Search Results

Search found 12950 results on 518 pages for 'field activities'.

Page 457/518 | < Previous Page | 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464  | Next Page >

  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

    Read the article

  • MVC2 Modelbinder for List of derived objects

    - by user250773
    I want a list of different (derived) object types working with the Default Modelbinder in Asp.net MVC 2. I have the following ViewModel: public class ItemFormModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Required Field")] public string Name { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } [ScaffoldColumn(true)] //public List<Core.Object> Objects { get; set; } public ArrayList Objects { get; set; } } And the list contains objects of diffent derived types, e.g. public class TextObject : Core.Object { public string Text { get; set; } } public class BoolObject : Core.Object { public bool Value { get; set; } } It doesn't matter if I use the List or the ArrayList implementation, everything get's nicely scaffolded in the form, but the modelbinder doesn't resolve the derived object type properties for me when posting back to the ActionResult. What could be a good solution for the Viewmodel structure to get a list of different object types handled? Having an extra list for every object type (e.g. List, List etc.) seems to be not a good solution for me, since this is a lot of overhead both in building the viewmodel and mapping it back to the domain model. Thinking about the other approach of binding all properties in a custom model binder, how can I make use the data annotations approach here (validating required attributes etc.) without a lot of overhead?

    Read the article

  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

    Read the article

  • Integrate OpenId into an existing site

    - by Andrea
    I have a working web application which already has a login and registration system. I'm looking for some advice on how to do it. Until now, users have a username, an email, a password and some optional fields. The registrartion is the usual process with email confirmation. Now I'd like to allow users to use OpenId. So I have added an openid field to the table. There are two different login forms, and users which are already registered can add their openid info and use either login form. The problem is with new users who come on the site for the first time and try to login with OpenId. I create a new user for them, and I don't need a password, but still I need at least a username, which is used on the site (I'm not sure if the email is needed). So my problems are: 1) How do I manage validation? Some fields are required for some users, (e.g. a password) but not for some others. I mean, I can do this, but it immediately gets messy. 2) Should I ask for a username and email on the first OpenId login? On the one hand I'd say yes, but I fear this vanishes the advantages of using OpenId, that is, not having to provide details. 3) I could get the details via SReg or AttributeExchange, but most providers have a bad support for those. For instance my Gmail OpenId account does not tell the email (!). Is there some place to learn more about the current support for these extensions?

    Read the article

  • How do I create a class repository in Java and do I really need it?

    - by Roman
    I have a large number of objects which are identified by names (strings). So, I would like to have a kind of mapping from object name to the class instances. I was told that in this situation I can use a "repository" class which works like that: Server myServer = ServerRepository.getServer("NameOfServer"); So, if there is already an object (sever) with the "NameOfServer" it will be returned by the "getServer". If such an object does not exist yet, it will be created and returned by the "getServer". So, my question is how to program such a "repository" class? In this class I have to be able to check if there is an instance of a given class such that it has a given value of a given field. How can I do it? I need to have a kind of loop over all existing object of a given class? Another part of my question is why I cannot use associative arrays (associative container, map, mapping, dictionary, finite map)? (I am not sure how do you call it in Java) In more details, I have an "array" which maps names of objects to objects. So, whenever I create a new object, I add a new element to the array: myArray["NameOfServer"] = new Server("NameOfServer").

    Read the article

  • calling java script function then C# function after clicking ASP.NET button

    - by Eyla
    I have this serious: I have ASP.NET page, This page contents Update panel with ASP.NET control. I have Java script function to do validation so when I click the button I will use onclientclick to call the java function to do the validation and after this one done should call then event click button function from code behind. I tried vew methods but they did not work for me. here is sample of my code that after I click the button onclientclick will call the java script function for validation and if the validation is OK should call onclick event. .................... java script function ........................ <script type="text/javascript" > function add(){ if (tag == trye) { document.getElementById('<%=btnInfor.ClientID%>').click(); alert("DataAdded") } else { alert("Requiered Field Missing.") return false; } } </script> ..................... ASP.NET button ................... <asp:Button ID="btnInfor" runat="server" Text="Add Information" Style="position: absolute; top: 1659px; left: 433px;" onclientclick="JavaScript: return myAdd()" /> .................... code behind in C# ...................... protected void btnInfor_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { \\mycode }

    Read the article

  • How to visually reject user input in a table?

    - by FX
    In the programming of a table-based application module (i.e. the user mostly enters tabular data in an already laid-out table), how would you reject user input for a given cell? The scenario is: the user edits the cell, enters something (text, picture, ...) and you want them to notice when they finish editing (hitting enter, for example) that their entry is not valid for your given "format" (in the wider meaning: it can be that they entered a string instead of a number, that their entry is too long, too short, they include a picture while it's not acceptable, ...). I can see two different things happening: You can rather easily fit their entry into your format, and you do so, but you want them to notice it so they can change if your guess is not good enough (example: they entered "15.47" in a field that needs to be an integer, so your program makes it "15") You cannot guess what to do with their entry, and want to inform them that it's not valid. My question specifically is: what visual display can you offer to inform the user that his input is invalid? Is it preferable to refuse to leave the editing mode, or not? The two things I can imagine are: using colors (red background if invalid, yellow background for my case 1 above) when you reject an input, do something like Apple does for password entry of user accounts: you make the cell "shaking" (i.e. oscillating left and right) for one second, and keep the focus/editing in their so they don't loose what they've typed. Let's hear your suggestions. PS: This question is, at least in my thought process, somehow a continuation and a specialization of my previous question on getting users to read error messages. PPS: Made this community wiki, was that the right thing to do on this kind of question or not?

    Read the article

  • Best Practice: Access form elements by HTML id or name attribute?

    - by seth
    As any seasoned JavaScript developer knows, there are many (too many) ways to do the same thing. For example, say you have a text field as follows: <form name="myForm"> <input type="text" name="foo" id="foo" /> There are many way to access this in JavaScript: [1] document.forms[0].elements[0]; [2] document.myForm.foo; [3] document.getElementById('foo'); [4] document.getElementById('myForm').foo; ... and so on ... Methods [1] and [3] are well documented in the Mozilla Gecko documentation, but neither are ideal. [1] is just too general to be useful and [3] requires both an id and a name (assuming you will be posting the data to a server side language). Ideally, it would be best to have only an id attribute or a name attribute (having both is somewhat redundant, especially if the id isn't necessary for any css, and increases the likelihood of typos, etc). [2] seems to be the most intuitive and it seems to be widely used, but I haven't seen it referenced in the Gecko documentation and I'm worried about both forwards compatibility and cross browser compatiblity (and of course I want to be as standards compliant as possible). So what's best practice here? Can anyone point to something in the DOM documentation or W3C specification that could resolve this? Note I am specifically interested in a non-library solution (jQuery/Prototype).

    Read the article

  • Doctrine2 - relationship

    - by Filip Golonka
    I'm developing an application, which is looking for optimal route and timetable in public transport. I have some experience about Doctrine1, but it's my first time with Doctrine2. There is soem new fields to describe relations (mappedBy and inversedBy) and also some new ways of mapping. I have following code: $query = $this->em->createQuery("SELECT partial cls.{stop}, partial t.{arriveTime, departureTime} FROM \Entities\Timetable t JOIN t.ride r JOIN t.carrierLineStop cls WHERE t.departureTime>=:time AND r.idCarrierLine=:carrierLine AND (cls.idStop=:firstStop OR cls.idStop=:lastStop)"); $query->setParameters(array( 'time' => $time, 'carrierLine' => $path->getLine(), 'firstStop' => $path->getFirstStop(), 'lastStop' => $path->getLastStop() )); When I try to execute that script I've got an error: [Semantical Error] line 0, col 24 near '}, partial t.{arriveTime,': Error: There is no mapped field named 'stop' on class Entities\CarrierLineStop. Mapping files: Entities\CarrierLineStop: type: entity table: carrier_line_stop fields: idCarrierLineStop: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false column: id_carrier_line_stop generator: strategy: IDENTITY nextStop: type: integer unsigned: false nullable: true column: next_stop manyToOne: idCarrierLine: targetEntity: Entities\CarrierLine cascade: { } mappedBy: null inversedBy: null joinColumns: id_carrier_line: referencedColumnName: id_carrier_line orphanRemoval: false stop: column: id_stop targetEntity: Entities\Stop cascade: { } mappedBy: null inversedBy: carrierLineStop joinColumns: id_stop: referencedColumnName: id_stop orphanRemoval: false lifecycleCallbacks: { } - Entities\Stop: type: entity table: stop fields: idStop: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false column: id_stop generator: strategy: IDENTITY name: type: string length: 45 fixed: false nullable: true miejscowosc: type: string length: 45 fixed: false nullable: true latitude: type: decimal nullable: true longitude: type: decimal nullable: true oneToMany: carrierLineStop: targetEntity: Entities\CarrierLineStop cascade: { } mappedBy: stop inversedBy: null joinColumns: id_stop: referencedColumnName: id_stop orphanRemoval: false lifecycleCallbacks: { } I have no idea about where the problem is...

    Read the article

  • Why Does My Vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> Mysteriously Get Cleared?

    - by Eric
    Hello everyone, I am making a program that reads and stores data from Windows EventLog files (.evt) in C++. I am using the calls OpenBackupEventLog(ServerName, FileName) and ReadEventLog(...). Also using this: PEVENTLOGRECORD Anyway, without supplying all of the code, here is the basic idea: 1. I get a handle to the .evt file using OpenBackupEventLog() and passing in a file name. 2. I then use ReadEventLog() to fill up a buffer with an unknown number of EventLog messages. 3. I traverse through the buffer and add each message to a vector 4. I keep filling up buffers (repeat steps 2 and 3) until I reach the end of the file. Here is my code for filling the vector: vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> allRecords; while(_status == ERROR_SUCCESS) { if(!ReadEventLog(...)) CheckStatus(); else FillVectorFromBuffer(allRecords) } // Function FillVectorFromBuffer FillVectorFromBuffer(vector(PEVENTLOGRECORD) &allRecords) { int bytesExamined = 0; PBYTE pRecord = (PBYTE)_lpBuffer; // This is one of the params in ReadEventLog() while(bytesExamined < _pnBytesRead) // Another param from ReadEventLog { PEVENTLOGRECORD currentRecord = (PEVENTLOGRECORD)(pRecord); allRecords.push_back(currentRecord); pRecord += currentRecord->Length; bytesExamined += currentRecord->Length; } } Anyway, whenever I run this, it will get all the EventLogs in the file, and the vector will have everything I want it to. But as soon as this line: if(!ReadEventLog()) gets called and returns true (aka ReadEventLog() returns false), then every field in my vector gets set to zero. The vector will still contain the correct number of elements, it's just that all of the fields in the PEVENTLOGRECORD struct are now zero. Anyone with better debugging experience have any ideas? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

    Read the article

  • SQL different joins not making any difference to result

    - by Chrissi
    I'm trying to write a quick (ha!) program to organise some of my financial information. What I ideally want is a query that will return all records with financial information in them from TableA. There should be one row for each month, but in instances where there were no transactions for a month there will be no record. I get results like this: SELECT Period,Year,TotalValue FROM TableA WHERE Year='1997' Result: Period Year TotalValue 1 1997 298.16 2 1997 435.25 4 1997 338.37 8 1997 336.07 9 1997 578.97 11 1997 361.23 By joining on a table (well a View in this instance) which just contains a field Period with values from 1 to 12, I expect to get something like this: SELECT p.Period,a.Year,a.TotalValue FROM Periods AS p LEFT JOIN TableA AS a ON p.Period = a.Period WHERE Year='1997' Result: Period Year TotalValue 1 1997 298.16 2 1997 435.25 3 NULL NULL 4 1997 338.37 5 NULL NULL 6 NULL NULL 7 NULL NULL 8 1997 336.07 9 1997 578.97 10 NULL NULL 11 1997 361.23 12 NULL NULL What I'm actually getting though is the same result no matter how I join it (except CROSS JOIN which goes nuts, but it's really not what I wanted anyway, it was just to see if different joins are even doing anything). LEFT JOIN, RIGHT JOIN, INNER JOIN all fail to provide the NULL records I am expecting. Is there something obvious that I'm doing wrong in the JOIN? Does it matter that I'm joining onto a View?

    Read the article

  • Enhancing an 'ORDER BY' clause to judge condition by more than 1 integer

    - by Yvonne
    Hi folks, I have some PHP code which allows me to sort a column into ascending and descending order (upon click of a table row title), which is good. It works perfectly for my D.O.B colum (with date/time field type), but not for a quantity column. For example, I have quantites of 10, 50, 100, 30 and another 100. The order seems to be only appreciating the 1st integer, so my sorting of the column ends up in this order: 10, 100, 100, 30, 50... and 50, 30, 100, 100, 10. This is obviously incorrect as 100 is bigger than 50, therefore both 100 values should appear at the end surely? It seems to me that 100 is only being taken into account as having the '1' value, then it appears before 10 because the system recognises it has another 0. Is this normal to happen? Is there any way I can solve this problem? Thanks for any help. P.S. I can show code if necessary, but would like to know if this is a common issue by default.

    Read the article

  • How to make Entity Key Mapping in Entity Framework like sql's foreign key?

    - by programmerist
    I try to give entity map on my entity app. But how can I do it? I try to make it like below: var test = ( from k in Kartlar where k.Rehber..... above codes k.(can not see Rehber or not working ) if you are correct , i can write k.Rehber.ID and others. i can not write: from k in Kartlar where k.Rehber.ID = 123 //assuming that navigation property name is Rehbar and its primary key of Rehbar table is ID && k.Kampanya.ID = 345 //assuming that navigation property name is Kampanya and its primary //key of Kampanya table is ID && k.Birim.ID = 567 //assuming that navigation property name is Birim and its primary key of Birim table is ID select k images you can see: also: You should look : http://i42.tinypic.com/2nqyyc6.png I have a table it includes 3 foreign key field like that: My Table: Kartlar ID (Pkey) RehberID (Fkey) KampanyaID (Fkey) BrimID (Fkey) Name Detail How can i write entity query with LINQ ? select * from Kartlar where RehberID=123 and KampanyaID=345 and BrimID=567 BUT please be careful I can not see RehberID, KampanyaID, BrimID in entity they are foreign key. I should use entity key but how?

    Read the article

  • Digitally sign MS Office (Word, Excel, etc..) and PDF files on the server

    - by Sébastien Nussbaumer
    I need to digitally sign MS Office and PDF files that are stored on a server. I really mean a digital signature that is integrated in the document, according to each specific file formats. This is the process I had in mind : Create a hash of the file's content Send the hash to a custom written java applet in the browser The user encrypts the hash with his/her private key (on an usb token via PKCS#11 for example), thus effectively signing the file. The applet then sends the signature to the server On the server I would then incorporate the signature in the file's (MS Office and PDF files can do that without changing the file's content, probably by just setting some metadata field) What is cool is that you never have to download and upload the complete file to the server again. What is even cooler, the customer doesn't need Office or PDF Writer to sign the files. Parts 2, 3 and 4 are OK for me, my company bought all the JAVA technology I need for that for a previous project I worked on. Problem : I can't seem to find any documentation/examples to do parts 1 and 5 for Office files . Are my google skills failing me this time ? Do you have any pointers to documentation or examples for doing that for MS Office files ? The underlying technology isn't that important to me : I can use Java, .Net, COM, any working technology is OK ! Note : I'm 95% sure I can nail points 1 and 5 for PDF files using iText Thanks ** Edit : If I can't do that with hashes and must download the complete file to the client, it's also possible. But then I still need the documentation to be able to sign Office file... in java this time (from an applet)

    Read the article

  • Send html array as post variable using Request.JSON

    - by ian
    I have an html: First name: <input type='text' name='first_name' value='' /><br/> Last name: <input type='text' name='last_name' value='' /><br/> <input type='checkbox' name='category[]' value='Math' /> Math<br/> <input type='checkbox' name='category[]' value='Science' /> Science<br/> <input type='checkbox' name='category[]' value='History' /> History<br/> etc..... I want to send(using post method) the selected categories(category[]) via mootools ajax so that if I dump the $_POST variable in the server I will get something like: array(1) { [category]=> array(2) { [0]=> string(4) "Math" [1]=> string(7) "History" } } What should be the javascript(mootools) code for it? Below is my partial code. new Request.JSON({url: '/ajax_url', onSuccess: function(){ alert('success'); } }).post(???); Note that I don't want to send first_name and last_name fields. I only want to send the category field which is an html array.

    Read the article

  • how to get this value on method post using asp.net mvc

    - by kumar
    I have a lable in the view <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<CDC.ITT.Info.StudentBE>" %> <label for="FollowupDate"> Follow-up: <span><input type="text" id="exc-flwup" name="fdate" /></span> </label> $("input[id^='exc-flwup']").datepicker({ duration: '', showTime: true, constrainInput: true, stepMinutes: 30, stepHours: 1, altTimeField: '', time24h: true, minDate: 0 }); when I click on the input field I am getting popupcalender to select the date. My method post is <% using (Html.BeginForm("Update", "home", FormMethod.Post, new { @id = "exc-"})) { %> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true)%> then Followupdate user is goign to select the perticular date he wants.. when this method post to the method.. public ActionResult Update(StudentBE e) { return View(); } this e should have the date value but I am not able to see the date selected there.. is there anything wrong I am doing here? thanks

    Read the article

  • page.insert_html not rendering partial correctly

    - by mathee
    The following is in the text_field. = f.text_field :title, :size => 50, :onchange => remote_function(:update => :suggestions, :url => {:action => :display_question_search_results}) The following is in display_questions_search_results.rjs. page.insert_html :bottom, 'suggestions', :partial => 'suggestions' Whenever the user types, I'd like to search the database for any tuples that match the keywords in the text field. Then, display those results. But, at the moment, _suggestions.haml only contains the word "suggestions!!". But, instead of seeing "suggestions!!" in the suggestions div tag, I get: try { Element.insert("suggestions", { bottom: "suggestions!!" }); } catch (e) { alert('RJS error:\n\n' + e.toString()); alert('Element.insert(\"suggestions\", { bottom: \"suggestions!!\" });'); throw e } I've been trying to find out why this is being done, but the previously asked questions I found seem more complicated than what I'm doing...

    Read the article

  • Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

    - by Ben Robinson
    We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

    Read the article

  • Which fieldtype is best for storing PRICE values?

    - by BerggreenDK
    Hi there I am wondering whats the best "price field" in MSSQL for a shoplike structure? Looking at this overview: http://www.teratrax.com/sql_guide/data_types/sql_server_data_types.html We have datatypes called money, smallmoney, then we have decimal/numeric and lastly float and real Name, memory/disk-usage and value ranges: Money: 8 bytes (values: -922,337,203,685,477.5808 to +922,337,203,685,477.5807) Smallmoney: 4 bytes (values: -214,748.3648 to +214,748.3647) Decimal: 9 [default, min. 5] bytes (values: -10^38 +1 to 10^38 -1 ) Float: 8 bytes (values: -1.79E+308 to 1.79E+308 ) Real: 4 bytes (values: -3.40E+38 to 3.40E+38 ) My question is: is it really wise to store pricevalues in those types? what about eg. INT? Int: 4 bytes (values: -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647) Lets say a shop uses dollars, they have cents, but I dont see prices being $49.2142342 so the use of a lot of decimals showing cents seems waste of SQL bandwidth. Secondly, most shops wouldn't show any prices near 200.000.000 (not in normal webshops at least... unless someone is trying to sell me a famous tower in Paris) So why not go for an int? An int is fast, its only 4 bytes and you can easily make decimals, by saving values in cents instead of dollars and then divide when you present the values. The other approach would be to use smallmoney which is 4 bytes too, but this will require the math part of the CPU to do the calc, where as Int is integer power... on the downside you will need to divide every single outcome. Are there any "currency" related problems with regionalsettings when using smallmoney/money fields? what will these transfer too in C#/.NET ? Any pros/cons? Go for integer prices or smallmoney or some other? Whats does your experience tell?

    Read the article

  • Scientific Algorithms that can produce imagery, pseudocode perhaps?

    - by Ross
    Hello, I have a client who are based in the field of mathematics. We are developing, amongst other things, a website. I like to create a mock-up of a drawing tool that an produce some imagery in the background based on some scientific algorithms. The intention being that the may client, later, may create there own. (They use emacs for everything, great client.) I'm look for an answer of where or what to go looking for. Not code specific, pseudocode even, as we can adapt and have not yet settled on a platform. I'm afraid my mathematic stops at the power of two and some trigonometry. Appreciated if they're are any mathematics related students/academics how could enlighten me? What to search for will be accepted? Edit: To summarise/clarify, I want to draw pretty pictures (the design perspective). I want them to have some context (i.e. not just for the sake of pretty images but have some explanation available). In essence I would to create a rendering engine which we can draw the images and we set the style parameters: line, colour, etc... But to pursue this option I want to experiment myself. Thanks Ross

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC editor template for property

    - by Idsa
    Usually I render my forms by @Html.RenderModel, but this time I have a complex rendering logic and I render it manually. I decided to create a editor template for one property. Here is the code (copy pasted from default object editor template implementation): <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var modelMetadata = ViewData.ModelMetadata; %> <% if (modelMetadata.HideSurroundingHtml) { %> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <% } else { %> <% if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName).ToHtmlString())) { %> <div class="editor-label"><%= Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %></div> <% } %> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> </div> <% } %> And here is how I use it: @Html.EditorFor(x => x.SomeProperty, "Property") //"Property" is template above But it didn't work: labels are rendered regardless of DisplayName and editors are not rendered at all (in Watches Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName shows empty string). What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Why does Rails screw up timezones when I am editing a resource?

    - by DJTripleThreat
    Steps to produce this: prompt>rails test_app prompt>cd test_app prompt>script/generate scaffold date_test my_date:datetime prompt>rake db:migrate now edit your app/views/date_tests/edit.html.erb: <h1>Editing date_test</h1> <% form_for(@date_test) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> RIGHT!<br/> <%= text_field_tag @date_test, f.object.my_date %> </p> <p> WRONG!<br /> <%= f.text_field :my_date %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Update' %> </p> <% end %> <%= link_to 'Show', @date_test %> | <%= link_to 'Back', date_tests_path %> now edit your config/environment.rb: #add this config.time_zone = 'Central Time (US & Canada)' This recreates the problem I am having in my actual app. The problem with my app is that I'm storing a date in a hidden field and rendering a "user friendly" version. Creating a resource works fine but as soon as I try to edit it the time changes (it adds the difference between my current time zone configuration and UTC). go to http://localhost:3000/date_tests/new and save the time then go to reedit it and you will have two different representations of the date/time one which will save incorrectly and the other that will.

    Read the article

  • How to synchronize Silverlight clients with WCF?

    - by user564226
    Hi, this is probably only some conceptual problem, but I cannot seem to find the ideal solution. I'd like to create a Silverlight client application that uses WCF to control a third party application via some self written webservice. If there is more than one Silverlight client, all clients should be synchronized, i.e. parameter changes from one client should be propagated to all clients. I set up a very simple Silverlight GUI that manipulates parameters which are passed to the server (class inherits INotifyPropertyChanged): public double Height { get { return frameworkElement.Height; } set { if (frameworkElement.Height != value) { frameworkElement.Height = value; OnPropertyChanged("Height", value); } } } OnPropertyChanged is responsible for transferring data. The WCF service (duplex net.tcp) maintains a list of all clients and as soon as it receives a data packet (XElement with parameter change description) it forwards this very packet to all clients but the one the packet was received from. The client receives the package, but now I'm not sure, what's the best way to set the property internally. If I use "Height" (see above) a new change message would be generated and sent to all other clients a.s.o. Maybe I could use the data field (frameworkElement.Height) itself or a function - but I'm not sure whether there would arise problems with data binding later on. Also I don't want to simply copy parts of the code properties, to prevent bugs with redundant code. So what would you recommend? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Java website protection solutions (especially XSS)

    - by Mark
    I'm developing a web application, and facing some security problems. In my app users can send messages and see other's (a bulletin board like app). I'm validating all the form fields that users can send to my app. There are some very easy fields, like "nick name", that can be 6-10 alpabetical characters, or message sending time, which is sended to the users as a string, and then (when users ask for messages, that are "younger" or "older" than a date) I parse this with SimpleDateFormat (I'm developing in java, but my question is not related to only java). The big problem is the message field. I can't restrict it to only alphabetical characters (upper or lowercase), because I have to deal with some often use characters like ",',/,{,} etc... (users would not be satisfied if the system didn't allow them to use these stuff) According to this http://ha.ckers.org/xss.html, there are a lot of ways people can "hack" my site. But I'm wondering, is there any way I can do to prevent that? Not all, because there is no 100% protection, but I'd like a solution that can protect my site. I'm using servlets on the server side, and jQuery, on the client side. My app is "full" AJAX, so users open 1 JSP, then all the data is downloaded and rendered by jQuery using JSON. (yeah, I know it's not "users-without-javascript" friendly, but it's 2010, right? :-) ) I know front end validation is not enough. I'd like to use 3 layer validation: - 1. front end, javascript validate the data, then send to the server - 2. server side, the same validation, if there is anything, that shouldn't be there (because of client side javascript), I BAN the user - 3. if there is anything that I wasn't able to catch earlier, the rendering process handle and render appropriately Is there any "out of the box" solution, especially for java? Or other solution that I can use?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464  | Next Page >