ' With the temporary document, perform either a spell check or a ' complete ' grammar check, based on user selection. With objTempDoc .Content.Paste() .Activate() .Content.LanguageID = Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian If checkGrammar Then .CheckGrammar() Else .CheckSpelling() End If ' After user has made changes, use the clipboard to ' transfer the contents back to the text box .Content.Copy() iData = Clipboard.GetDataObject If iData.GetDataPresent(DataFormats.Text) Then text = CType(iData.GetData(DataFormats.Text), _ String) End If .Saved = True .Close() End With objWord.Quit() Return text End Function

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  • odd nullreference error at foreach when rendering view

    - by giddy
    This error is so weird I Just can't really figure out what is really wrong! In UserController I have public virtual ActionResult Index() { var usersmdl = from u in RepositoryFactory.GetUserRepo().GetAll() select new UserViewModel { ID = u.ID, UserName = u.Username, UserGroupName = u.UserGroupMain.GroupName, BranchName = u.Branch.BranchName, Password = u.Password, Ace = u.ACE, CIF = u.CIF, PF = u.PF }; if (usersmdl != null) { return View(usersmdl.AsEnumerable()); } return View(); } My view is of type @model IEnumerable<UserViewModel> on the top. This is what happens: Where and what exactly IS null!? I create the users from a fake repository with moq. I also wrote unit tests, which pass, to ensure the right amount of mocked users are returned. Maybe someone can point me in the right direction here? Top of the stack trace is : at lambda_method(Closure , User ) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectArrayIterator`2.MoveNext() at ASP.Index_cshtml.Execute() Is it something to do with linq here? Tell me If I should include the full stack trace.

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  • MSMQ - Message Queue Abstraction and Pattern

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    Hi All, Let me define the problem first and why a messagequeue has been chosen. I have a datalayer that will be transactional and EXTREMELY insert heavy and rather then attempt to deal with these issues when they occur I am hoping to implement my application from the ground up with this in mind. I have decided to tackle this problem by using the Microsoft Message Queue and perform inserts as time permits asynchronously. However I quickly ran into a problem. Certain inserts that I perform may need to be recalled (ie: retrieved) immediately (imagine this is for POS system and what happens if you need to recall the last transaction - one that still hasn’t been inserted). The way I decided to tackle this problem is by abstracting the MessageQueue and combining it in my data access layer thereby creating the illusion of a single set of data being returned to the user of the datalayer (I have considered the other issues that occur in such a scenario (ie: essentially dirty reads and such) and have concluded for my purposes I can control these issues). However this is where things get a little nasty... I’ve worked out how to get the messages back and such (trivial enough problem) but where I am stuck is; how do I create a generic (or at least somewhat generic) way of querying my message queue? One where I can minimize the duplication between the SQL queries and MessageQueue queries. I have considered using LINQ (but have very limited understanding of the technology) and have also attempted an implementation with Predicates which so far is pretty smelly. Are there any patterns for such a problem that I can utilize? Am I going about this the wrong way? Does anyone have an of their own ideas about how I can tackle this problem? Does anyone even understand what I am talking about? :-) Any and ALL input would be highly appreciated and seriously considered… Thanks again.

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  • server control properties

    - by Richard Friend
    Okay i have a custom server control that has some autocomplete settings, i have this as follows and it works fine. /// <summary> /// Auto complete settings /// </summary> [System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility (System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty), Category("Data"), Description("Auto complete settings"), NotifyParentProperty(true)] public AutoCompleteLookupSettings AutoComplete { private set; get; } I also have a ParameterCollection that is really related to the auto complete settings, currently this collection resides off the control itself like so : /// <summary> /// Parameters for any data lookups /// </summary> [System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility(System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] public ParameterCollection Parameters { get; set; } What i would like to do is move the parameter collection inside of the AutoCompleteSettings as it really relates to my autocomplete, i have tried this but to no avail.. I would like to move from <cc1:TextField ID="TextField1" runat='server'> <AutoComplete MethodName="GetTest" TextField="Item1" TypeName ="AppFrameWork.Utils" /> <Parameters> <asp:ControlParameter ControlID="txtTest" PropertyName="Text" Name="test" /> </Parameters> </cc1:TextField> To <cc1:TextField ID="TextField1" runat='server'> <AutoComplete MethodName="GetTest" TextField="Item1" TypeName ="AppFrameWork.Utils" > <Parameters> <asp:ControlParameter ControlID="txtTest" PropertyName="Text" Name="test" /> </Parameters> </AutoComplete> </cc1:TextField>

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  • How to get to the key name of a referenced entity property from an entity instance without a datastore read in google app engine?

    - by Sumeet Pareek
    Consider I have the following models - class Team(db.Model): # say I have just 5 teams name = db.StringProperty() class Player(db.Model): # say I have thousands of players name = db.StringProperty() team = db.ReferenceProperty(Team, collection_name="player_set") Key name for each Team entity = 'team_' , and for each Player entity = 'player_' By some prior arrangement I have a Team entity's (key_name, name) mapping available to me. For example (team_01, United States Of America), (team_02, Russia) etc I have to show all the players and their teams on a page. One way of doing this would be - players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(player.team.name) #This is a total of 1x1000 = 1000 DB reads That is a 1001 DB reads for a silly thing. The interesting part is that when I do a db.to_dict() on players, it shows that for every player in that list there is 'name' of the player and there is the 'key_name' of the team available too. So how can I do the below ?? players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(team_list[player.<SOME WAY OF GETTING TEAM KEY NAME>]) # Here 'team_list' already has (key_name, name) for all 5 teams I have been struggling with this for a long time. Have read every available documentation. I could just hug the person that can help me here :-) Disclaimer: The above problem description is not a real scenario. It is a simplified arrangement that represents my problem exactly. I have run into it in a rater complex and big GAE appication.

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  • Is there a more memory efficient way to search through a Core Data database?

    - by Kristian K
    I need to see if an object that I have obtained from a CSV file with a unique identifier exists in my Core Data Database, and this is the code I deemed suitable for this task: NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity; entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"ICD9" inManagedObjectContext:passedContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *pred = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"uniqueID like %@", uniqueIdentifier]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:pred]; NSError *err; NSArray* icd9s = [passedContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&err]; [fetchRequest release]; if ([icd9s count] > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < [icd9s count]; i++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; NSString *name = [[icd9s objectAtIndex:i] valueForKey:@"uniqueID"]; if ([name caseInsensitiveCompare:uniqueIdentifier] == NSOrderedSame && name != nil) { [pool release]; return [icd9s objectAtIndex:i]; } [pool release]; } } return nil; After more thorough testing it appears that this code is responsible for a huge amount of leaking in the app I'm writing (it crashes on a 3GS before making it 20 percent through the 1459 items). I feel like this isn't the most efficient way to do this, any suggestions for a more memory efficient way? Thanks in advance!

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  • Can I do something like this?

    - by kumar
    <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<IEnumerable<StudentInfo>>" %> <% int i = 0; %> <% foreach(var e in Model){%> <div> <% if(i==0) { %> <% Html.RenderAction("student", "home", new { @et = e}); %> <% break; } %> <div> <span> <% Html.RenderAction("studentDetails", "home", new { @et = e }); %> </span> </div> </div> <%i++; } %> here my intension was to execute Renderction Student only once.. and Studentdetails should be multiple times.. but int value is allways taking i =0 bec each time page is loading its considering 0 allways.. can anybody tell me how to do this? thanks

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  • Interesting Scala typing solution, doesn't work in 2.7.7?

    - by djc
    I'm trying to build some image algebra code that can work with images (basically a linear pixel buffer + dimensions) that have different types for the pixel. To get this to work, I've defined a parametrized Pixel trait with a few methods that should be able to get used with any Pixel subclass. (For now, I'm only interested in operations that work on the same Pixel type.) Here it is: trait Pixel[T <: Pixel[T]] { def mul(v: Double): T def max(v: T): T def div(v: Double): T def div(v: T): T } Now I define a single Pixel type that has storage based on three doubles (basically RGB 0.0-1.0), I've called it TripleDoublePixel: class TripleDoublePixel(v: Array[Double]) extends Pixel[TripleDoublePixel] { var data: Array[Double] = v def this() = this(Array(0.0, 0.0, 0.0)) def toString(): String = { "(" + data(0) + ", " + data(1) + ", " + data(2) + ")" } def increment(v: TripleDoublePixel) { data(0) += v.data(0) data(1) += v.data(1) data(2) += v.data(2) } def mul(v: Double): TripleDoublePixel = { new TripleDoublePixel(data.map(x => x * v)) } def div(v: Double): TripleDoublePixel = { new TripleDoublePixel(data.map(x => x / v)) } def div(v: TripleDoublePixel): TripleDoublePixel = { var tmp = new Array[Double](3) tmp(0) = data(0) / v.data(0) tmp(1) = data(1) / v.data(1) tmp(2) = data(2) / v.data(2) new TripleDoublePixel(tmp) } def max(v: TripleDoublePixel): TripleDoublePixel = { val lv = data(0) * data(0) + data(1) * data(1) + data(2) * data(2) val vv = v.data(0) * v.data(0) + v.data(1) * v.data(1) + v.data(2) * v.data(2) if (lv > vv) (this) else v } } Now I want to write code to use this, that doesn't have to know what type the pixels are. For example: def idiv[T](a: Image[T], b: Image[T]) { for (i <- 0 until a.data.size) { a.data(i) = a.data(i).div(b.data(i)) } } Unfortunately, this doesn't compile: (fragment of lindet-gen.scala):145: error: value div is not a member of T a.data(i) = a.data(i).div(b.data(i)) I was told in #scala that this worked for someone else, but that was on 2.8. I've tried to get 2.8-rc1 going, but it doesn't compile for me. Is there any way to get this to work in 2.7.7?

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